Results 41 - 60 of 63
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Bill Mc Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
41 | If Law is quoted in NT, does it apply? | Matt 15:4 | Bill Mc | 15941 | ||
Dear Steve, I appreciate your question. Seeing as I am one of those who think the Old is done away with, permit me to respond. 1) Christ was born under Law and taught under Law. He did not come to abolish it but to fulfill it. And He did. His righteous life fulfilled ALL the Law. He proclaimed that the New Testament (Covenant) was coming when His blood would be shed, but He taught Law to the masses. Interesting enough though, He exuded grace when He dealt with people one-on-one. 2) Hebrews makes it clear that the New Covenant did not go into effect until the death of the One who made it. Christ is the mediator of the New Covenant (Heb 9:15)and it did not go into effect at His birth. It went into effect at His death (Heb 9:16,17). His death (not His birth) took away the Old Covenant and established the New (Heb 10:9). 3) So, as far as whether OT quoting in the NT goes, the NT does not actually start until AFTER the death of Christ. OT quotes in the proper NT must be interpreted in light of what Christ has done concerning sin and our salvation. Heb 10:1 makes it clear that the Law (the whole Law) was only a shadow of the reality that is found in Christ. There is no hard, fast rule to whether OT passages apply or not. In order to make that discernment, believers must know what the New Covenant accomplished. In closing, please look at Romans chapter 7. Paul gives a wonderful illustration of what relationship the believer has to the Law. He says that if a man and woman are married to each other (civil law) and the husband dies, the woman is released from the law of marriage to her husband. As long as they are alive, they are bound by the law of marriage. In fact, if she decides to go to another man while here husband is living, she is rightly called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, and she marries another, she is not an adulteress because the first law of marriage has been nullified. Then Paul draw the spiritual truth from this illustration. Starting in verse 4, he says that we (believers) were made to die to the Law. The Law didn't die. The Law is perfect, good, and righteous. But, as you know, we were crucified, buried, and spiritually raised with Christ. So Paul says that we, through the body of Christ, WERE (past tense) made to die to the Law. Here is the crux of the matter? Why? Verse 4 - So that we could be married to another, to Christ Himself. He concludes the matter in verse 6. We have been released from the Law (all the Law). How? We died to it. We used to be married to it but we, not the Law, died. Why? So that the Christian, the believer, the new creation in Christ could serve in the newness of the SPIRIT, NOT in the oldness of the letter (the Law). We are to serve by walking in the Spirit which Christ gives us, not by trying to keep the Law. The Spirit renews and governs the believer internally. The Law served its purpose for the Christian. It was a tutor to lead us to Christ. Now that we have come to Christ, we are no longer under the Law. In fact, per Paul's illustration, if we are still serving under the Law while joined to Christ, we are ADULTERERS. Christ died (and had us die) to free us from our marriage to the Law so that He could marry us. We are now joined to Christ. Rejoice in that. Hope this helps, In Him, Bill Mc |
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42 | Who received the blood ? | Bible general Archive 1 | Bill Mc | 15850 | ||
Hi Ricardo, I'm not sure what you mean by who received the blood from the animal sacrifices, but the Law demanded that they be made to cover 'atone' for the sins of the people. Hebrews 9:22 says that without the shedding of blood there is no remission (forgiveness) of sins. Why? Because Romans 6:23 says that the wages of sin, what we deserve when we sin, is death. And Leviticus tells us that the life is in the blood. But God, being merciful, allowed the substitution of animal's deaths (the shedding of their blood) to represent what the sinful Israelites deserved. As your verse here says, He didn't take pleasure in them or desire them because of what He says in verse 4 and 11 - the blood of bulls and goats could NEVER take away sin - only cover it. And then, only for one year until the next Day of Atonement when the whole process would be repeated. Christ's blood, on the other hand, being perfect, takes away the whole sin issue between God and man. His sacrifice was one sacrifice for all men for all sins for all time - seen verse 10,14. See also Hebrews 9:25-28. Plus, He did something that the Old Testament sacrifices couldn't do - He made us perfect in God's sight - completely! See Hebrews 10:1,10,14. What a wonderful Savior! Now, because of the sacrifice Christ made we can draw near to God, and as Hebrews 10:16-18 says, He remembers are sins no more! And we are righteous in God's sight. Old Testament worshippers new was forgiveness was. But they didn't have God dwelling inside them. What amazing grace! I hope this helps. In Christ, Bill Mc |
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43 | Can A Christian disown Christ? | Matt 10:33 | Bill Mc | 15609 | ||
Hi Steve, Sorry to answer your question with a question but I would like to know your view of what a Christian is. Rom 8:9 says, 'However, you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Him.' Scripture makes it plain that to be a Christian means that you are indwelt by the living Christ. Paul said, 'I no longer live but Christ lives in me.' You can't be a Christian without the Spirit of God living in you. So, my question is this: Why do you quote something that Christ says in the gospels to either His disciples or the Jews (who were being pleaded with to make a descision to accept Jesus as Messiah) and assume that His audience are all Christians? The Holy Spirit was not given to ALL believers until Pentecost. That is a historical fact. Yes, Christ did call His disciples. And Christ did dwell among them. But He did not dwell IN them until Pentecost. Before Christ died the Holy Spirit was only given on a limited basis to a select few in order to accomplish God's purposes. We need to be careful in saying, 'Jesus said this...so, Christian...blah, blah, blah.' Jesus said many things. He talked to individuals, small groups, whole crowds, Jews and Gentiles and half-breeds. But to take everything that Jesus said and say that He is now saying that to the Christian is dangerous, brother. Here is an example: Jesus told the rich man that came to him in Matt 19:21 - "If you wish to be complete, go and sell your possessions and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven; and come, follow Me." So, Steve, should every Christian do this? God's Word says that IN CHRIST, we have been already made complete. Does Jesus require you to go sell ALL your possessions and give to the poor in order to be made complete? I don't think so or you wouldn't have a computer to access this forum. Can you follow Jesus to the cross and see Him crucified there for your sins? No. You can read about it and accept it by faith because it is a historical fact. Use care, brother, in the way you word your questions. If a was a new Christian in the Lord, your question might lead me to believe that everything that Jesus said was then directed to me personally. And any serious student of the scriptures knows to consider the grammatical and historical context of the scripture. Thanks for your questions and responses. Some of them are excellent. But, please, consider that many on this forum are looking for answers, not just a debate. Not everyone that is asking a question here is seeking confrontation. Blessings in Christ, Bill Mc |
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44 | Eternal Security? | Bible general Archive 1 | Bill Mc | 15498 | ||
Dear Tim, My reply is more of a question than an answer. Sorry. I'm trying to figure it out, too. I'm only going to reference 1 Cor 15:1 here. Anyway, is the following understanding possible and/or reasonable? We know that when Paul wrote his letters to the churches, that they (the letters) were circulated from house to house (in fact, the churches did, too), congregation to congregation. They did not have the huge edific...uh, buildings (I can't spell worth a flip) that we have nowadays. The meeting places, back then as now, were made up of both believers and non-believers in Christ. What I am saying is that, although the letter is addressed to 'the church at Corinth, those sanctified, saints by calling', there were still unbelievers and undecided at their meetings, weren't there? How else would they hear the gospel message? Could Paul be addressing them, too? Or could Paul be addressing people that said they believed concerning the facts of the gospel but still kept living the same old way? (The church of God at Corinth SHOULD NOT be a blueprint for the modern church) In other words, they believed the facts of the gospel but they did not have the body of the New Testament writings to show them how Christ's death, burial, and resurrection should be 'lived out.' That being said, see my modification to the verse in parentheses. Note: I AM NOT TRYING TO REWRITE IT, just understand it. Would it be proper to look at this verse in the light of: Now, brothers (is this fellow believers or Jewish brothers?), I want to remind you (all, professing believers, unbelievers, and undecided) of the gospel I preached to you (all) which you (professing believers) received and on which you (believers) have taken your (believers) stand. By this gospel you (anyone who hears) are saved, if you hold firmly to the word I preached to you (hearing the truth of the gospel - vs. 3 and 4 AND put faith in it, let it change your life). Otherwise, you (anyone who just hears) have believed (said you believed but never put faith in it) in vain. Please don't crucify me here. I admit the text may not allow for this understanding at all. I'm just trying to understand it too. I feel, as you know, that John uses the same literary device (an editorial we) in 1 John. There he says in verse 1:3 'our fellowship is with the Father, and with His Son Jesus Christ.' Then he turns around and says a couple of verses later 'if we say that we have fellowship with Him (in fact, he just did) and yet walk in darkness (unbelief about Christ), we lie and do not practice the truth.' We (you and I) know that John didn't lie and did practice the truth. What do you think, Tim? In Christ, Bill Mc |
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45 | difference. filling of joy and fruit joy | Rom 8:14 | Bill Mc | 15460 | ||
Dear bigdaddy, Good question. To be 'filled with the Spirit' is to be controlled by the Spirit. Our joy comes from knowing that we have been reconciled to God and that, unlike Israel in the OT, we can now, each one of us, draw near to God. God has made each one of us in such a way that, as Pascal say, 'there is a God-shaped vacuum in the heart of man that can only be filled by God the Creator, made known through Jesus Christ.' As we abide in that relationship, we have joy in knowing that He is in us and we are in Him. The Acts 13:52 verse is saying, 'this is how they lived - they were filled with joy (from being in a secure relationship with God) and they were being filled (controlled) by His Spirit. And when we allow ourselves to be controlled by the Spirit, He (not us) produces the fruit. We are only called to bear the fruit, not produce it. Christ said that He was the vine and we are the branches. Do you ever see a branch grunting and groaning to produce an apple? No. The branch's 'job' is to let the life of the vine flow through it. As it does this, the branch 'bears' the fruit. In the same way, we have been 'grafted' into the Vine. As we abide in Him, He will produce the fruit through us. Another good example is a mechanical pencil. It is only doing what it is designed to do when the lead is flowing out of it. We do what we are designed to do 'good works' only as we allow the Spirit and His fruit to flow out of us to others. I hope this helps. So be filled with joy and filled with the Spirit. In Him, Bill Mc |
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46 | Is eternal life possible right now? | Heb 1:1 | Bill Mc | 15451 | ||
Dear Amadeus, To answer your question, yes, if we are believers, we HAVE eternal life right now: 1 John 5:11 And the testimony is this, that God has given us (past tense) eternal life, and this life is in His Son. 1 John 5:12 He who has the Son has (present tense) the life; he who does not have the Son of God does not have the life. 1 John 5:13 These things I have written to you who believe in the name of the Son of God, so that you may know that you have (present tense) eternal life. Christ is the Life. If we have Him, then we have the Life. It is received through His Spirit when we are baptized into Christ (not water baptism, folks). We are identified with His death, burial, and then resurrection. In Him, Bill Mc |
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47 | your argument proves my point! | Heb 1:1 | Bill Mc | 15449 | ||
Dear Amadeuse, "In these last days (God) has spoken to us in His Son...and HE (Christ) is the radiance of His glory and the EXACT representation of His (God's nature." Yes, the Holy Spirit will lead us into ALL truth, and the focal point is that Jesus Christ is the TRUTH. Christ alone is the EXACT representation of God and His nature and one of the things that the Holy Spirit does is to reveal Christ through the illumination of God's Word. Brother, your post is replete with the exaltation of 'experience' - your experiences. I must, in love, caution you. Everyone's 'experiences' are different. And experiences can lead us astray from the truth. We must subject our experiences to the truth of God's Word. We accept Christ by FAITH, we walk in Him by FAITH. "As you have accepted Christ, so walk IN HIM." Faith is accepting what God says as true, whether our experiences verify it or not. Brother, people do not need to have a 'stronger faith.' The amount or capacity of faith is not the issue. The OBJECT of faith is the issue. Everyone has faith in someone or something. Faith doesn't save. Faith IN Christ saves. CHRIST is the object of the Christian faith. If you are truly 'experiencing' God, great. But I urge you to submit those experiences to the Word to discern if they are valid or not. Also, it may not be intentional, but your post is coming across as one-upmanship i.e. 'I have more of God than you do.' If you, brother, truly have the Spirit of God in you, Christ never bragged about Himself. Christ said, "What I say, the FATHER has told Me to say. The works I do, the FATHER has told Me to do. I don't do anything or say anything UNLESS the FATHER tells Me to." God the Father was His total source while Christ was here on earth. And, now that He is seated at the right hand of God, the Holy Spirit reveals Christ as our total source. Frankly, I don't believe that Christ would say what you have said in the way you have said it. There is ONE body of Christ, the church, and there is ONE Holy Spirit. And scripture says that if you don't have the Holy Spirit, you don't belong to Christ. The primary evidence of that is the outworking of love for Christ's body, other believers. You can't say that you love the head, Christ, and then disdain His body, we the church. Christ said that we should love God first and then each other as God loves us. We can't do this apart from His enablement. God STILL speaks through Jesus Christ. Christ IS the Word of God, not WAS. Look at the example laid before us in scripture. Christ, while on earth, did not glorify Himself or His 'experiences.' He IS God incarnate, yet He didn't brag about having 'wonderful experiences' from God that no one else had. And Paul exhibited the same attitude. Paul was caught up to heaven and had a revelation directly from Christ. He could have bragged about it. But he didn't. He said, "If I'm gonna boast about anything, it will be Jesus Christ and what He has done. I, Paul, am nothing." Of course, he was also given a thorn in the flesh to keep him humble. Have you received THAT revelation? In Christ, Bill Mc |
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48 | Does this apply to Christians? | Matt 6:15 | Bill Mc | 15194 | ||
Dear Steve, I'm sure I'll be flailed alive for this one but you asked... Consider: Eph 1:7 In Him we have (present tense) redemption through His blood, the forgiveness of our trespasses, according to the riches of His grace. Eph 4:32 Be kind to one another, tender-hearted, forgiving each other, just as God in Christ also has forgiven (past tense) you. Col 1:14 in whom we have (present tense) redemption, the forgiveness of sins. Col 2:13 When you were dead in your transgressions and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He made you alive together with Him, having forgiven (past tense) us all (ALL) our transgressions, 1 John 2:12 I am writing to you, little children, because your sins have been forgiven (past tense)you for His name's sake. Heb 9:26 Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself. Heb 10:17 "AND THEIR SINS AND THEIR LAWLESS DEEDS I WILL REMEMBER NO MORE." Heb 10:18 Now where there is forgiveness (present tense) of these things, there is no longer any offering for sin. Acts 10:43 "Of Him all the prophets bear witness that through His name everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins." Luke 23:34 But Jesus was saying, "Father, forgive them; for they do not know what they are doing." Did the Father answer this prayer? Did He forgive us? Upon what basis did He forgive us? Heb 9:22 makes it clear that the shedding of blood is the ONLY thing that provides forgiveness. I don't believe that Christ was speaking to His crucifiers here. No one was there asking for forgiveness (not even the thief asked to have his sins forgiven). But Christ was born under law and He taught under law. If you are going to say that our forgiveness is now dependant upon whether or not we forgive others, you are going to have to rip out all these other verses that speak of forgiveness being past tense and something that every Christian professes. The ONLY way I have ever found to reconcile these passages is to understand the new covenant in Christ's blood that was shed for the remission of sins. Here's a challenge: Other than 1 John 1:9 that I believe Christians erroneously try to make applicable to believers as a 'bar of soap' to keep us clean before a holy God, find one, just one, other passage of scripture after Christ's death on the cross, where we are told to ask for forgiveness from God. (James 5:16 doesn't count because it is talking about confessing our sins to one another so we can be healed.) Was doesn't Paul (who wrote 2/3 of the NT) even once mention to ask God to forgive us for sins. Why not Peter? Surely he knew the importance of forgiveness. How did 1st century Christians ever stay in fellowship with God until 95 AD when 1 John was written? They must have all been out of fellowship with God for, gosh, 62 years! What do you think, Steve? In Christ, Bill Mc IN MY OPINION (based upon scripture), no it does not apply. |
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49 | Once Save; Always Saved? | John 6:37 | Bill Mc | 15139 | ||
Dear J.D., Here is my two cents. If we really understand what salvation is, we will come to understand that we can't lose it. The plan of salvation is encapsulated in Romans 6:23 - For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord. The wages (what sin earns) is death (separation from God). But, in Christ, we have the cure for death - LIFE. And it is a free gift. Paul makes it clear that we were born 'dead' to God - in trespasses and sin. What is the remedy for death? Not forgiveness. A forgiven dead person is still a dead person. The only remedy for death is LIFE. And that is exactly what Christ came to give us - "I come so that you might have LIFE and life to the full". We are saved by Christ's life, not His death. So, if Christ gives us His life - the Holy Spirit, what is the only thing that can make that Spirit depart from us? Sin, right? So, why doesn't He depart when we sin? Because the sacrificial death of Christ 'takes away' the sin issue between God and man - "Behold, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world." Christ's blood has washed away our sins so that the only thing which could make His Holy Spirit depart, sin, can no longer do so. He became sin for us and took our death, so that we become His righteousness and have His life. Remember the 'dead man' analog? Suppose cancer killed him. If you wanted to really 'save' this man from death, you would have to do 2 things: 1. Cure his death, by giving him life and 2. Cure what killed him - the cancer. If you just resurrected him without curing his cancer, he would soon die again. If you cured his cancer but didn't resurrect him, you'd just have a 'healed' dead man. You must cure his cancer AND restore his life. This is what Christ has done for us, my friend. He 'cured' what killed us, sin, and restored His life to us, resurrected us spiritually. How can you lose that? For eternal life to be eternal, by definition, you can't lose it. If you can lose the life of Christ in you, then it is only 'temporal life', not eternal. So Christ has 'saved' us from the wages of sin - death - by giving us His divine LIFE as a free gift. But, He IS the life. He does not despense it like a gumball machine. Eternal life is found only IN HIM. See 1 John 5:11,12,13. He is our life. And He has dealt eternally with what caused our death, sins, at the cross. That is why He can say, "I will NEVER leave you or forsake you." That is why eternal life is ETERNAL LIFE. What do you think? In Christ, Bill Mc |
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50 | indwelling holy spirit | OT general | Bill Mc | 15104 | ||
Hi mmweibel, Yes, every truly born again believer does have the Holy Spirit. Nolan has shared a good verse with you and I'd like to add a couple more. John 3:6 - "that which is born of flesh is flesh, and that which is born of Spirit is spirit." Romans 8:9b - But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Him (Christ). So, indeed, you cannot be 'born again' and not have the Spirit because it is the Spirit Himself who takes up residence in us that causes us to be born again. But, as Nolan has said, talk with your husband about this. This may indeed be discernment on your part. On the other hand, the Holy Spirit's indwelling is never based upon feelings. It is based upon the facts of God's Word and our accepting those facts by faith. In Christ, Bill Mc |
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51 | Greek scholars, please help. | Bible general Archive 1 | Bill Mc | 14738 | ||
Thanks. Debbie, see above definitions. These gentlemen were gracious enough to supply the info I was searching for. They both seem to agree that the correct interpretation of "from the hour of testing" implies 'a protection through'. This would be in keeping with what happened druing the plagues of Egypt and the Passover. In God's deliverance, He did not physically remove His children (the Jews) from harm, but, rather, He protected them in the midst of harm. He often does this to show His power and glory. Remember the Hebrew children and the fiery furnance, Daniel and the lion's den, Jonah and the whale, etc. God often shows His love and protection 'in the midst of'. I hope this comforts you, sister. I personally believe that Christians will go THROUGH (protected in the midst of) the great tribulation but not God's wrath - the start of the Day of the Lord, where the bowls are poured out. Thanks, brothers, for your help. Blessings in Christ, Bill Mc |
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52 | GeneralWas and Bill Mc? | Bible general Archive 1 | Bill Mc | 14608 | ||
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53 | Could Jesus sin? Explain. | Heb 4:15 | Bill Mc | 14525 | ||
Steve, Jesus could not sin. The ultimate root of all sin is unbelief in God and what He says. Scripture makes it clear that 'anything that is not of faith (believing what God says) is sin.' Or check out what Christ said in John 16:8,9 - Jesus said that when the Holy Spirit comes, He will convict the world of sin. He then defines that sin in verse 9 - "because they do not believe in Me." Sins (wrong actions or attitudes or lack of them by omission) are always caused by a wrong belief about what God says. Adam and Eve sinned (action) because they chose not to believe what God said about the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil. And they chose, instead, to believe what Satan told them. So, could Jesus sin? No. He was fully human and fully God. God cannot sin because it is contrary to His very essence. That what be like saying, "Can God disbelieve what God says?" It makes no sense. Jesus could not, as a man, disbelieve what the Father said, or commit a sin because He was one with His Father. Of course, Satan's primary objective is to get people to disbelieve what God says or to twist it into a half-truth (which is still a lie). And he is very successful at it. Nevertheless, Christ said, "You will know the truth (what God says) and the truth will set you free (in both belief system and actions). Thanks for the question. It's a good one. In Christ, Bill Mc |
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54 | What law(s) did Christ fulfill? | Rom 7:4 | Bill Mc | 14354 | ||
Hi B-Fabb, In my opinion, the Christian is no longer any of the law, whether moral, Mosaic, sacrificial, ceremonial, etc. Notice Romans chapter 7. Here Paul is using an analogy of marriage to illustrate this truth. He begins by stating that marital law is only binding as long as both members of the marriage are alive. When one of the partners dies, both are free from the marriage law. Starting in verse 4, he ties this illustration to what He calls "the Law". Through verse 6, he says that we (believers in Christ) were made to die to the Law so that we could be joined to another, Christ. He says in verse 6 that we have been released from the Law. Why? Because the Law died? No. Because we, through our death, burial, and resurrection with our Lord, died to the Law. Now, which Law is it? Keep reading through the rest of the chapter. Paul cites one of the big 10, "You shall not covet." Is this the moral law? Yes, obviously. He goes on to say that the Law is holy and righteous and good (more moral values) but that it caused him to see that he was spiritually dead because he couldn't keep it. It showed him his need for Christ. Let me conclude with Romans 8:3,4. Here Paul says that what the Law could not do (make us perfect before God), God did by sacrificing His Son. Because we are now identified, as believers, in Christ, and He fulfilled the law, the law (verse 4) is fulfilled in us. The law was to show us our sinfulness and spiritual death so that we would turn to Christ. Now that we have turned to Christ, we are no longer any of it - see Galatians 3:24,25. You can also search this site on the left of the page for others who have shared their views of this 'hot topic'. There is much debate (just as there was when Paul wrote to the Galatians). Grow in His grace. In Christ, Bill Mc |
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55 | Lifting up of hands? | Ps 63:4 | Bill Mc | 13978 | ||
Worship is more than having your hands raised. Consider Romans 12:1 - "Therefore, I urge you, brethren, by the mercies of God, to present your bodies a living and holy sacrifice, acceptable to God, which is your SPIRITUAL SERVICE of WORSHIP." Paul says here that a true spiritual "worship service" is making your body availible for Christ to live through. This is the only place that I know of in the NT where "worship services" are discussed ;) In Christ, Bill Mc |
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56 | What protects us from Judgement? | John 1:12 | Bill Mc | 13665 | ||
Romans 8:1,2 says that "there is now no condemnation (judgment) for those in Christ." Why? "For the law of the Spirit of LIFE in Christ Jesus has set you free from the law of sin and of death." The law of sin and death says, 'the soul that sins, it shall die.' But Christ took our punishment (death, the wages of sin) and God judged all our sins at the cross. The verdict was guilty and Christ took the punishment. But, as you know, 3 days later He was raised again as a "life-giving Spirit" who now indwells the believer. So what protects you from judgment or condemnation? It has already been executed on your behalf. We believe it, have faith in it (as JVH0212 says) and appropriate it to our lives. In Christ, Bill Mc |
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57 | What is your definition of Law and grace | Mark 10:21 | Bill Mc | 13163 | ||
Hi Steve, I'm on the road right now, brother, so I can't give a complete answer, but I believe that the Law, as Paul is using it in Galations must encompass more than just the 10 commandments. Primarily, because the issue that has him all fired up is whether the Gentile believers should be circumcised. But the 10 commandments never address circumcision. Also note that in Romans chapter 7 where Paul says that we were made to die to the Law (vs.4) and that we were released from the Law (vs.6), that these immediately preceed Paul's quotation of one of the 10, "You shall not covet." So this is implication of God's moral law, not the sacrificial or ceremonial laws. As to grace, it's often said, "God's unmerited favor." I.E. it is being looked upon with love and acceptance without regard to whether we deserve it or not. If you would like a wonderful living picture of law and grace, compare Jesus to the Pharisees. Jesus was full of grace and truth. The Pharisees were full of law. Notice the different attitudes they had toward people. In Him, Bill Mc |
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58 | Old T. and New T. | Matt 10:5 | Bill Mc | 12908 | ||
Dear WDC, I agree with Reformer Joe's answer above for the most part. God's attributes have never changed and never will. The Bible makes that very clear. But, for time's sake, as you know, I believe that God deals with mankind in different ways in different periods. Man has ALWAYS been saved by faith in what God says. But God has said different things to mankind down through the ages. (That is why your Bible is so thick) As you know, Adam and Eve, Noah, Abraham - none of these had 'the Law' as we know it. But they did believe in God's revelation to them during their respective time periods. They all had faith, and acted upon their beliefs. And, according to Hebrews, their faith was credited to them as righteousness. Old Testament saints were saved by belief in God's word to them. But, in these last days, as I'm sure you know, God has spoken to us through His Son. The Old Testament contained a progressive revelation of the 'once for all' sacrifice that Christ would make. There are many 'types' of salvation pictured in the OT. Hebrews says that the Law was a 'shadow' of the better things that were coming (Christ). Christ is the full revelation of God's plan to save mankind and, once again, to put His divine life back into His creation where it was designed to be. As to the seeming descrepancies of God's characteristics, I will leave that for others to reply to who may have a better answer than I. I'm not saying this as a cop-out. I'm just being honest. I don't understand why God has mercy on whom He will have mercy. There are too many specifics to answer every question as to the Lord's motives or actions, like, "Why did He allow innocent children to be slaughtered?" I believe that God gives us everything in the Bible that we need to know about Him and salvation. But He doesn't tell us everything He knows. His ways are not our ways. And I try not to use my limited understanding of Him to force Him into a box of neat little compartments so that I can fully comprehend Him. But, WDC, I can tell you this. I trust Him. He has ALWAYS been faithful to me. I, too, will have many questions to ask when I finally see Him face to face. This much I know - it was not just for the Son of God to leave heaven, take the form of a puny creation, live a perfect life amongst a sinful world, and to die a thief's death on a cross. It was not just for Christ to bear the sins on the world in His body. It was not just for Him to be separated from the Father when He never did one thing wrong. It was not just for Him to take my sins and for me to get His righteousness. It was not just for Him to take my death and to give me His life. It wasn't just, but it was love. And for that, I'm eternally grateful. In Him, Bill Mc |
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59 | Selling all required to gain salvation? | Mark 10:21 | Bill Mc | 12782 | ||
Dear Steve, See these verses: Galatians 3:10 - If you are under the works of the Law, you are under a curse UNLESS you can abide by ALL of them ALWAYS. Can you do this? James says that if you break the least of them (ever lie?), you have broken them ALL. Gal 3:11 - You are not justified by the Law NOR should you, as a believer, live by it. We live by FAITH in the Son of God. - Colossians 2:6,7 Gal 3:12 - The LAW IS NOT of faith. It is contrary to faith in what Christ, who justifies the ungodly, has done. Gal 3:13,14 - Christ has redeemed us from the Law so that we can receive His Spirit. We live by that Spirit, not the Law. Does this invalidate what Jesus said? No, Christ taught UNDER the Law - see Galatians 4:4. The Law could not be done away with UNTIL Christ fulfilled it. And He did. Eternal life is found ONLY in Christ's resurrection. The Law NEVER saved anyone. Hebrews and Romans both make it clear that it was only given to show man his sinfulness so that he could come to Christ for life. Salvation has ALWAYS been by faith in what God says, even in the OT. And, in these last days, God has spoken by His Son, Jesus Christ. In Christ, Bill Mc |
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60 | Heb. 8 and Jer. 31 | Matt 10:5 | Bill Mc | 12712 | ||
Dear fellow believers, For those who believe that this covenant is made ONLY with Israel and Judah (the Jews) exclusively, during the Millenium, permit me to ask a couple of questions: 1. What does this new covenant provide? See Hebrews 8:12, Hebrews 10:16-18. Do we not have these today as believers? Is God's Holy Spirit not in us to renew our minds? Aren't we forgiven people of God? 2. What covenant is Christ describing in Mark 14:24; Luke 22:20; 1 Corinthians 11:25; Hebrews 9:15; Hebrews 8:6? He says it is the New Covenant, does He not? Didn't His death and resurrection graciously provide for the indwelling of the Holy Spirit and the forgiveness of sins? 3. If this New Covenant that Christ describes is not the same one the Lord talks about in Hebrews 8, and the Holy Spirit testifies to in Hebrews 10, how are they different? Did not the gospel go FIRST to the house of Israel and Judah? 4. Whose death will inauguarate the, according to your interpretation, future New Covenant with Israel? Hebrews 9:17,18 makes it clear that covenants only go into effect with the shedding of blood. So what sacrifice will bring in this 'future' New Covenant that only applies to the Jew? In Christ, Bill Mc |
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