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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
41 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | alanh | 135267 | ||
Some allege that the baptism commissioned by Christ was not a rite in water. Rather, they contend, it is an immersion in the Holy Spirit. What are the facts regarding this matter? “How would you respond to those who make the claim that passages such as Galatians 3:27; Romans 6:3,4; Colossians 2:12; 1 Corinthians 12:13, and 1 Peter 3:21 – refer to a ‘Spirit’ baptism, rather than to ‘water’ baptism?” The baptism mentioned in Matthew 28:19 had human administrators. Christ commissioned the apostles to go and make disciples, baptizing them into the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Inasmuch as an apostle could not baptize “in the Spirit” (only Christ could do that – Mt. 3:11), one is forced to conclude that the baptism of Matthew 28:19 is water baptism, not Spirit baptism. I am unaware of any reputable Bible scholar who contends otherwise. If, then, the other passages that mention baptism (see above) are of the same import, it follows that they likewise refer to water baptism, not Spirit baptism. Both Romans 6:3-4 and Colossians 2:12 make it clear that the baptism of these passages involves both an immersion in “something,” and a “being raised” from the same substance. This makes perfectly good sense if water baptism is in view. On the other hand, if the “Spirit” is the element of the baptism, this would suggest that one is buried in the Spirit, and subsequently “raised from” the Spirit. This would imply further that the new convert would not have the Spirit, and therefore, would not belong to the Lord (Rom. 8:9; Gal. 4:6). This conclusion obviously is wrong – thus demonstrating that the element of the baptism in Romans 6:3-4 and Colossians 2:12 is not the Holy Spirit. By default, it must be water baptism. Water is specifically associated with baptism in 1 Peter 3:21. If the allusion here, then, is to water baptism, and yet 1 Peter 3:21 refers to the same sort of baptism as the other passages cited, then clearly they speak of water baptism as well. The passage that would come closest to teaching a “Spirit” baptism would be 1 Corinthians 12:13, but, the fact is, a careful analysis of related passages reveals that not even this text teaches a baptism in the Spirit. Note the following logic: The baptism of 1 Corinthians 12:13 puts one into the one “body,” which is the same as the “church” (Eph. 1:22-23; Col. 1:18,24). But the church is identified with the kingdom of Christ (Mt. 16:18-19). Thus, the baptism of the text under consideration introduces one into the Lord’s kingdom. However, a related passage demonstrates that it is through the birth of “water” that one enters Christ’s kingdom (Jn. 3:3-5). One is forced to conclude, therefore, that the baptism of 1 Corinthians 12:13 is water baptism. In this connection, one should also carefully study Ephesians 5:26, and note the reference to the “washing of water.” |
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42 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | alanh | 135168 | ||
this One will baptize with *holy *spirit and fire. and thus He did on Pentecost and in 70CE and an obvious allusion to hell fire. To have the Spirit come upon oneself is to be baptized by the Spirit. Jesus spoke of being baptized of the water and the Spirit, but in know way said everyone must be baptized thus. Christians today are baptized by water because it is commanded in order to become a Christian and be saved (Mark 16:15-16; Mt 28:19-20; Acts 2:38; 1 Peter 3:21). According to Ephesians 4 there is only one baptism today and that is water baptism. |
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43 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | alanh | 135091 | ||
The water in John 3:5 is baptism and the Spirit is the Holy Spirit. Just as Jesus when baptized of John was baptized of the water and the Spirit (the Spirit descended upon Him in the form of a Dove). | ||||||
44 | Millions led by Satan equal Goat Nations | Rev 20:8 | alanh | 126125 | ||
The point is if the beheading is figurative then the 1000 years is figurative and if the 1000 years is literal then the behheaded souls on the throne is literal. Think about it. You cannot have part of this passage literal and part of it figurative. Also, If the reigning ends with the thousand years, the living ends with a thousand years, that is not a millennium I would look forward to. I prefer the idea of eternal life espoused in the Scriptures (Mat 19:29; Joh 3:15-16; Heb 5:9; 9:15; 1Jo 2:25; 5:13; Jud 21). | ||||||
45 | Millions led by Satan equal Goat Nations | Rev 20:8 | alanh | 126021 | ||
My fellow Bible student you are reading things into the Scriptures that are not there by taking prophetic language and reading it literally. The book of Revelation is a book that tells of the coming destruction of Jerusalem in 70CE. When you read the first chater you find that it is (1)a Revelation (1:1); (2) to the seven churches of Asia (1:11); (3) in signs (He sent and sign-i-fied it) (1:1); (4) of things that must shortly come to pass (1:1; cf. 1:3; 22:6,10). The 1000 year reign of Christ. The text says, "they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years." The pronoun "we" is a personal pronoun of the first person, but "they" is a is a personal pronoun of the third person; the verbs "lived" and "reigned" are verbs of the past tense, but "shall live and reign" are verbs of future tense. No person can claim the right to change the sentence of the text from the third personal pronoun "they" to the first personal pronoun "we," nor to chage the verbs "lived" and "reigned" of the past tense to "shall live and reign" of the future tense. That is too much change for any man to make who has an ounce of respect for the word of God. In his vision John "saw thrones" and the ones that "sat on them." And those whom he "saw" were the "souls" of the "beheaded." They had not "worshipped" the beast. They had not "received" the mark, and they "lived" and "reigned" with Christ. First: "They lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years." It does not mention the second coming of Christ, a bodily resurrection, a reign on earth, or a literal throne in Jerusalem or elsewhere. It does not mention us, and it does not mention Christ on earth. Revelaton 20 mentions none of these things, and a curse was pronounced on the one who add to the words of this book (revelation 22:18). Second: "They" lived and reigned with Christ. It says "they"-the souls of the martyrs who were beheaded. Only those who were beheaded entered the 1000 yrs. If the 1000 yrs is literal then the behading is literal, and only those literally beheaded entered into that millennium. If the beheading is figurative, the 1000 yrs. is figurative, and that cuts us out; for there could be no literal millennium. If a literal 1000 yrs, then a literal behading; if a figurative beheading, then a figurative 1000 yrs, and either way there is no millennium for us. Third: They "lived" and "reigned." If the term "reigned" is limited by a thousand years, the verb "lived"is also limited by those thosand years. If the reigning ends with the thousand years, the living ends with a thousand years, and the millennium will end with everybody in it ceasing to live. That would be quite a hopeless millennium. There is no millennium. |
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46 | Clean and unclean problem may be complex | Lev 11:3 | alanh | 126015 | ||
I agree with you completely. the only animal I know for sure tthat fits the situation is the pig because of trichinosis. It is possible that other animals fit into a similar catigory. I do know that you can get very sick with seafood such as muscle, oysters, scallops and these were considered unclean. | ||||||
47 | The Ten Commandments in the Bible | Ex 20:1 | alanh | 126012 | ||
The Ten Commandments were a part of the old covenant and were nailed to the cross (Col. 2:14). Although many of the commandments are repeated under the New Covenant one is not: "Remember the Sabbath day by keeping it holy." (Exodus 20:8-11; Deut. 5:12-15). We are no longer to worship on the Sabbath. The covenant of the Ten Commandments were given only to the Jews Moses said,"Jehovah our God made a covenant with us in Horeb. Jehovah made not this covenant with our fathers, but with us, even us, who are all of us here alive this day" (Deut. 5:2-3). The Ten Commandments were indeed that covenant of which he spoke, notice the following, "And he was there with Jehovah forty days and forty nights; he did neither eat bread, nor drink water. And he wrote upon the tables the words of the covenant, the ten commandments" (Exodus 34:28). In summary the Ten Commandments were nailed to the cross. The maral laws can all be found in the New Testament writings after the church has begun. The fourth law is no where to be found in the New Testament after Acts 2. |
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48 | The rapture, A comming event, Pg 3. | 1 Thess 4:16 | alanh | 126009 | ||
Where do you read the word "rapture" in the Bible? It is not there nor is the concept there, the "raopture" is not a coming event it is not an event at all.. Read Matthew 24 closely and notice how many times the Lord says "you," this is because those events were to happen in their life time not centuries from then. All of chapter 24 with the exception of verses 36ff have been fulfilled. Notice what Jesus says in verse 34: "Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass away, till all these things be accomplished" (Matt. 24:34). Jesus is predicting the destruction of Jerusalem in 70CE and with that destruction ends Judaism. There can be no more sacrifice because there is no more priesthood (with the temple destroyed there are no more genealogical records). When one looks to the book of Revelation for information there are 4 things that must be remembered about the prophesies: 1) It is a Revelation (1:1);(2) to seven churches in Asia (1:11); (3) in signs [He sent and sign-i-fied it](1:1); (4) of things that must shor,tly come to pass (1:1; cf. 1:3; 22:6,10). Now with this information in hand we find that Revelation cannot be referring to events in the far future because the apostle plainly states the events will "shortly come to pass." Revelation also has little meaning for any but the 7 churches of Asia to whom they were written. John in the fist chapter of Revelation states that the tribulation was in his own time "I John, your brother and partaker with you in tribulation and kingdom and patience which are in Jesus, was in the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God and the testimony of Jesus" (Revelation 1:9) and then in signs and symbols tells of the destruction of Jerusalem in 70CE. It is a message of hope to the Christian of the first century. The Scripture you have referenced 1 Thessalonians 4:16 is referring to the end of the age when Christ returns. The time of judgment. 1 Thessalonians 4:18 "Wherefore comfort one another with these words." |
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49 | Did Jesus go to hell after dying? | Ephesians | alanh | 124722 | ||
The full penaty for our sins is "death" (Romans 6:23). We are not condemned to "Gehenna" (Hell) or Heaven until the judgment. Christ descended into Hades A place of the unseen, divided into two sides--"Abraham's bosom" (Luke 16:22,23), also known as "Paradise" (Luke 24:43), and "torments" (Luke 16:23), also known as "Tartarus". The divisions can be observed as follows: I. In the world innocent and saved / lost DEATH II. Sheol or Hades paradise // tartarus RESURRECTION III. Final Judgment rewarded (come to heaven) // condemned (depart to Gehenna the lake of fire) / equals gulf not fixed // equals gulf fixed |
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50 | Did Jesus go to hell after dying? | Ephesians | alanh | 124721 | ||
Hades, on either side, is not to be depopulated until Christ returns. The dead reside in Hades until that time. Hades and Hell are not the same thing. | ||||||
51 | Adultery by both parties. Divorce? | NT general Archive 1 | alanh | 124717 | ||
The remarriage in the case you are referring to would refer to any divorce then this is not so, but only to divorce where it was done for other reason than fornication (adultry, sexual immoralatry). Follow the meaning of divorce (apoluo) logically---i.e. what does it mean.] Please notice as I have shown you two cases are stated: 1) no divorce in the eyes of God 2) divorce in the eyes of God If you are saying REMARRIAGE means adultry then it only follows that both parties are still married and neither can remarry, but if one can remarry BECAUSE THEY ARE DIVORCED DUE TO UNFAITHFULNESS then both can remarry BECAUSE THEY ARE DIVORCED---NO LONGER MARRIED!!! The fact is God hates divorce (Malachi 2:16). Couples should always try to work things out, even when marital unfaithfulness is involved. But when it cannot and divorce for fornication is the cause then the divorce applies to both parties one cannot still be married and commit adultry while the other cannot it is not logical nor is it what the Scriptures say. |
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52 | Adultery by both parties. Divorce? | NT general Archive 1 | alanh | 124609 | ||
The Scripture says two things: 1) Divorce, except for adultry eguals adultry 2) Divorce, in the case of adultry eguals divorce not adultry. Divorce means the parties involved are no longer married! |
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53 | Only ONE God | Mark 12:32 | alanh | 124515 | ||
Genesis 1:1 "In the beginning GOD (Elohim, a plural singular word)created" (John 1:1) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:14) And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father), full of grace and truth. (Acts 5:3) But Peter said, Ananias, why hath Satan filled thy heart to lie to the Holy Spirit, and to keep back part of the price of the land? (Acts 5:4) While it remained, did it not remain thine own? and after it was sold, was it not in thy power? How is it that thou hast conceived this thing in thy heart? thou has not lied unto men, but unto God. Note the following from the proceeding verses: 1) Elohim is a plural singular 2) The Word was with God...the Word was God...the Word became flesh (the Word, God, is two different entities) 3) Ananias lied to the Holy Spirit at the same time as to God...they are one and the same yet different. |
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54 | Post-Endtime Martyrs | Mark 9:1 | alanh | 124511 | ||
Mark 9:1 "And Jesus was saying to them, "Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who will not taste death until they see the kingdom of God after it has come with power." Jesus here is specifically speaking to His 12 apostles, of which Judas was present. As we know Judas hung himself in remorse for betraying Christ (Matthew 27:5). In the book of Acts chapter one we find the following "and, being assembled together with them, he charged them not to depart from Jerusalem, but to wait for the promise of the Father, which, said he, ye heard from me: For John indeed baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized in the Holy Spirit not many days hence. They therefore, when they were come together, asked him, saying, Lord, dost thou at this time restore the kingdom to Israel? And he said unto them, It is not for you to know times or seasons, which the Father hath set within His own authority. But ye shall receive power, when the Holy Spirit is come upon you: and ye shall be my witnesses both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea and Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth" (Acts 1:4-8)[note they are asking about an earthly kingdom, the kingdom is spiritual, and Jesus tells them about the power of the H.S. they are to receive]. Acts 2 tells of the kingdom coming with power and some that were standing with Jesus in Mark 9:1 are here. Colossians 1:8 tells us the kigdom is already here. When did it come? Acts chapter 2 on Pentecost with power. |
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55 | The Rapture, a comming event. | Titus 2:13 | alanh | 124508 | ||
You are correct most ministeries do espouse this belief, but it is not biblically based. The church of Christ does not teach this. | ||||||
56 | Adultery by both parties. Divorce? | NT general Archive 1 | alanh | 124507 | ||
The term divorce comes from the Greek word apoluo and means "to loose, set free." If one is loosed or set free do they not have the right to marry or are they still "bound." Both partys are set free not just one. You are misreading the Scriptures or reading them the way they have been intrepreted without regard to the meaning of the Greek word. A divorce involves both partys not just half. | ||||||
57 | The Rapture, a comming event. | Titus 2:13 | alanh | 124506 | ||
This Scripture has nothing to do with the so called rapture, butis referencing the end of time when Christ returns to judge all. | ||||||
58 | Cessation of the gift of tongues | 1 Cor 13:8 | alanh | 124436 | ||
The kingdom of Christ has come else how would the Colossians be "transferred...tothe kingdom of His beloved Son." All thru the Bible up until Acts 2 we are told of the kingdom coming after Acts 2 the kingdom is spoken of as a fact. The church and the kingdom are one and the same thing note Jesus words in Matthew 16 where church and kingdom of heaven are used interchangably, "Blessed are you Simon Barjona, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but My Father who is in heaven. I also say to you that you are Peter(Petros), and upon this rock (petra) I will build My church; and the gates of Hades will not overpower it. I will give you (plural) the keys to the kingdom of heaven (used instead of church); and whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heave, and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven." The miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit were designed to aid the fledgeling church in its establishment. They were not designed to continue indefinetly. When Paul said they would cease that is exactly what he meant. 1 Corinthians 13:8-10 tells when the gifts would cease; "when that which is perfect is come." This reference to that which is perfect in construction is not referring to Christ because He had already come. This passage does not say anything about coming again. The passage is referring to the completed New Testament once it had come we would no longer know in part but would know fully. As to your reference to the baptism of the Holy Spirit, this only happened twice (Acts 2 and Acts 10). The gifts of the Holy Spirit were passed on by the laying on of the apostles hands (Acts 8:14-17). If you read Acts 8 you find that Philip altho he had miraculous power could not pass it on, the apostles came from Jerusalem and laid their hands on the believers in order to impart the gofts of the Spirit. There are no apostles today to impart the gift onto believers and the belivers of the first century have long ago died. How are the gifts passed on today? Did God decide to try something new? The evidence indicates that the gifts of the Spirit have ceased. I know of no one today who speaks in a tongue (known language)not studied. |
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59 | The rise of Antichrist, we are close. | Dan 9:27 | alanh | 124412 | ||
The antichrist has come, "Little children, it is the last hour: and as ye heard that antichrist cometh, even now have there arisen many antichrists; whereby we know that it is the last hour"(1 John 2:18); "Who is the liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? This is the antichrist, even he that denieth the Father and the Son." (1 John 2:22); "and every spirit that confesseth not Jesus is not of God: and this is the spirit of the antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it cometh; and now it is in the world already" (1 John 4:3). As you can see the antichrist, "every spirit that confesseth not Jesus is not of God," is already among us he (they) are not yet to come. Daniel 9 is a prophetic chronology enabling the studious Hebrew to know when the promised Messiah would die for the sins of humanity. The chronology of this prophetic context involves three things: (a) a commencement point; (b) a duration period; and (c) a concluding event. The beginning point was to coincide with a command to “restore and rebuild Jerusalem.” The time span between the starting point and the concluding event was specified as “seventy weeks.” This would be seventy weeks of seven days each — a total of 490 days. Each day was to represent a year in prophetic history. Most conservative scholars hold that the symbolism denotes a period of approximately 490 years Finally, the terminal event would be the “cutting off,” (i.e., the death) of the Anointed One (9:26). [NOTE: Actually, the chronology is divided into three segments, the total of which represents 486½ years. This would be the span between the command to restore Jerusalem, and the Messiah’s death.] If one is able to determine the date of the commencement point of this prophecy, it then becomes a relatively simple matter to add to that the time-duration specified in the text, thus concluding the precise time when the Lord was to be slain. Let us therefore narrow our focus regarding this matter. There are but three possible dates for the commencement of the seventy-week calendar. First, Zerubbabel led a group of Hebrews out of captivity in 536 B.C. This seems to be an unlikely beginning point, however, because 486 years from 536 B.C. would end at 50 B.C., which was eighty years prior to Jesus’ death. Second, Nehemiah led a band back to Canaan in 444 B.C. Is this the commencement point for computing the prophecy? Probably not, for 486 years after 444 B.C. ends at A.D. 42 — a dozen years after the death of Christ. However, in 457 B.C., Ezra took a company from Babylon back to Jerusalem. Does this date work mathematically? Indeed. If one starts at 457 B.C., and goes forward for 486 ½ years, the resulting date is A.D. 30 — the very year of Christ’s crucifixion! In “the midst” of the seventieth week, i.e., after the fulfillment of the 486½ years, the Anointed One was to be “cut off.” This is a reference to the death of Jesus. Isaiah similarly foretold that Christ would be “cut off out of the land of the living” (Isaiah 53:8). But why are the “seventy weeks” of Daniel’s prophecy divided into three segments — seven weeks, 62 weeks, and the “midst” of one week? There was purpose in this breakdown. The first division of “seven weeks” (literally, forty-nine years) covers that period of time during which the actual rebuilding of Jerusalem would be underway, following the Hebrews’ return to Palestine (9:25b). This was the answer to Daniel’s prayer (9:16). That reconstruction era was to be one of “troublous times.” The Jews’ enemies had harassed them in earlier days (see Ezra 4:1-6), and they continued to do so in the time of Ezra and Nehemiah. The second segment of sixty-two weeks (434 years), when added to the previous forty-nine, yields a total of 483 years. When this figure is computed from 457 B.C., it terminates at A.D. 26. This was the year of Jesus’ baptism and the beginning of His public ministry. Finally, the “midst of the week” (3½ years) reflects the time of the Lord’s preaching ministry. This segment of the prophecy concludes in A.D. 30 — the year of the Savior’s death. |
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60 | The Flood Chronology | Gen 7:4 | alanh | 124396 | ||
The flooding only lasted forty days and forty nights. The results of the flooding lasted one year and ten days. | ||||||
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