Results 41 - 60 of 169
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Results from: Notes Author: Love Fountain Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
41 | 1 day is 1000 years, why? | 2 Pet 3:8 | Love Fountain | 39465 | ||
Dear EdB, Thank you for your response. Yes, I agree as I have also agreed with CDBJ that God knows no constraint of time. However, He has allowed a time constraint to be placed on all His children. God also does do everything at an appointed time throughout all Scripture which is why I asked this question. Do you see or understand any other significance that God may have been stating when He said 1 day to God is 1000 years to man? Bless you, Love Fountain |
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42 | 1 day is 1000 years, why? | 2 Pet 3:8 | Love Fountain | 39460 | ||
Dear CDBJ, Thank you for your answer. I agree, God is not constrained by time like we are. Do you see God's statement that 1000 years to us is as 1 day to God having any reference to time as we know it in referrence to the length of this earth age? Bless you, Love Fountain |
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43 | 1 day is 1000 years, why? | 2 Pet 3:8 | Love Fountain | 39452 | ||
2 Peter 3:8 8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. KJV Why do you believe God has told us that 1 day to Him is 1000 years to us? Bless you, Love Fountain |
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44 | Where is the phrase defined? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 39450 | ||
Dear Serenetime, Thank you for the response. I do not believe Judas is the one referred to in John 17:12 as the one lost so that Scripture may be fulfilled, but I do agree with the fact that Judas did repent and satan has not. Bless you, Love Fountain 2 Peter 3:9 9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance. KJV |
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45 | Whose baptism? | John 13:6 | Love Fountain | 39447 | ||
Dear Andrew Jr., Thank you for the response. In 1Sam 10:9, God gave Saul another heart as follows, 1 Sam 10:9 9 And it was so, that when he had turned his back to go from Samuel, God gave him another heart: and all those signs came to pass that day. KJV The Hebrew word for heart in 1Sam 10:9 is leb and is used figuratively for the intellect or the mind as follows, OT:3820 leb (labe); a form of OT:3824; the heart; also used (figuratively) very widely for the feelings, the will and even the intellect; likewise for the centre of anything: God gave Saul a new heart via the Spirit of God in 1Sam 10:10 which came from the word of God Samuel showed to Saul in 1Sam 9:27. The Spirit of God is always preceeded by the Word of God, whether in the New Testament or the Old Testament. What I am understanding from what you are saying is the you believe a person born from above is without sin and is therefore no longer a sinner, is this right? You ask,"The people knew that a Savior was coming but they didn't know that God was coming himself." How about Isa 7:14 as follows, Isa 7:14 14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. KJV Immanuel in Hebrew is OT:6005 Immanuw'el (im-maw-noo-ale'); from OT:5973 and OT:410 with a pronominal suffix inserted; with us (is) God; Immanuel, a type name of Isaiah's son: KJV - Immanuel. Immanuel plainly stated means God with us. It is clear that those who read Scripture with understanding in the Old Testament times would have clearly known that God was coming Himself as the Messiah. Please reconsider your statement that they didn't know God was coming Himself. Saul was born from the womb of woman(water) and born from above by the Spirit of God which gave him a new heart. But you are telling me Saul was not born from above. Please explain the new heart he received and the Spirit of God that came on him if this is not true? Bless you, Love Fountain |
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46 | Whose baptism? | John 13:6 | Love Fountain | 39138 | ||
Dear Andrew Jr., Thank you for the response, but I am wondering if you remember the subject that we were talking about? I thought we were talking about the Spirit of God coming to Saul, which was preceeded by the word of God? Not once have I contended if we are to offer sacrifices to God now in this age and day on this thread. Jesus fulfilled the law of the priesthood in becoming the high priest and I understand this means that the ordinances of the priesthood are no longer in effect. I am not sure why you keep bringing this up? In Sauls time sacrificial offerings were still in existance and in my last post to you I stated that Saul did not offer for forgiveness as you stated but he offered for guidance because he lost faith waiting for Samuels return. You now state,"Now the word of God that you speak of is Jesus Christ. Jesus Christ is that spoken word that existed in the beggining. It was not revealed to man in the Old Testament." Are you saying the spoken word of God was not revealed to men in the Old Testament? Please explain what you mean by the above statement, I am confused by what you believe. Bless you, Love Fountain John 17:5-8 5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was. 6 I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word. 7 Now they have known that all things whatsoever thou hast given me are of thee. 8 For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me KJV |
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47 | "Sons" of perdition? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 38792 | ||
Dear Hank, Thank you for the response and patience. My original question today was to Tim, and I was inquiring to him regarding a definite article. How the definite article in John 17:12 and 2Thes 2:3 affect interpretation of Scripture to denote the son of perdition. Tim is studied in Greek and I am seeking his help in understanding. Tim knew my inquiry was in regards to the definite article and its grammarical significance in lieu of previous dialogue. Tim is a very good listener and pays attention to the details and recognized my imperfect effort at attaining understanding within the context of Greek Grammar which was the point at the end of my last post to Joe that has possibly been overlooked. I am not too bright nor do I claim to be, but I do my very best to understand patience, longsuffering and what it means to behave and communicate in a Christ like manner. If I have to tell someone ten thousand times, the same thing, over and over to help them learn and grow within the body of Christ, so be it, as I believe Christ does for us daily by His mercy and hope. When people hear and see the same thing differently do we find wisdom within the application of patience and longsuffering allowing each other to grow in their love of the Word? Bless you, Love Fountain Rom 15:1-7 15:1 We then that are strong ought to bear the infirmities of the weak, and not to please ourselves. 2 Let every one of us please his neighbour for his good to edification. 3 For even Christ pleased not himself; but, as it is written, The reproaches of them that reproached thee fell on me. 4 For whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our learning, that we through patience and comfort of the scriptures might have hope. 5 Now the God of patience and consolation grant you to be likeminded one toward another according to Christ Jesus: 6 That ye may with one mind and one mouth glorify God, even the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. 7 Wherefore receive ye one another, as Christ also received us to the glory of God. KJV |
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48 | "Sons" of perdition? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 38716 | ||
Dear Joe, Thank you for your response. In all the Scripture you have quoted regarding judgement of those sentenced to perish, not one says an individual in particular has been judged to perish eternally. All the verses you cited are future and not past. Future meaning a judgement to come at the Great White Throne Judgement, not a judgement that has taken place. Please see the following is a judgement of eternal death in the following, Ezek 28:18-19 18 Thou hast defiled thy sanctuaries by the multitude of thine iniquities, by the iniquity of thy traffick; therefore will I bring forth a fire from the midst of thee, it shall devour thee, and I will bring thee to ashes upon the earth in the sight of all them that behold thee. 19 All they that know thee among the people shall be astonished at thee: thou shalt be a terror, and never shalt thou be any more. KJV The above is a sentence of eternal death to satan from God and is very specific in regards to leaving no question of who is judged. You also state,"Therefore, we can say that the words of 2 Thessalonians are indeed Paul's words, and at the same time say that it is the infallible message of God." While it is true that Paul's personality is seen within the books of his participation, I would not say the words were his for two reasons, Acts 26:15-18 15 And I said, Who art thou, Lord? And he said, I am Jesus whom thou persecutest. 16 But rise, and stand upon thy feet: for I have appeared unto thee for this purpose, to make thee a minister and a witness both of these things which thou hast seen, and of those things in the which I will appear unto thee; 17 Delivering thee from the people, and from the Gentiles, unto whom now I send thee, 18 To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me. KJV Paul was a chosen vessel, he did not open eyes by his own words, but by the words that were given him which were God's. Even Jesus says the words He spoke were not His but, the Fathers that sent Him in the following, John 12:49-50 49 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. 50 And I know that his commandment is life everlasting: whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak. KJV The fact still remains, that in John 17:12 and in 2Thes 2:3, the Greek words are the identically the same for "the son of perdition", regardless if they are in a book penned by John or Paul. Bless you, Love Fountain |
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49 | "Sons" of perdition? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 38702 | ||
Dear Hank, Thank you for your responses. In response to your appeals to logic and reason, I thank you for bringing the words of a poem I once read back into my thoughts and I would like to share it with you as follows, A blanket of mist conceals an illusion. Only a naturalist understands the code of diffusion. The first clue lays beyond the tree line. Listen to the guru and toast his ground with a bottled red wine. Seek evermore, find the stone marked. Prepare to endure by remembering where you last barked. Memories will guide you but don't get caught up. Learn in the present not to rely on luck. Breaking fog, vision is clear. Stand on a log to eternally hear. A ghostly voice of this very season. Gives a choice, Wisdom or Reason? When my logic and reason fails I go to wisdom, and she always teaches me what I need to know and I find her in the Bible, the ultimate book of wisdom. I choose wisdom forever. Bless you, Love Fountain Prov 5:1-2 5:1 My son, attend unto my wisdom, and bow thine ear to my understanding: 2 That thou mayest regard discretion, and that thy lips may keep knowledge. KJV |
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50 | "Sons" of perdition? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 38699 | ||
Dear Hank, Thank you for the response. Is there a root greater than Love? Is there a foundation other than Love? Is there clothing to conceal Love? Is not the only foundation we all seek to be clothed with, Love? Bless you in the Love of Jesus, Love Fountain |
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51 | "Sons" of perdition? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 38694 | ||
Dear Hank, Thank you for your response. I said I believe the son of perdition is satan in the context of the whole Bible. If this is an implication towards substitution of the Text, what would the implication of Judas being the son of perdition be when the text does not say Judas is the son of perdition? I asked Tim a question regarding definite articles and now stand accused of hurling unjust criticism of a fellow user of this forum and being ridiculous in my beliefs because I stated I do not think it is appropriate to substitute words in the Text. I am not tempted to find fault in others because I am a sinner and accountable for all my words and actions and understand that flesh and blood is not the enemy and there is One that is the judge and it is not me. Please show me where I told Kalos to substitute the word, "satan" for "son of perdition" in the Scriptures. I stated I believe satan is the son of perdition. Kalos substituted the words himself and I told him I would not do that. Bless you in the name of Jesus, Love Fountain |
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52 | "Sons" of perdition? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 38687 | ||
Dear meusing, The son of perdition means the son sentenced to perish eternally. In order to be sentenced, one must have been judged. In all Scripture I have only seen one who is sentenced to eternally perish and that is satan. Yes, the Bible does tell us that there will be a perishing of the ungodly, but it does not say who they are specifically because their judgement will happen at the Great White Throne Judgement according to Scripture. Satan is however, specifically judged and no one else has been. Do you agree? If not please show me in Scripture who else has been judged to eternal death? Bless you, Love Fountain |
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53 | "Sons" of perdition? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 38679 | ||
Dear meusing, Please forgive me, I don't understand what you are trying to say. Please help me understand. Bless you, Love Fountain |
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54 | "Sons" of perdition? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 38668 | ||
Dear Makarios, Please forgive me if I have came across harshly to Kalos. I believe our fight is not with flesh and blood and I believe Kalos and you to be my brothers in Christ. Please go back and read what Kalos wrote. He told me to substitute words in the text and I pointed out that I did not think this was a good idea and why. That is all. Nothing more and nothing less and within my best ability to act in a Christ like manner. Kalos has helped me many times and also been on the other side of the fence many times on the basis of interpretation and understanding. There is nothing wrong with a difference of opinion, nor do I condemn otherwise. I ask for proof in Scripture, and if Scripture is not provided to support ones view clearly and plainly then how can there be agreement? One persons opinion of accurate Biblical interpretation is exactly that, one persons opinion. We are told to rely on the word of God and not man, over and over again in Scripture and this is where I stand in humility. To me respect is a two way street, and in a forum such as this respect starts and ends with a salutation, what do you think? Once again my thanks go out to those responsible for this forum and I truly believe this forum is the best I have seen on the internet and I truly enjoy participating with fellow brothers and sisters within the body of Christ working and studying to come into unity! Bless you, Love Fountain |
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55 | "Sons" of perdition? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 38652 | ||
Dear Joe, Thank you for the questions. You ask,"Yes. John was written by John. Second Thessalonians was written by Paul. You do believe that, do you not? " Joe, I do believe Johns pen inked John and Pauls pen inked 2Thes, however I do not think the words written were Pauls nor Johns, do you? You also state," In fact, the term "son of perdition" could refer to a great many individuals, when you get right down to it." Please share with me who else the son of perdition could refer to, since you say there are a great many individuals who this could refer to? This is new to me, I have only seen one being sentenced(judged), to eternally perish within the whole context of Scripture, please show me who else is judged to eternal spiritual death besides satan,within Scripture. Bless you, Love Fountain |
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56 | "Sons" of perdition? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 38648 | ||
Dear meusing, The "sons of perdition" is not used this way in the Bible. It is only used as son of perdition, singular. I choose the Bible, God's word, over the Vines for understanding and clarification. Please show me in the Bible where it says "sons". Bless you, Love Fountain |
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57 | "Sons" of perdition? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 38643 | ||
Dear Kalos, God's word is perfect and we are not, nor are we qualified to change His word. You state," We'll just substitute the word "Satan" for "son of perdition" in John 17:12." We are warned about adding words in the Bible in the following, Rev 22:18 18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: KJV Please reconsider substituting words in the Bible I don't think this is a good thing to do based on Rev 22:18. Within the context of the whole Bible, please show me where it says "sons" of perdition, which would give some ground to stand on when contending that there is more than one son of perdition? Bless you, Love Fountain 2 Tim 2:15 15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth. KJV |
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58 | "Sons" of perdition? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 38639 | ||
Dear Tim, Thank you for the response. You state,"If they were in the same passage, or even passages written by the same author, one might be able to make that claim. However, these are two different passages by two different authors." How could this be? Two different authors? 2 Peter 1:20-21 20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. 21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost. KJV I always thought the Holy Spirit was the author of the whole Bible, but you are saying that John and 2Thes had two different authors? I also thought that Jesus comes to us in the volume of the book as it is written in the following, Heb 10:7 7 Then said I, Lo, I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me,) to do thy will, O God. KJV Ps 40:7 7 Then said I, Lo, I come: in the volume of the book it is written of me, KJV Are we to look at the context of each book of the Bible being separate or at the whole context of the Bible as being one? You also state,"Thus, the son of perdition had to be one of those given to Christ by God - i.e. one of the Disciples." To this I ask you, has not Jesus overcome satan and satan has thereby been given over to Christ? Bless you, Love Fountain |
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59 | "Sons" of perdition? | NT general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 38628 | ||
Dear Tim, I was browsing through the forum and came to this thread where we were discussing who the son of perdition was. I believe the son of perdition is satan in John 17:12 and in 2Thes 2:3 not Judas. You recently helped me learn about a definite article. In 2Thes 2:3 and in John 17:12, the Greek words for "the son of perdition" are "ho huios tees apooleias". They are exactly the same and both have the definite article. So according to the rules of grammar, when dealing with a definite article, it is my understanding that the son of perdition has to be either satan or Judas, it cannot be both, because of the definite article. Is this correct? Bless you, Love Fountain |
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60 | The Miracles of Elisha | 2 Kings | Love Fountain | 38584 | ||
Dear Makarios, You stated,"* Parts the Jordan River - 2 Kings 2:13-14 * Makes Jericho spring drinkable - 2 Kings 2:19-22 * Sends bears to punish irreverent youths - 2 Kings 2:23-25 * Floods ditches to confuse Moabites - 2 Kings 3:1-27 * Multiplies widow's oil - 2 Kings 4:1-7 * Shunammite woman bears a son - 2 Kings 4:8-17 * Resurrects Shunammite's son - 2 Kings 4:18-37 * Purifies poisoned stew - 2 Kings 4:38-44 * Heals Naaman's leprosy - 2 Kings 5:1-14 * Gehazi struck with leprosy - 2 Kings 5:15-27 * Floats lost axhead - 2 Kings 6:1-7 * Gives special sight to the king's messenger - 2 Kings 6:16-17 * Blinds the Aramean army - 2 Kings 6:8-23 * His bones resurrect a dead man - 2 Kings 13:20-21 [Taken from the Ryrie Study Bible Expanded Edition, 1995, The Moody Bible Institute of Chicago, Charles Caldwell Ryrie, Th.D., Ph.D., pg. 586] - Makarios" Then you state," * Strike men with blindness - 2 Kings 6:18 " This is a double post. Striking men with blindness(2Kings 6:18) is the same as blinding the aramean army(2Kings 6:8-23) as you already stated. Elijah did 8 miracles and Elisha was given a double portion of Elijah's spirit and performed sixteen miracles not seventeen. I am confused why you brought up prime numbers? What is a prime number and what does this have to do with Elijah and Elisha? Isn't a double portion like saying 8 times 2 equals 16? The Bible says double portion, not double portion plus one. Bless you, Love Fountain |
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