Results 361 - 380 of 420
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Radioman2 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
361 | If you have a point, what is it? | Gen 4:7 | Radioman2 | 79841 | ||
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362 | 2 Peter 2:20-and overcome/are overcome | 2 Pet 2:20 | Radioman2 | 79820 | ||
2 Peter 2:20 (NET Bible) For if after they have escaped the filthy things of the world through the rich knowledge of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ, they again get entangled in them and succumb to them,[77] [FN 77] Greek “they again, after becoming entangled in them, are overcome by them.” New English Translation (http://www.netbible.com) |
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363 | If you have a point, what is it? | Gen 4:7 | Radioman2 | 79818 | ||
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364 | Does the Bible say protect Israel | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 79816 | ||
Genesis 12:1a,3 (ESV) Now the Lord said to Abram..."I will bless those who bless you, and him who dishonors you I will curse, and in you all the families of the earth shall be blessed." |
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365 | What does the bible say about society. | 1 John 2:15 | Radioman2 | 79815 | ||
1 John 2:15-16 (ESV) Do not love the world or the things in the world. If anyone loves the world, the love of the Father is not in him. [16] For all that is in the world— the desires of the flesh and the desires of the eyes and pride in possessions—is not from the Father but is from the world. |
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366 | Does following cost? | Luke 14:33 | Radioman2 | 79674 | ||
You ask: "Does following cost?" This is a good question and one for which, fortunately, the Bible gives a good, clear answer. COST OF DISCIPLESHIP Mark 8:34-37 (ESV) And he called to him the crowd with his disciples and said to them, "If anyone would come after me, let him deny himself and take up his cross and follow me. [35] For whoever would save his life will lose it, but whoever loses his life for my sake and the gospel's will save it. [36] For what does it profit a man to gain the whole world and forfeit his life? [37] For what can a man give in return for his life?" COST OF SALVATION Mark 10:45 (ESV) "For even the Son of Man came not to be served but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many." John 10:17-18 (ESV) "For this reason the Father loves me, because I lay down my life that I may take it up again. [18] No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have authority to lay it down, and I have authority to take it up again. This charge I have received from my Father." |
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367 | What's this about the Rapture? | Rev 4:1 | Radioman2 | 79561 | ||
'The misrepresentation of John being the church. [Duplicate reply to duplicate question.] 'It is said that the church is not present during the events of Revelation because in chapter 4:1, John is called to "come up here". John is said to be a picture of the church, and therefore it (the church) is in heaven during the days of the 70th week of Daniel. But is that a valid inference? Nowhere in all of the New Testament is there warrant to apply the understanding that John represents the church in Rev. 4:1. The context clearly implies that "John" refers to... John, and no one else. He is simply given a heavenly perspective of what is going on behind the visible world and what will take place during the last days. Nothing else. To say otherwise is to grasp at straws to try to support a hollow argument." - - - - - - - - - - - - - 'Why is the church not mentioned in Revelation 4-22? 'By Rev. Charles Cooper 'It is assumed by pretribulationists that the church is not present on earth during the events spoken of in the majority of the book of Revelation. This thinking is based primarily on the absence of the word "church" from Revelation 3:22 to Revelation 20:16. If the "church" is not mentioned, it is concluded, she must have been raptured prior to the events written about. Further, it is assumed that the invitation to the apostle John in Revelation 4:1 to "come up here" is a picture of the rapture of the church preceding the events of the 70th week. 'It is important to examine these assumptions because they clearly attempt to place the rescue of the righteous (the rapture) before Daniel's 70th week and not after. If that is so, it should be clearly taught in Scripture. 'For several compelling reasons, it is a false conclusion to assume that the church will be raptured before the 70th week of Daniel (and for that reason is not mentioned between chapters 4 and 20): '1. The plain teaching of Scripture. Jesus, in the Olivet Discourse (Matthew 24:3-31), outlines the sequence of events in the last days relative to the church. Verses 3-14 parallel Revelation chapter 6 and depict those events from the beginning of the 70th week to the rapture. Then, in verses 15-28, He focuses on the middle time period of that future week (the final 7 years) and emphasizes two key events: (a) a time of great persecution, and (b) the "cut[ting] short" of "those days" of persecution for "the sake of the elect". Finally, in verses 29-31, He highlights what it is that will "cut short" that persecution, the rescue of the elect (the rapture). 'Paul echoes this same teaching in his 2nd letter to the Thessalonians 2:1-12: (a) the apostasy comes first, (b) the revealing of the man of lawlessness, (c) the "challenge" to all who will not bow down to him and worship him "as being God", and (d) the coming of the Lord to "gather together" believers unto Himself. 'In Revelation 6-8, we have the same sequence repeated: (a) the 70th week begins, (b) the pressure builds [seals 1-3], (c) the midpoint [seals 4-5] and apex of the persecution (against the "saints") arrives, (d) the "cut[ting] short" of that persecution with the same cosmic announcement [seal 6] as Jesus spoke of in Matthew 24:29-31 followed by the rapture of the saints (Revelation 7:9ff). There is absolutely no teaching either by hint or by direct instruction that the church will not be present during the 70th week of Daniel. (...) '5. The argument from silence. It is maintained that since the word "church" isn't used again from 3:22 until 22:6, she is absent from the events unfolding during that time period. That's an argument from silence. If we apply that same argument to the gospel of John, we have to conclude that the gospel of John isn't for the church because the word church isn't even mentioned in all of its chapters. Can that be true? 'The overwhelming evidence is that the church is indeed present during the 70th week of Daniel regardless of whether the word is used or not. What one believes must be squarely built on what the Bible clearly says, not on what we might like it to say for whatever reason. What we believe about the last days will have tremendous implications for our lives should we enter those days. Let us be Bereans, searching to see if these things are so. (Acts 17:11)' (http://www.solagroup.org/articles/faqs/faq_0027.html) |
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368 | What's this I | Rev 4:1 | Radioman2 | 79559 | ||
'The misrepresentation of John being the church. 'It is said that the church is not present during the events of Revelation because in chapter 4:1, John is called to "come up here". John is said to be a picture of the church, and therefore it (the church) is in heaven during the days of the 70th week of Daniel. But is that a valid inference? Nowhere in all of the New Testament is there warrant to apply the understanding that John represents the church in Rev. 4:1. The context clearly implies that "John" refers to... John, and no one else. He is simply given a heavenly perspective of what is going on behind the visible world and what will take place during the last days. Nothing else. To say otherwise is to grasp at straws to try to support a hollow argument." - - - - - - - - - - - - - 'Why is the church not mentioned in Revelation 4-22? 'By Rev. Charles Cooper 'It is assumed by pretribulationists that the church is not present on earth during the events spoken of in the majority of the book of Revelation. This thinking is based primarily on the absence of the word "church" from Revelation 3:22 to Revelation 20:16. If the "church" is not mentioned, it is concluded, she must have been raptured prior to the events written about. Further, it is assumed that the invitation to the apostle John in Revelation 4:1 to "come up here" is a picture of the rapture of the church preceding the events of the 70th week. 'It is important to examine these assumptions because they clearly attempt to place the rescue of the righteous (the rapture) before Daniel's 70th week and not after. If that is so, it should be clearly taught in Scripture. 'For several compelling reasons, it is a false conclusion to assume that the church will be raptured before the 70th week of Daniel (and for that reason is not mentioned between chapters 4 and 20): '1. The plain teaching of Scripture. Jesus, in the Olivet Discourse (Matthew 24:3-31), outlines the sequence of events in the last days relative to the church. Verses 3-14 parallel Revelation chapter 6 and depict those events from the beginning of the 70th week to the rapture. Then, in verses 15-28, He focuses on the middle time period of that future week (the final 7 years) and emphasizes two key events: (a) a time of great persecution, and (b) the "cut[ting] short" of "those days" of persecution for "the sake of the elect". Finally, in verses 29-31, He highlights what it is that will "cut short" that persecution, the rescue of the elect (the rapture). 'Paul echoes this same teaching in his 2nd letter to the Thessalonians 2:1-12: (a) the apostasy comes first, (b) the revealing of the man of lawlessness, (c) the "challenge" to all who will not bow down to him and worship him "as being God", and (d) the coming of the Lord to "gather together" believers unto Himself. 'In Revelation 6-8, we have the same sequence repeated: (a) the 70th week begins, (b) the pressure builds [seals 1-3], (c) the midpoint [seals 4-5] and apex of the persecution (against the "saints") arrives, (d) the "cut[ting] short" of that persecution with the same cosmic announcement [seal 6] as Jesus spoke of in Matthew 24:29-31 followed by the rapture of the saints (Revelation 7:9ff). There is absolutely no teaching either by hint or by direct instruction that the church will not be present during the 70th week of Daniel. (...) '5. The argument from silence. It is maintained that since the word "church" isn't used again from 3:22 until 22:6, she is absent from the events unfolding during that time period. That's an argument from silence. If we apply that same argument to the gospel of John, we have to conclude that the gospel of John isn't for the church because the word church isn't even mentioned in all of its chapters. Can that be true? 'The overwhelming evidence is that the church is indeed present during the 70th week of Daniel regardless of whether the word is used or not. What one believes must be squarely built on what the Bible clearly says, not on what we might like it to say for whatever reason. What we believe about the last days will have tremendous implications for our lives should we enter those days. Let us be Bereans, searching to see if these things are so. (Acts 17:11)' (http://www.solagroup.org/articles/faqs/faq_0027.html) |
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369 | A bit confused regarding tongues | 1 Cor 14:22 | Radioman2 | 79508 | ||
The Baptism in the Holy Spirit [Note: (http://www.ag.org/top/beliefs/baptism_hs/baptmhs_00_questions.cfm) At the above website the document "Assemblies of God Beliefs" answers the following questions:] Questions about the Baptism in the Holy Spirit Do Christians receive the Holy Spirit when they are saved? If so, how is this experience different from the baptism in the Holy Spirit? Can a person receive eternal life in heaven without the baptism in the Holy Spirit? If so, why should we be baptized in the Spirit? Once a person is baptized in the Holy Spirit, why is it necessary to be refilled later? What is the difference between "speaking in tongues" when one is baptized in the Spirit and "speaking in tongues" publicly? Also, what is the advantage of "praying in tongues" in one's private prayer life? When tongues are exercised publicly according to the Biblical standard, should there always be an interpretation? Who should give the interpretation? For whose benefit and for what purpose are there utterances in tongues followed by interpretations? Is it possible for an interpretation of tongues to run contrary to the teachings of the Bible? As humans do we play a role as to whether or not tongues and other gifts will operate in the church? Can a person be filled with the Holy Spirit without speaking in tongues? In the first outpouring recorded in the New Testament, there were tongues of fire and the sound of a violent wind. Why does this not occur today? Is it possible to be saved and baptized in the Holy Spirit at the same time? First Corinthians 13:8 says "Whether there be tongues, they shall cease" (KJV). Wouldn't this indicate the baptism in the Holy Spirit was only for those first followers 2,000 years ago? Since Paul suggested in 1 Corinthians 14:19 that it is better to speak intelligible words in church than to speak in tongues, doesn't it follow that the experience of tongues in unnecessary today? Is there proof that the outpouring of the Holy Spirit experienced today is genuinely biblical? Why do Pentecostals emphasize speaking in tongues when this is only mentioned a few times in Acts and 1 Corinthians 12 to 14? Who should be baptized in the Holy Spirit? When a person is filled with the Holy Spirit, is he in a semi-conscious state, or is he totally coherent and aware of what is happening? Why are some people baptized in the Spirit immediately, while other seek so long without receiving the experience? When an individual is seeking the baptism in the Holy Spirit, can anything be done to prepare his life or environment that will quicken the infilling? Is tongues the only evidence of the infilling of the Holy Spirit? Will there be any significant changes in one's attitudes and actions after being baptized in the Spirit? |
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370 | A bit confused regarding tongues | 1 Cor 14:22 | Radioman2 | 79507 | ||
'8. The Initial Physical Evidence of the Baptism in the Holy Ghost 'The baptism of believers in the Holy Ghost is witnessed by the initial physical sign of speaking with other tongues as the Spirit of God gives them utterance. 'Acts 2:4 [KJV/NIV] The speaking in tongues in this instance is the same in essence as the gift of tongues, but is different in purpose and use. '1 Corinthians 12:4-10 [KJV/NIV] 1 Corinthians 12:28 [KJV/NIV]' From "Assemblies of God Beliefs" (http://www.ag.org/top/beliefs/truths.cfm#8) - - - - - - - - - - 'Can a person be filled with the Holy Spirit without speaking in tongues? 'First let us examine the Scriptures. On the Day of Pentecost the Holy Spirit fell upon the assembled believers and "all of them were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues" (Acts 2:4). Later, as Peter was preaching at the house of Cornelius, "the Holy Spirit came on all who heard the message" and they were "speaking in tongues and praising God" (Acts 10:44, 46). Again, as the apostle Paul was ministering to the Ephesian disciples, "the Holy Spirit came on them, and they spoke in tongues and prophesied" (Acts 19:6). It is evident also that Paul himself was filled with the Holy Spirit (Acts 9:17) and spoke in tongues (1 Corinthians 14:18). These Scriptures clearly show that speaking in tongues is the initial physical evidence of being baptized in the Holy Spirit. 'When the early believers were filled, they spoke in other tongues, and the same holds true today. Millions of believers worldwide share the exact testimony: when they initially were baptized in the Holy Spirit they spoke in unknown tongues. This is the truth which Pentecostals consistently affirm. The prophecy of Joel 2:28, 29, cited by Peter in Acts 2:16, 17, links today's Spirit-filled believers with those who were filled with the Spirit on the Day of Pentecost. The Spirit's fullness, evidenced initially by the phenomenon of speaking in other tongues, is the common experience all celebrate with joy. 'There are those who give testimony to a dynamic and life-changing encounter with the Holy Spirit who have never spoken in tongues. Nevertheless it cannot be said that they are filled with the Spirit in the New Testament sense of the term. There is an essential link between that experience and speaking in other tongues, as pointed out above. 'We affirm and teach these truths because they are based upon the pattern from God's Word. We do not look upon speaking in tongues as a proof of superior spirituality. It simply is a precious promise written in God's Word and fulfilled in our lives. To ignore it is to miss a great blessing and come short of the New Testament pattern. 'All who are hungry for the "filling" should be encouraged to trust the Lord for the overflowing evidence of that "filling"; namely, speaking in other tongues.' (http://www.ag.org/top/beliefs/baptism_hs/baptmhs_09_filledwotongues.cfm) |
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371 | What exactly must a person to be saved? | NT general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 79440 | ||
You ask: "What exactly must a person do to be saved?" In the book of Acts, the Philippian jailer asked the same question. The Bible gives a clear and straightforward answer. AMPLIFIED Bible Acts 16:30 And he brought them out [of the dungeon] and said, Men, what is it necessary for me to do that I may be saved? Acts 16:31 And they answered, Believe in the Lord Jesus Christ [give yourself up to Him, take yourself out of your own keeping and entrust yourself into His keeping] and you will be saved... John 3:16 For God so greatly loved and dearly prized the world that He [even] gave up His only begotten (unique) Son, so that whoever believes in (trusts in, clings to, relies on) Him shall not perish (come to destruction, be lost) but have eternal (everlasting) life. "Belief in the N.T. denotes more than intellectual assent to a fact. The word (Gk. pistis, noun; pisteuo, verb) means *adherence to, committal to, faith in, reliance upon, trust in* a person or an object, and this involves not only the consent of the mind, but an act of the heart and will of the subject. "Whosoever believeth in him" is equivalent to "whosoever trusts in or commits himself to him [Christ]." Belief, then is synonymous with faith, which in the N.T. consists of believing and receiving what God has revealed" (New Scofield Reference Bible, Oxford, 1967). "Salvation is conditioned solely on faith in Jesus Christ. Nearly 200 times faith, or belief, is stated as the single condition in the N.T. (John 1:12; Acts 16:31). That faith must be placed in Christ as one's substitute for and Saviour from sin" (p. 1950, Ryrie Study Bible, Moody Press, 1978). |
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372 | When is a sinner counted "not guilty"? | Rom 5:9 | Radioman2 | 79203 | ||
You write: "If justification (God's act of declaring one righteous) comes (and only begins) when I believe, does this mean that God changes his whole view of me just because of something I did (to believe)? Does it mean that God has a totally different way of seeing me while in unbelief and then changes his way of seeing me now that I believe? Such concept seem to suggest that by believing I am able to cause God to see me differently. How does this makes sense to you?" No, God does not change his whole view of you just because of something you did. No, by believing you are not able to cause God to see you differently. There is nothing you can do to cause God to see you differently. You are not justified by anything you did. If you are justified, it will be by what Christ did when he shed his blood for you on the cross. Justified by His blood AMPLIFIED Romans 5:9 Therefore, since we are now justified (acquitted, made righteous, and brought into right relationship with God) by Christ's blood, how much more [certain is it that] we shall be saved by Him from the indignation and wrath of God. |
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373 | Blessed is the Man that walketh | Ps 1:1 | Radioman2 | 79160 | ||
"Separation is not from contact with evil in the world or the church, but from complicity with and conformity to it." - - - - - - - - - - AMPLIFIED Psalm 1:1 BLESSED (HAPPY, fortunate, prosperous, and enviable) is the man who walks and lives not in the counsel of the ungodly [FOLLOWING THEIR ADVICE, THEIR PLANS AND PURPOSES], nor stands [SUBMISSIVE AND INACTIVE] in the path where sinners walk, nor sits down [TO RELAX AND REST] where the scornful [and the mockers] gather. Psalm 1:1 AMPLIFIED (Emphasis added.) 2 Corinthians 6:17 Wherefore come out from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not the unclean thing; and I will receive you, "come out from among them" '(3) Separation is not from contact with evil in the world or the church, but from complicity with and conformity to it (John 17:15; 2 Corinthians 6:14-18; Galatians 6:1). '(4) . . . Here, as in all else, Christ is the model. He was "holy, harmless, undefiled, and separate from sinners" (Hebrews 7:26) and yet in such contact with them for their salvation that the Pharisees, who illustrate the mechanical and ascetic conception of separation (See Scofield "Matthew 3:7"), judged Him as having lost His Nazarite character (Luke 7:39 Cf ; 1 Corinthians 9:19-23; 10:27).' Scofield, C.I. "Scofield Reference Notes on 2 Corinthians 6". "Scofield Reference Notes (1917 Edition)". (http://bible.crosswalk.com/Commentaries/ScofieldReferenceNotes/) |
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374 | Should we give one tenth of our income? | Luke 11:42 | Radioman2 | 79138 | ||
Speak to the Israelites, that they take for Me an offering. From every man who gives it willingly and ungrudgingly with his heart you shall take My offering. Exodus 25:2 AMPLIFIED AMPLIFIED 1 Chronicles 29:9 Then the people rejoiced because these had given willingly, for with a whole and blameless heart they had offered freely to the Lord. King David also rejoiced greatly. - - - - - - - - - - "Tithes were not primarily gifts to God, but taxes for funding the national budget in Israel." "New Testament believers are never commanded to tithe. " - - - - - - - - - - "Two kinds of giving are taught consistently throughout Scripture: giving to the government (always compulsory), and giving to God (always voluntary). "The issue has been greatly confused, however, by some who misunderstand the nature of the Old Testament tithes. Tithes were not primarily gifts to God, but taxes for funding the national budget in Israel. "Because Israel was a theocracy, the Levitical priests acted as the civil government. So the Levite's tithe (Leviticus 27:30-33) was a precursor to today's income tax, as was a second annual tithe required by God to fund a national festival (Deuteronomy 14:22-29). Smaller taxes were also imposed on the people by the law (Leviticus 19:9-10; Exodus 23:10-11). So the total giving required of the Israelites was not 10 percent, but well over 20 percent. All that money was used to operate the nation. "All giving apart from that required to run the government was purely voluntary (cf. Exodus 25:2; 1 Chronicles 29:9). Each person gave whatever was in his heart to give; no percentage or amount was specified. "New Testament believers are never commanded to tithe. Matthew 22:15-22 and Romans 13:1-7 tell us about the only required giving in the church age, which is the paying of taxes to the government. "Interestingly enough, we in America presently pay between 20 and 30 percent of our income to the government--a figure very similar to the requirement under the theocracy of Israel. "The guideline for our giving to God and His work is found in 2 Corinthians 9:6-7: "Now this I say, he who sows sparingly shall also reap sparingly; and he who sows bountifully shall also reap bountifully. Let each one do just as he has purposed in his heart; not grudgingly or under compulsion; for God loves a cheerful giver." (www.gty.org Click on Issues and Answers. Then click on Previous Topics) For much more in-depth information on Tithing, including many Scripture references, look up Tithing in Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology. Baker's Dictionary is available online at (bible.crosswalk.com) |
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375 | searching for the truth | Psalm | Radioman2 | 79087 | ||
Question: Is there a limit to the number of times a christian can ask for foregiveness? Answer: Matthew 18:21-22 (ESV) Then Peter came up and said to him, "Lord, how often will my brother sin against me, and I forgive him? As many as seven times?" [22] Jesus said to him, "I do not say to you seven times, but seventy times seven. |
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376 | Help thinking | Rom 12:2 | Radioman2 | 79051 | ||
NASB Romans 8:5 For those who are according to the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, but those who are according to the Spirit, the things of the Spirit. AMPLIFIED Romans 8:5 For those who are according to the flesh and are controlled by its unholy desires set their minds on and pursue those things which gratify the flesh, but those who are according to the Spirit and are controlled by the desires of the Spirit set their minds on and seek those things which gratify the [Holy] Spirit. AMPLIFIED Romans 12:2 Do not be conformed to this world (this age), [fashioned after and adapted to its external, superficial customs], but be transformed (changed) by the [entire] renewal of your mind [by its new ideals and its new attitude], so that you may prove [for yourselves] what is the good and acceptable and perfect will of God, even the thing which is good and acceptable and perfect [in His sight for you]. AMPLIFIED Ephesians 4:23 And be constantly renewed in the spirit of your mind [having a fresh mental and spiritual attitude], AMPLIFIED Philippians 2:5 Let this same attitude and purpose and [humble] mind be in you which was in Christ Jesus: [Let Him be your example in humility:] |
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377 | Judgement:preachers who curse nontithers | Heb 7:8 | Radioman2 | 79015 | ||
Speak to the Israelites, that they take for Me an offering. From every man who gives it willingly and ungrudgingly with his heart you shall take My offering. Exodus 25:2 AMPLIFIED AMPLIFIED 1 Chronicles 29:9 Then the people rejoiced because these had given willingly, for with a whole and blameless heart they had offered freely to the Lord. King David also rejoiced greatly. - - - - - - - - - - "Tithes were not primarily gifts to God, but taxes for funding the national budget in Israel." "New Testament believers are never commanded to tithe. " - - - - - - - - - - You are correct when you say "tithes do not apply to the NT" era. "Two kinds of giving are taught consistently throughout Scripture: giving to the government (always compulsory), and giving to God (always voluntary). "The issue has been greatly confused, however, by some who misunderstand the nature of the Old Testament tithes. Tithes were not primarily gifts to God, but taxes for funding the national budget in Israel. "Because Israel was a theocracy, the Levitical priests acted as the civil government. So the Levite's tithe (Leviticus 27:30-33) was a precursor to today's income tax, as was a second annual tithe required by God to fund a national festival (Deuteronomy 14:22-29). Smaller taxes were also imposed on the people by the law (Leviticus 19:9-10; Exodus 23:10-11). So the total giving required of the Israelites was not 10 percent, but well over 20 percent. All that money was used to operate the nation. "All giving apart from that required to run the government was purely voluntary (cf. Exodus 25:2; 1 Chronicles 29:9). Each person gave whatever was in his heart to give; no percentage or amount was specified. "New Testament believers are never commanded to tithe. Matthew 22:15-22 and Romans 13:1-7 tell us about the only required giving in the church age, which is the paying of taxes to the government. "Interestingly enough, we in America presently pay between 20 and 30 percent of our income to the government--a figure very similar to the requirement under the theocracy of Israel. "The guideline for our giving to God and His work is found in 2 Corinthians 9:6-7: "Now this I say, he who sows sparingly shall also reap sparingly; and he who sows bountifully shall also reap bountifully. Let each one do just as he has purposed in his heart; not grudgingly or under compulsion; for God loves a cheerful giver." (www.gty.org Click on Issues and Answers. Then click on Previous Topics) For much more in-depth information on Tithing, including many Scripture references, look up Tithing in Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology. Baker's Dictionary is available online at (bible.crosswalk.com) |
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378 | Radioman - What did God say in Exo 6:3? | Gen 17:1 | Radioman2 | 78921 | ||
The name YHWH appears approximately 169 times in the book of Genesis alone. Yet you take the position that no one ever heard of it or used it until the time of Moses (i.e., until the book of Exodus). The name YHWH appears nearly 7,000 times in the OT. Yet you imply that it is just another one of many names and titles. That it has no particular significance. That there is nothing to distinguish it from all the other names and titles of God. God did not announce his name YHWH until Exodus? He announced it to Abram. Genesis 15:7-8 (ESV) And he (God) said to him (Abram), "I am the LORD (Hebrew YHWH) who brought you out from Ur of the Chaldeans to give you this land to possess." [8] But he said, "O LORD (Hebrew YHWH) GOD, how am I to know that I shall possess it?" He announced it to Hagar, Sarai's maid. Genesis 16:11 (ESV) And the angel of the Lord said to her, "Behold, you are pregnant and shall bear a son. You shall call his name Ishmael, because the LORD (Hebrew YHWH) has listened to your affliction." |
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379 | Radioman - What did God say in Exo 6:3? | Gen 17:1 | Radioman2 | 78896 | ||
You write: "If He DID NOT MAKE HIMSELF KNOWN BY HIS NAME how WAS IT KNOWN TO THE PATRIARCHS?" You tell me. You're the one who is saying that the name YHWH was unknown to the patriarchs, even though I have shown you in Genesis that the patriarchs did call upon the name of YHWH. So indeed, "if He DID NOT MAKE HIMSELF KNOWN BY HIS NAME how WAS IT KNOWN TO THE PATRIARCHS?" You tell me. This is a question that is left unanswered by you, not by me. "One of the basic principles of biblical interpretation is the analogia scriptura, the analogy of Scripture. In other words, we must compare Scripture with Scripture in order to understand its full and proper sense. And since the Bible doesn't contradict itself, any interpretation of a specific passage that contradicts the general teaching of the Bible is to be rejected." OK, if the name YHWH was not known until Exodus, then you tell me: How is it that men called upon the name of YHWH in Gen. 4:26, 8:12, and 13:4? How are they to call on him of whom they have never heard? One of two things must be true: a) Either the passages in Genesis that speak of men calling upon the name of YHWH are untrue, in error and not a legitimate part of the inspired scriptures; or b) Exodus 6:3 is not to be taken in an overly wooden literal sense, but must be interpreted in light of other scriptures that address the same issue. Which is it -- a) or b)? We have to compare scripture with scripture and apply a little common sense to its interpretation. Otherwise, we are left with unexplainable contradictions between various verses of scripture. Re-interpreting or changing the meaning of a number of verses of scripture to fit one's own interpretation of a single verse is not applying sound principles of interpretation. Rather it is precisely what the Jehovah's Witnesses do to prove their heretical points. |
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380 | How does eternal security build faith? | Rev 3:5 | Radioman2 | 78867 | ||
I believe in the security of the believer and I agree with you. We ought never give anyone false hope of their salvation. Test yourselves to see if you are in the faith; examine yourselves! Or do you not recognize this about yourselves, that Jesus Christ is in you--unless indeed you fail the test? 2 Cor 13: 5 NASB According to the Scriptures, I believe in eternal security; I do not believe in eternal presumption. 'No one who persists in willful, deliberate sin and rebellion against the Lord should be encouraged with any promise of assurance. If you know someone like that who professes faith in Christ, follow the process of Matthew 18 and call that person to repentance. But don’t encourage him or her with the promise of security. Such a person may be clinging to a false hope' (http://www.gty.org/IssuesandAnswers/archive/sinextend.htm) |
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