Results 3501 - 3520 of 3591
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: BradK Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
3501 | Can a fallen angel be in God's presence? | Rev 1:4 | BradK | 203238 | ||
Hello buscador, You're asking a great question, my friend! In general, God allowed this for His Glory! To start, we gain perspective if we understand that Job reveals to us more about God's character than it does his circumstances! C.H. Spurgeon noted, "Up there, beyond the clouds, where no human eye could see, there was a scene enacted which augured no good to Job’s prosperity. The spirit of evil stood face to face with the infinite Spirit of all good. An extraordinary conversation took place between these two beings. When called to account for his doings, the evil one boasted that he had gone to and fro throughout the earth, insinuating that he had met with no hindrance to his will, and found no one to oppose his freely moving and acting at his own pleasure. He had marched everywhere like a king in his own dominions, unhindered and unchallenged. When the great God reminded him that there was at least one place among men where he had no foothold, and where his power was unrecognized, namely, in the heart of Job; that there was one man who stood like an impregnable castle, garrisoned by integrity, and held with perfect loyalty as the possession of the King of Heaven; the evil one defied Jehovah to try the faithfulness of Job, told him that the patriarch’s integrity was due to his prosperity, that he served God and eschewed evil from sinister motives, because he found his conduct profitable to himself. The God of heaven took up the challenge of the evil one, and gave him permission to take away all the mercies which he affirmed to he the props of Job’s integrity, and to pull down all the outworks and buttresses and see whether the tower would not stand in its own inherent strength without them." I hope this helps, BradK |
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3502 | What is the Greek Word for first born, R | Rev 1:5 | BradK | 224437 | ||
Hello charrod111, Welcome to the Forum! The word for firstborn here in Rev. 1:5 is protokos (Gr.). I hope this helps, BradK |
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3503 | What is the Greek Word for first born, R | Rev 1:5 | BradK | 224438 | ||
I'm sorry, correction: prototokos. BradK |
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3504 | revelation 1 to end | Rev 1:7 | BradK | 169061 | ||
Hi Moorin, Here are the brief definitions of both: 1. Eschatology- From Gk. eschatos, ‘last‘, the term refers to the ‘doctrine of the last things’. In contrast to cyclical conceptions of history, the biblical writings understand history as a linear movement towards a goal. God is driving history towards the ultimate fulfilment of his purposes for his creation. So biblical eschatology is not limited to the destiny of the individual; it concerns the consummation of the whole history of the world, towards which all God’s redemptive acts in history are directed. [The New Bible Dictionary] 2. Revelation- Term from the Latin revelatio, referring to either (1) the act of revealing for the purpose of making something known or (2) the thing that is revealed. In theology it designates God’s own self-disclosure or manifesting of himself, or things concerning himself and the world; it may also mean the word itself, oral or written, that conveys such revelation. The equivalent NT terms are apokalupsis (apocalypse), which means unveiling, uncovering, or making someone or something known. The Greek word phanerosis is virtually synonymous, though usually with the nuance of clear, readily discernible presentation. REVELATION, BOOK OF Last book of the Bible, containing revelations concerning the events of the last days. [Tyndale Bible Dictionary] I trust this will help, BradK |
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3505 | How old is God | Rev 1:8 | BradK | 168567 | ||
Hi ebrain, Part 2: Websters' defines eternal as: "having infinite duration : everlasting; of or relating to eternity; continued without intermission : perpetual; valid or existing at all times : timeless." I rather like what A.W. Pink wrote in regard to the Solitariness of God: "In the beginning, God" (Gen. 1:1). There was a time, if "time" is could be called, when God, in the unity of His nature (though subsisting equally in three Divine Persons), dwelt all alone. "In the beginning, God." There was no heaven, where His glory is now particularly manifested. There was no earth to engage His attention. There were no angels to hymn His praises; no universe to be upheld by the word of His power. There was nothing, no one, but God; and that, not for a day, a year, or an age, but "from everlasting." During a past eternity, God was alone: self-contained, self-sufficient, self-satisfied; in need of nothing. Had a universe, had angels, had human beings been necessary to Him in any way, they also had been called into existence from all eternity. The creating of them when He did, added nothing to God essentially. He changes not (Mal. 3:6), therefore His essential glory can be neither augmented nor diminished." Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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3506 | Keys to death hell and the grave | Rev 1:18 | BradK | 122136 | ||
BCharo, The reference you're looking for is found in Rev. 1:18: "and the living One; and I was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore, and I have the keys of death and of Hades." I hope this helps, BradK |
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3507 | Can you tell me where was jesus for thos | Rev 1:18 | BradK | 144784 | ||
Hi Janae, I would have to take issue with you on this. This is part of the WOF heretical doctrines that Jesus Atoned for our sins in hell! Though I suspect you will disagree, this is not the Orthodox position, nor will you find exegetical support for it. Christ was buried in a tomb, hence, the ground- but certainly not hell. In Eph. 4:9 you have 2 words "lower parts"- katoteros and meros- neither of which translates as hell. Nowhere will you find scriptural support stating that Jesus went to Hell. It is simply incorrect theology lead by faulty assumption! Might I ask what scriptures you have in mind to support this? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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3508 | Can you tell me where was jesus for thos | Rev 1:18 | BradK | 144789 | ||
Hi Janae, Apparently I'm still lacking, because I don't see Rev. 1:18 as any type of "proof-text" that Jesus went to hell. Lower parts as I alluded to can mean "the ground"- as Jesus was buried in a tomb. The point I'm making is this: there is simply no clear scripture that states "Jesus went to hell"! It is speculation- at best- to say so. There is a major difference between solid scriptural support for one's position and gross speculation. I also don't know how you could be so certain that Paul was referring to hell. Could you elaborate? Janae, I just don't see that you have very valid argument here from Gods' Word! Maybe you could answer as to why Jesus would need to go to hell to atone for your and my sins to begin with? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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3509 | Can you tell me where was jesus for thos | Rev 1:18 | BradK | 144800 | ||
Hi Janae, Well I'm fine to leave it where it is on this point:-) I think we still have to distinguish between speculation and the Word of God being truth (Jn. 17:17). In studying the word for hell, the Greek word is gehenna. I don't see Paul using this word in any of his writings. I see it in the Gospels, but not Paul. How can a word which does not translate as hell- assuming Eph. 4:9 - be rendered such? So, the Holy Spirit told you that this word refers to hell... seems very subjective! Without trying to be facetious, to say the Holy Spirit "told you" it was hell... I just don't buy:-) What if I said He told me it wasn't hell? The bottom line is this: we need to be careful to not read into scripture and say something or base our beliefs on theological assumptions or speculation. It's not a matter of "you believe what you want" and "I'll believe what I want". It's: What saith the Scripture? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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3510 | Jesus took keys from Satan for hell | Rev 1:18 | BradK | 167149 | ||
Hi justolneetor, As kalos aptly stated, there is simply no Biblical foundation for this false teaching! Orthodoxy holds no such notion: "As a result, we are no longer to be children, tossed here and there by waves and carried about by every wind of doctrine, by the trickery of men, by craftiness in deceitful scheming;" [Eph. 4:14] The only place this deceitfulfully false teaching gains an audience is in the WOF halls of heresy on TBN! Stay clear of it my brother. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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3511 | Jesus going to Hell | Rev 1:18 | BradK | 223930 | ||
Hello droach, There is nothing in scripture that states anything about Jesus going to Hell and taking keys away from Satan! In 1 Pet. 3:19 we're told that "...in which also He went and made proclamation to the spirits now in prison," but the meaning here is uncertain at best. It says nothing about Hell and is (arguably) one of the most difficult NT passages! However, in Rev. 1:18 we do have, "...and the living One; and I was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore, and I have the keys of death and of Hades." (NASB) Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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3512 | Nicolaitans meaning of root word rev2:6 | Rev 2:6 | BradK | 163043 | ||
Hi Tim, Here's some info to help answer your question. Enhanced Strongs Lexicon says of the Greek word: "3531-[Nikolaites /nik·ol·ah·ee·tace/] n. pr m. From 3532; GK 3774; Two occurrences; AV translates as “Nicolaitans” twice. 1. a sect mentioned in Rev. 2:6,15, who were charged with holding the error of Balaam, casting a stumbling block before the church of God by upholding the liberty of eating things sacrificed to idols as well as committing fornication. Additional Information: Nicolaitans - “destruction of people”." Tyndales' Bible Dictionary says in part: "NICOLAITANS -Heretical sect in the early church that is mentioned by name twice in the book of Revelation. The church at Ephesus was commended for hating the works of the Nicolaitans (Rev. 2:6), and the church at Pergamum was criticized for having some members who held their doctrine (v 15). Since the specific sins condemned at Pergamum—the eating of food sacrificed to idols and the practice of immorality—were also present at Thyatira (Rev. 2:20), it is commonly thought that the woman Jezebel was a leader of the Nicolaitans in that church. In the letter to Pergamum, their sins are equated with the teaching of Balaam (Rev. 2:14; cf. Num. 25:1–2; 31:16; 2 Pet. 2:15; Jude 1:11), who advised Balak, the king of the Moabites, to bring about Israel’s downfall by inviting them to worship the Moabite gods and engage in intermarriage and the sexual immoralities connected with Moabite religious practices. Thus, the Jews would have been separated from God and his protection. In Jewish thought, Balaam was the symbol of all that led men to obscene conduct and the forsaking of God. The ungodly practices at Thyatira are called the “deep things of Satan” (Rev. 2:24)." God Bless, BradK |
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3513 | WHITE STONE- REV 2:17 | Rev 2:17 | BradK | 224915 | ||
Hello Elm, In context, John is addressing the church in Pergamum were overcomers are promised hidden manna and a white stone with a new name written on it. As the Bible Knowledge Commentary notes, "Scholars differ as to the meaning of the “white stone.” Alford is probably right in saying that the important point is the stone’s inscription which gives the believer “a new name,” indicating acceptance by God and his title to glory (The Greek Testament, 4:572). This may be an allusion to the Old Testament practice of the high priest wearing 12 stones on his breastplate with the names of the 12 tribes of Israel inscribed on it. Though believers at Pergamum may not have had precious stones or gems of this world, they had what is far more important, acceptance by Christ Himself and assurance of infinite blessings to come. Taken as a whole, the message to the church in Pergamum is a warning against compromise in morals or teaching and against deviating from the purity of doctrine required of Christians." According to the Commentary Critical, "white stone … new name … no man knoweth saving he—TRENCH’S explanation seems best. White is the color and livery of heaven. “New” implies something altogether renewed and heavenly. The white stone is a glistening diamond, the Urim borne by the high priest within the choschen or breastplate of judgment, with the twelve tribes’ names on the twelve precious stones, next the heart. The word Urim means “light,” answering to the color white. None but the high priest knew the name written upon it, probably the incommunicable name of God, “Jehovah.” The high priest consulted it in some divinely appointed way to get direction from God when needful. The “new name” is Christ’s (compare Rev 3:12, “I will write upon him My new name”): some new revelation of Himself which shall hereafter be imparted to His people, and which they alone are capable of receiving. The connection with the “hidden manna” will thus be clear, as none save the high priest had access to the “manna hidden” in the sanctuary. Believers, as spiritual priests unto God, shall enjoy the heavenly antitypes to the hidden manna and the Urim stone. What they had peculiarly to contend against at Pergamos was the temptation to idol-meats, and fornication, put in their way by Balaamites. As Phinehas was rewarded with “an everlasting priesthood” for his zeal against these very sins to which the Old Testament Balaam seduced Israel; so the heavenly high priesthood is the reward promised here to those zealous against the New Testament Balaamites tempting Christ’s people to the same sins." I hope this helps, BradK |
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3514 | Is the KJV truer to the original mss? | Rev 2:28 | BradK | 80891 | ||
Dear Biblebeliever, While your staunch support of the KJV is evident, what is not is your love and concern. There is really no need to resort to caustic remarks and personal attacks to make your point. Furthermore, in my humble estimation, they do not promote nor strengthen your view. Would you kindly tone down your responses and avoid the hostility, my brother? I for one would appreciate it.You might also familiarize yourself with points 2 and 3 of the Forums guidelines. Consider this portion of scripture: 1 Corinthians 13:1-7 (KJV) 1 Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity, I am become as sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal. 2 And though I have the gift of prophecy, and understand all mysteries, and all knowledge; and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, and have not charity, I am nothing. 3 And though I bestow all my goods to feed the poor, and though I give my body to be burned, and have not charity, it profiteth me nothing. 4 Charity suffereth long, and is kind; charity envieth not; charity vaunteth not itself, is not puffed up, 5 Doth not behave itself unseemly, seeketh not her own, is not easily provoked, thinketh no evil; 6 Rejoiceth not in iniquity, but rejoiceth in the truth; 7 Beareth all things, believeth all things, hopeth all things, endureth all things. Speaking The Truth In Love, BradK |
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3515 | Both spirit and Spirit present within us | Rev 2:28 | BradK | 151683 | ||
Hi Ray, I believe the "concerning His Son" in vs. 3 and "Jesus Christ our Lord" at the end of vs. 4 frame the reference properly. "According to the flesh" is in opposition to "according to the Spirit of holiness". The former may refer to His humanity and the latter to His Diety. He was "declared" or "appointed" to be the Son of God in power by the resurrection from the dead. I hope this helps, BradK |
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3516 | Rev. 3 v20 and Song of Solomon 5 | Rev 3:20 | BradK | 219984 | ||
Hello preacha07, Welcome to the Forum. In answer to your question, yes. In consulting the Commentary Critical they support the reference of SS 5:2-6 in Rev. 3:20- "20. stand--waiting in wonderful condescension and long-suffering. knock--( Solomon 5:2 ). This is a further manifestation of His loving desire for the sinner's salvation. He who is Himself "the Door," and who bids us "knock" that it may be "opened unto" us, is first Himself to knock at the door of our hearts. If He did not knock first, we should never come to knock at His door. Compare Solomon 5:4-6 , which is plainly alluded to here; the Spirit thus in Revelation sealing the canonicity of that mystical book. The spiritual state of the bride there, between waking and sleeping, slow to open the door to her divine lover, answers to that of the lukewarm Laodicea here. "Love in regard to men emptied (humbled) God; for He does not remain in His place and call to Himself the servant whom He loved, but He comes down Himself to seek him, and He who is all-rich arrives at the lodging of the pauper, and with His own voice intimates His yearning love, and seeks a similar return, and withdraws not when disowned, and is not impatient at insult, and when persecuted still waits at the doors" [NICOLAUS CABASILAS in TRENCH]." I hope this helps, BradK |
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3517 | What is this "open door?" | Rev 4:1 | BradK | 156580 | ||
Hi Gary, I think quite honestly, your interpretation is a stretch! You cannot ignore the context, which you do in all the scripture quotations you cite:-( For example, 1 Cor. 14:1 says this: "Pursue love, yet desire earnestly spiritual gifts, but especially that you may prophesy." This is the imperative where love is the focus and it closely follows 1 Cor. 13:13, where are told (as a comparative) , "...the greater of these is love". You appear to be the only one who holds to the view of John 3:3! That is pure and simple eisegesis, my friend. You're also making quantum leaps by stating, "This open door is a gateway in which we can enter into a visionary encounter with the Lord". There is simply no scripture which asserts this or backs your contention. Are you familiar with the principle of 2 Timothy 2:15 or Pauls' admonition in 1 Cor. 4:6, where he admonishes us, "...not to think beyond what is written"? 2 Cor. 4:2 implores believers by these words: "but we have renounced the things hidden because of shame, not walking in craftiness or adulterating the word of God, but by the manifestation of truth commending ourselves to every man's conscience in the sight of God." Now, let's rightly consider some perspective both sound and in context. First,read the context of Rev. 3:8. Second, in Rev. 4:1, John is the one conveying his vision- hence the Book of Revelation! This "revelation was given to HIM, not us! Finally, the Commentary Critical offers this: "1. After this—Greek, “After these things,†marking the opening of the next vision in the succession. Here is the transition from “the things which are†(Rev 1:19), the existing state of the seven churches, as a type of the Church in general, in John’s time, to “the things which shall be hereafter,†namely, in relation to the time when John wrote. I looked—rather as Greek, “I saw†in vision; not as English Version means, I directed my look that way. was—Omit, as not being in the Greek. opened—“standing openâ€; not as though John saw it in the act of being opened. Compare Ez 1:1; Mt 3:16; Ac 7:56; 10:11. But in those visions the heavens opened, disclosing the visions to those below on earth. Whereas here, heaven, the temple of God, remains closed to those on earth, but John is transported in vision through an open door up into heaven, whence he can see things passing on earth or in heaven, according as the scenes of the several visions require." Your hit-n-miss hodge-podge of scripture slinging leaves much to be desired:-( Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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3518 | What is this "open door?" | Rev 4:1 | BradK | 156592 | ||
Hi Gary, Thank you for responding to me. I do look forward to more dialog on your thoughts. If I was too harsh, I apologize. I can only respond to what I read posted and it came across muddled. Too many on this Forum do not provide an adequate basis for "where they're coming from" so that's why I responded with a high degree of skepticism. In any case, feel free to reply. I think it would help, so please read my "bio" under my name by clicking on it. Have a blessed day as well. BradK |
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3519 | What is this "open door?" | Rev 4:1 | BradK | 156981 | ||
Dear Gary, Thank you so much for your clearer explanation of what you meant and where you're coming from! Though I'm not in complete agreement with everything you said, it would be difficult to argue with the sincerity of heart in which you communicated:-) I commend you for your honesty and humility, brother. As I've said several times before, true communication only occures when both parties have understood each other. Let me offer 3 comments on what you said, hopefuly to clarify: 1. The purpose of the scriptures is to reveal a Person, the Lord Jesus Christ, 2. The purpose of prophecy- whether it be Daniel, Ezekiel, or Revelation- is to reveal, "the spirit of prophecy", the Lord Jesus Christ ( Rev. 19:10) 3. Job said in 42:5, "I have heard of thee by the hearing of the ear: but now mine eye seeth thee." I would offer that the purpose of the book of Job is not to (just) explain suffering, but rather to reveal God! It answers the question of "Why do the righteous worship when they suffer". Job said he knew Him- not just about Him- but, a deep, abiding, intimate, personal relationship- for Who He really is. That's why he could say what he did. Thanks for checking out my User Profile to better aquaint yourself with where I'm coming from. Also, feel free to contribute to the Forum, though it might benefit you to follow some of the dialog and to get a better feel for what types of questions are asked and how they are answered. I appreciate you, my brother. Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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3520 | What is this "open door?" | Rev 4:1 | BradK | 156992 | ||
Hi Gary, You can just respond by clicking the "note" and posting your thoughts. Log in first, then click on the question, then go down to "Follow up on this note". Choose either "Question" or "Note". I hope this helps, BradK |
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