Results 41 - 60 of 96
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: David_24597 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
41 | What is the time of the tribulation? | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 72184 | ||
Again, Pemican, I ask you to supply your references for these things you are saying. | ||||||
42 | Do we go directly to Heaven? | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 72182 | ||
I'm sorry. I thought you would be interested in an intellectual study of what the Bible might say about the state of the dead. If you want to insult me and be sarcastic and ignore the texts I supplied for you then that's up to you. I wish you well anyway. God bless and I hope you will come to the truth soon. You won't listen to me about it so I guess this discussion is at an end. Sorry. And no, I'm not a Jehovah's Witness. I believe that Jesus is my Creator (not a created being). |
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43 | Before or after the return of Christ? | 1 Thess 4:16 | David_24597 | 72180 | ||
Pemican, please show me some specific references for your post. Where does is say this "millenial reign" will take place on the earth? Don't the saved meet Jesus "in the air" when He comes? I Thess 4:16-18. The only reference I can find about Jesus actually touching the earth is in Zech. 14:4-13 where it also mentions the final destruction of the wicked. This would HAVE to happen at the "second" resurrection at the end of the 1,000 years Joel 3:9-16 with Rev. 20. Please supply references with your posts. Thx. | ||||||
44 | Before or after the return of Christ? | 1 Thess 4:16 | David_24597 | 72176 | ||
Prayon, where does the Bible teach a "seven year" tribulation? Rev. 18:8 coupled with Isa. 34:8 and 63:4 shows it only one year. Also what Bible references do you have for this "rapture"? You do know of course that I Thess. 4:16-18 shows that the saints are resurrected at the "last trump"? Wouldn't this be the "first resurrection" of Rev. 20 at the beginning of the 1,000 years? |
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45 | Do we go directly to Heaven? | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 72175 | ||
EdB, I got that information about crucifixion from a website. I don't remember which one though. They did a study where some students agreed to be tied to crosses in the same position that Jesus was crucufied. No problems with breathing. They began to have problems with their internal organs though. Do a google search if you're really interested in knowing more about this. Anybody who reads John 20:17 can see that you are attempting to rewrite scripture here. Read it for yourself. Then read Luke 24:38-39 and see that they COULD touch Him then. If Mary couldn't touch Him right after His resurrection because He had not yet presented Himself to the Father yet later on that same day His disciples COULD touch Him, then He must have gone to heaven in between the two times that Mary saw Him and His disciples saw Him. Then 40 days later He went to heaven in front of everybody. Then there was the time he saw Paul on the road to Damascus. There were obvoiusly times when He was coming and going between earth and heaven. This teaching in John 20:17 does in no way deny His ascension 40 days later. I did not say that the parable of the rich man and Lazarus was not true. I said it was a parable and not to be taken literally. Let's consider your version of the parable of the rich man and Lazarus: 1) I assume that you believe that they were "disembodied" spirits or souls? What effect would a hot dry place have on such a being? For that matter what would a couple drops of water do to this creature? In order for these physical things to have any effect of the rich man, he would have to be "in the flesh". He could not be a "disembodied" spirit/soul. 2) Consider the other texts I supplied in the above 2 part post. Specifically Ps. 146:3 and Eccl. 9:5-6. The thoughts and emotions of the dead are "perished". How could the dead have a conversation between themselves if they are unable to think or feel? 3) If the saved in "Abraham's bosom" all accompanied Jesus at His ascension then why is King David still in his grave and has not ascended into heaven? Acts 2:29 and 34 Anyway, why don't you read my post up there and check out the references I supplied on what the Bible teaches about the state of the dead. You will see that they don't match up with your version of the parable of the rich man and Lazarus. And, also, I havent't taken II Cor. 5:8 out of context. Read verses 6, 9, 10, 15 and 16. He is talking about the lusts of the flesh here. Can't you see that? Also compare verse 17 here with 7:1. There are plenty of Bible verse that teach that to follow our fleshly desires will seperate us from God. Do yourself a favor Ed. Do a little research into every verse you can find in the Bible concerning the state of the dead. There is quite a thread to be found there if you're interested. Don't let your indoctrinated beliefs influence your thinking. Let the Bible teach you what it is really saying. I can tell that you haven't really done that. I urge you to try it for once. It may take you a few days to look into, but I think you will benefit from it. If you have a good concordance, check out the words sleep/sleepeth, awake/awaken/awakened, dead/death, grave, resurrection, etc. I think you will be surprised what you will find. |
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46 | Finding 'Act as though you have faith' | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 72106 | ||
The codes for unsealing the prophecies are all throughout the Bible. The catch is, "they are spiritually discerned". By mocking and making fun of things that go against your own belief you show me that you will never understand this. If you let the Bible interpret itself you would understand the prophecies of Revelation. "All have sinned and come short of the glory of God." All souls die. Only those that are saved have any hope in taking part in the resurrection of life. And I never said the Ten Commandments are "Ten Warnings" where do you get that from? |
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47 | Must Christ have had a human nature? | Phil 2:7 | David_24597 | 72093 | ||
Of course Jesus was completely and totaly human. How else could His sacrifice have been of any benefit to the human race? Rom. 5:12 and 17 kinda hints at this. Jesus also didn't even have any knowledge of being our Creator when He was born. He had to "learn" Isa. 7:15-16 and Luke 2:40 and 52. (Don't get me wrong John chapter 1 shows that Jesus created all things. He is our Creator.) He also proved to all the universe that God's law CAN be kept. Satan had cast doubt on God's word and Jesus proved that God was right and Satan was wrong. Had Jesus ever commited even one sin His death could not have been for our sins but for His own sin and everyone would know that it was impossible to obey what God asks. Jesus did not just save humans. He saved all of God's creations from anarchy and satanic rule. Sorry, I can't think of any references for this right now. Just my humble opinion. But Heb. 1:2 and 11:3 mention the existence of other worlds besides our own. Surely they were affected by Satan's rebellion (though our own world is the only one that has fallen). | ||||||
48 | Is the devil a personification of my sin | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 72085 | ||
Yes, the devil is a real person. Isa. 14:12-20; Ezek. 28:13-19. Who was it that tempted Jesus in the wilderness? Matt. 4:1-11; Luke 4:1-13. I can't think of where it is right now but even Jesus said that he saw Satan fall from heaven. And Paul said the devil is transformed into an angel of light. (II Cor. 11:14). Rev. 12 even records a war in heaven between Michael and His angels and Satan and his angels. | ||||||
49 | Finding 'Act as though you have faith' | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 72083 | ||
Aften1, the prophecy in Dan. 12:9 states that these things would be sealed "until the time of the end". And Rev. 10 shows that the time has come for these things to be unsealed. The book in the angel's hand is "open" (unsealed) and it is a book of prophecy (verse 11). Ezekiel was given the gift of prophecy the same way as described here in Rev. 10 (Ezek. 2:9 through 3:4). If you let the Bible interpret itself these things mentioned in the prophecies are easy to understand. You asked, "How can you reform Christianity when you do not know the mind or will of God on these matters?" The answer is simple. If the Bible warns of things that people are doing wrong then it is the duty of God's people to warn them. Isa. 58:1 and Ezek. 33:7-9 are but two examples. |
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50 | Do we go directly to Heaven? | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 72081 | ||
Hi EdB, You might be interested to know that this "death by asphyxiation" would only occur should the victim be crucified with his arms suspended ABOVE his head, not (as in Jesus' case) with the arms stretched out on either side. It could take up to three days for a person to die with the arms outstretched on either side. Death in this manner is the result of the victim going into hypovolemic shock. Death is this manner can be in, a manner of hours, or days depending on the manner in which the victim is affixed to the cross. If the victim is crucified with a small seat, a sedile, affixed to the uptight for minimum support in the region of the buttocks, death can be prolonged for hours and days. If you will recall, Pilate was surprised that Jesus was already dead after just six hours. He had to send someone to go check to make sure. (Mark 15:43-45) Second John 20:17 in the Greek is "haptomai mou me" (touch/cling to, me/mine, not/that not) so it HAS been (the KJV) translated accurately enough. And the word "paradise" in Luke 23:43 is "paradeisos" Strong's #3857 and DOES denote the place where God dwells. (Rev. 2:7) It is another word for heaven. Third "Hades" denotes "the grave", the place where the dead go. It does NOT mean some underground place where living souls are. And the parable of the rich man and Lazarus was just that (a parable). It was not a literal account of things. Consider that a man's arm could not literally stretch across this great gulf. Much less would a couple of drops of water ease the suffering of anyone in a place of perpetual burning. Jesus said this story to show that those that live a life of pleasure (at the expense of others) in this life would end up suffering the final penaly for sin. While those that lived a life of suffering (for Jesus' sake) would enherit eternal life. And finally II Cor. 5:8 I take to mean "absent from the fleshly desires of the body". Note verse 7 "we walk by faith not by sight" (these things are spiritualy discerned) and verse 10 shows that he is talking about "things done in the body". He is not talking about being physiacally dead. Another verse in Col. 2:5 shows that "absent in the flesh yet am present in the spirit" simply means that his physical presence is not there with them at that time yet his (Paul's) spirit is. Much in the way that you might think about someone (wishing you were with them) yet you are physically apart from them. |
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51 | Jacob wrestles with a man | Gen 32:1 | David_24597 | 72052 | ||
Gen. 32:24-30 describes this wrestling between Jacob and God. Verse 30 shows that it was God. Now no one can look upon God the Father and live. Ex. 33:20; Heb. 12:29. So this had to be Jesus. | ||||||
52 | Finding 'Act as though you have faith' | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 72051 | ||
Sorry I didn't supply the text for that. It's Eph. 2:5-9. Also Rom. 3:24 and 11:5-6 just to name a couple more. There are others as well. If God was not a God of love we would have no hope for eternal life. It's the sacrifice of Jesus that has saved us. John 3:16 and Rom. 6:23 "All have sinned and come short of the glory of God." Rom. 3:23 Faith and works are just two sides of the same coin. We don't do the good works to GET saved. We do the good works BECAUSE we are ALREADY saved. James chapter 2 speaks of this. And also shows that we show the world that we are saved through our works. Naturally the opposite would apply also. Those that refuse to do the good works of faith are showing the world that they ARE NOT saved. |
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53 | Do we go directly to Heaven? | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 72038 | ||
continued from previous post... What about the promise Jesus gave to the thief on the cross? "Verily I say unto thee, Today shalt thou be with me in paradise." Jesus never lied yet three things show that He did not see that thief in heaven: (1) the Bible definition of death is eternal sleep; (2) after His resurrection (three days after He died) Jesus told Mary Magdalene that He had not yet gone to heaven but that He was going now. John 20:17; (3) That thief did not even die on that day. Note in John 19:31-33 that the thieves were taken down from their crosses while they were still alive and would have been put back on them after the Sabbath was over. What then did Jesus mean when He said, “Today shalt thou be with me in paradise”? The words have been translated accurately enough to make no difference, but notice that the original languages of the Bible have no punctuation. All the periods, commas, question marks, colons, etc. (as well as chapter and verse separation) were supplied by humans as they translated the originals into English. Could it be that the punctuation could change the meaning if put in the wrong place? Note again: "Verily I say unto thee, (comma) today shalt thou be with me in paradise". What if the comma has been misplaced and belongs after the word today and not before? "Verily I say unto thee today, thou shalt be with me in paradise". Instead of Jesus promising the thief that they would be in paradise THAT DAY, which was obviously a lie, He said, "I tell you this today (right now), that you will be with me in paradise". This was not a promise to be with Jesus that day in heaven but rather a promise given that day that at some later date the thief would be with Jesus in paradise. So Jesus did not lie and the Bible is still in harmony with itself. A human error was the cause of this confusion." Anyway, I hope this helps. I know I have only scratched the surface here. I have more information on this subject if you're interested. Just ask. David |
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54 | Do we go directly to Heaven? | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 72037 | ||
Hi, Please allow me to copy/paste this from a previous post. This will be in two posts cause it's kinda long. Sorry bout that: I've done some research on who is heaven and have come to this conclusion: The only ones in heaven now are: 1) Enoch and Elijah - Gen. 5:24 and Heb. 11:5 show that Enoch never died. II Kings 2:1-18 records Elijah's translation. Some even went to look for his body but never found it. 2) Moses was resurrected from the grave - Deut. 34:5-7 records his death and burial. Jude 9 would seem to indicate his resurrection. 3) Some of the saints were resurrected at the same time as Jesus Matt. 27:52-53 and were led to heaven when Jesus ascended. In Eph. 4:8 the phrase "led captivity captive" actually translates literally as "led a multitude of captives" without specifying exactly how many are in this "multitude". From your posts I assume that you believe that when a saved person dies that their "soul" or "spirit" (some conscience, thinking feeling part of you) will go into heaven right away. I've done some research on this as well. First of all if there is no resurrection from the dead then there will be no one saved from the grave (I Cor. 15:12-23 - vese 23 even shows that this happens at Jesus' coming.) Please allow me to copy/paste this from some of my research: "Note that Moses appeared (with Elijah) at the mount of transfiguration. Matt. 17:3-4; Mark 9:4-5; Luke 9:30-33. There are some that contend that when you die you will receive your reward right away. If this is true then why is King David still in his grave and has not yet ascended into heaven? Acts 2:29 and 34. Paul stated he would wait until the resurrection to receive his reward of eternal life. II Tim. 4:6-8. Daniel also was told to wait in the grave until the resurrection. Dan. 12:13. Note Job 14:10-15. Remember, death is a total cessation of life, an eternal sleep until the resurrection. Job 14:12 and 19:26. Note that God’s Spirit is His breath; Job 34:14-15 and 27:3; Gen. 2:7; Ps. 104:29-30; Eccl. 12:7. Job knew that he would sleep in the grave until he was resurrected in the flesh. Job 19:26; Isa. 26:19. Read Ps. 146:4 and Eccl. 9:5,6-10. Note that Paul called death "sleep" in Acts 7:60 and so did Jesus in John 11:11-14. Many places in the Bible speak of the resurrection as an awakening out of sleep; Joel 3:9 and 12; Isa. 26:19; Dan. 12:2. Note also verse 18 in I Cor. 15:12-26. If your spirit is your breath (note the margin in James 2:26), and the word translated as "spirit" also means "breath", "wind" and "air", then what about your soul? Can a soul die? Ezek. 18:4 and 20 and Rev. 16:3. Note also that a human has no preeminence above a beast. Eccl. 3:19-21 and that the word translated "creature" in Gen. 1:20,21 and 24 is the same word that was translated as "soul" in Gen. 2:7. So it would seem that the body (dust of the earth) plus the spirit (breath of life) makes a soul (a living creature). When the spirit (or breath) leaves, the body returns to the earth (dust) and the soul (living creature) ceases to exist. During a resurrection the opposite happens, the breath (spirit) returns to the body (dust) and the soul lives again. See Ezek. 37:1-14 esp. vers. 9-14 for an excellent example of how this works. What then about the second death Rev. 20:6 and 14? If death is a sleep, don’t the wicked burn forever? Note that the burning itself is not eternal but the result of it (death and destruction) is. Dan. 12:2; Matt. 25:46 (note that death is the punishment for sin, Rom. 6:23), II Thess. 1:9. In Mal. 4:1-3 the wicked are reduced to ashes. Even Satan is brought to ashes and ceases to exist Ezek. 28:18-19. After their final destruction they die and sleep forever Jer. 51:39 and 57. Note that Sodom and Gomorrah suffered the vengeance of eternal fire Jude 7 but have been reduced to ashes II Peter 2:6 for our example. Note the literal translation of Isa. 66:24 is "their worm shall not yet die, neither shall their fire be yet quenched". That word yet implies that eventually they will die and their fire will be quenched. continued in next post... |
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55 | Finding 'Act as though you have faith' | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 71938 | ||
Some ways the Bible tells us to increase our faith: 1) Ask of God and he will give you more faith. Mark 9:17-24 is a good example. So number 2 2) Faith can be increased by seeing miracles done. Acts 2 is another good example. 3) Faith increases when it is tried in the furnace of affliction I Peter 1:7. Job 23:10, Dan. 12:10 and Rev. 3:18 hints of this as well. A word of warning here though LOL. If one ask Gods for faith (number 1 above) God may just increase your faith by allowing trials and tribulations to fall upon you in answer to your prayer. 4) Then there's James 2:22 which shows that faith is made perfect through works. As in the case of Abraham. His faith in the coming Messiah was increased when he tried to obey God's command to sacrifice his son for a burnt offering. Now I'm not saying we should try to sacrifice our children to follow Abraham's example LOL. We are under the New Covenant of grace not the Old Covenant of the Mosaic Laws. But if the Bible (especially the New Testament) tells us to do something, we should do it (and our faith will increase because of our obedience). 5) And finally, "Faith comes by hearing and hearing by the word of God." Rom. 10:17 Since we are saved by grace THROUGH faith, surely every avenue that is opened to us to increase our faith should be explored? |
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56 | God/Man, Man/Man Relationships | Gen 3:8 | David_24597 | 71935 | ||
I would agree with Lionstrong. I've got a list somewhere on this computer showing all ten of the Ten Commandments upheld in the New Testament. Shows me that the Ten Commandment Law is still binding on God's people even in this day and age. I'll find it and copy/paste it on this forum if anyone is interested. It also shows knowledge of the Ten Commandments were known BEFORE they were given in written form on Mt. Sinai. | ||||||
57 | Not praying for one's self? | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 71820 | ||
I admit that, on the surface, Jabez' prayer sounds like the type that James 4 is talking about. But if it was God would not have answered it. Rather I would "guess" that Jabez was the same type of person that this lady in Miss. was that you mentioned. The text in I Chron. does mention that Jabez was more "honorable" that his brethren. | ||||||
58 | Why does God bet with Satan in Job? | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 71816 | ||
Well, this was obviously a test of Abraham's faith. Did God need any proof of his faithfulness? On the other hand God also revealed His plan for mankind's salvation here. He put Abraham in a position that showed Abraham what it was like to give up his son for a sacrifice for sin. Just because there is no Biblical record of Satan's hand in this (like there is in Job) doesn't mean there wasn't a similar conflict between God and Satan concerning Abraham. The book of Job shows how God "brags" about His faithful people to everyone. Naturally I think he would have done the same with Abraham and Satan would have taken offence with this. I know there is no Biblical evidence of this about Abraham. I was using Job as an example. | ||||||
59 | Who can Baptize you? Does it matter? | Rom 10:9 | David_24597 | 71801 | ||
Actually, to me, baptism is an outward showing to all that you have accepted your salvation. It doesn't matter to me what denomination someone is baptised in. I agree though that it should be by immersion, not a little sprinkle LOL. Also it is an adult decision, not something that a baby could consent to. | ||||||
60 | Need more clarification | Bible general Archive 1 | David_24597 | 71799 | ||
continued from previous post... What about the promise Jesus gave to the thief on the cross? "Verily I say unto thee, Today shalt thou be with me in paradise." Jesus never lied yet three things show that He did not see that thief in heaven: (1) the Bible definition of death is eternal sleep; (2) after His resurrection (three days after He died) Jesus told Mary Magdalene that He had not yet gone to heaven but that He was going now. John 20:17; (3) That thief did not even die on that day. Note in John 19:31-33 that the thieves were taken down from their crosses while they were still alive and would have been put back on them after the Sabbath was over. What then did Jesus mean when He said, “Today shalt thou be with me in paradise”? The words have been translated accurately enough to make no difference, but notice that the original languages of the Bible have no punctuation. All the periods, commas, question marks, colons, etc. (as well as chapter and verse separation) were supplied by humans as they translated the originals into English. Could it be that the punctuation could change the meaning if put in the wrong place? Note again: "Verily I say unto thee, (comma) today shalt thou be with me in paradise". What if the comma has been misplaced and belongs after the word today and not before? "Verily I say unto thee today, thou shalt be with me in paradise". Instead of Jesus promising the thief that they would be in paradise THAT DAY, which was obviously a lie, He said, "I tell you this today (right now), that you will be with me in paradise". This was not a promise to be with Jesus that day in heaven but rather a promise given that day that at some later date the thief would be with Jesus in paradise. So Jesus did not lie and the Bible is still in harmony with itself. A human error was the cause of this confusion." Anyway, I hope this helps. I didn't mean for this post to be so long. Sorry bout that. I had to divide it in two posts. |
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