Results 341 - 360 of 449
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Jesusman Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
341 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31911 | ||
Hello, Yes, Proof edifies faith! It enhances, builds up, strengthens, and developes faith. Pick a definition! They all fit. Jesus asked the question that fits here. "How can you love God whom you have not seen, yet hate your brother whom you have seen?" One of the points that he was trying to make is that our belief and relationships with the provable has direct implication upon the unprovable. In simpler terms, the way we act towards what we see determines the way we act towards what we don't see. This is a point which Jesus makes time and time again in one form or another. Jesusman |
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342 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31907 | ||
Hello, Whoa, Whoa, Whoa, Whoa ... I have never said that the Niphillim are the offspring of the "sons of God" and the "Daughters of Men" marrying each other, or of Cain's line marrying into Adam's Line. I have only claimed that the Niphillim are mentioned in this passage to give a time reference. No more, no less. I said that the "Mighty men of Old" and "Men of renown" are the offspring, and that they and the Niphillim are two different groups. Get you facts straight the next time you try to quote me. Now, as for Genesis 6:4 and the existance of the Niphillim in relation to Noah's Ark. It says that they existed before the time when the "sons" and "Daughters" married, and existed after that event. It also implies that the event took place well before the time of the Flood. The story of the Flood concludes that all life on the earth, except those in the ark, died. So, the Niphillim could not have survived the flood, unless they were on the Ark. That means that Noah and his family were Niphillim, which is NOT supported anywhere in the Bible, or that the Niphillim were animals, or that they died in the flood, in which case it is a moot point. Jesusman |
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343 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31902 | ||
Hello All, Well, folks. I'm closing this thread. You can continue to discuss it if you wish, just don't expect me to reply. I have presented my interpretation, and have given support for it. Lately, I have been doing nothing but repeating myself. Also, many of the other interpretations are just getting more outrageous. On top of that, I think this has gone on long enough. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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344 | Do not conform! | 1 Pet 1:14 | Jesusman | 31379 | ||
Hello, I like the meaning for "Holy". "Hagios" in it's simplest meaning is "to be pure". It stems from cultic practices where the quality of one's worship of their deity was of supreme importance. The intension was to be so "holy" that you became divinity. I find it ironic that we, as Christians, are called not only to be Holy, but to live as Christ lived and to possess the mind that Christ possessed. Not only are we called just to be holy and pure, but to be as Holy and pure as christ is holy and pure. This even ties into the being made righteous, or sanctified, before God. In fact, "sanctified" and "Sanctuary" both have origins connected with "Hagios". There's a lot of doctrine in that little word, "hagios". Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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345 | Jesus' sisters? | Bible general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 31378 | ||
And the Catholic Church says that Mary had no other Children other than Jesus. Go figure! Jesusman |
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346 | Moses killed why was he still choosen to | Bible general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 31375 | ||
Hello, Moses didn't get off scott clean when he killed the egyptian. Remember, others found out about it. As a result, Moses had to flee for his life. Also, when you look at it from a different perspective, Moses was trying to be the savior of his people then. Instead of waiting for God's time, Moses tried to do it himself a little too early. In doing so, Moses failed, and had to wait on God anyway. As you read the burning bush passages, it is evident that there is something haunting Moses. He keep hesitating and asking questions. It's possible that his incident with the Egyptian was on his mind. Also, as you read the account of Moses leading the Israelites, there are numerous times when he took matters into his own hands, and didn't wait for God. As a result, he was denied entrance into the Promised land. So, from a certain point of view, Moses was punished for killing the Egyptian. The story of Moses shows us many things, but there is one that stands out above all others. If God was able to use Moses, then he can use any of us as well. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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347 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31373 | ||
Before I reply to this quotation, again, perhaps you should read my reply below. Jesusman |
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348 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31372 | ||
Hello Servan7, What saddens me is that my references seem to be ignored. I have provided verses upon verses, passages upon passages, and references upon references to support my findings, yet the same questions keep getting asked over and over. It appears that my words fall upon deaf ears. As for the matters of the Greek and Hebrew, I am well educated in the Hebrew and the Greek. While I am more familiar with the Greek than I am the Hebrew, the truth should be clear that I have continually been examining these passages in the Greek and the Hebrew. I have been sharing my findings with the forum this whole time. Perhaps you should review the thread, and reread the information I have been providing On another matter, I have done nothing but to let the Scripture speak for itself. I have not "read into" the passage anything which was not already there. In truth, I have been trying to pull the meaning out of the text so that it would be made clear. This is called: exegesis. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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349 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31371 | ||
Hello, Are you referring to Job 1:6? If so, then I agree that it means that what was previously stated is about to be expanded. Now, what was previously stated? Job 1:4-5 talks about Job performing feasts and festivals dedicated to God inorder to consecrate his sons. At the end of verse 5 it says, "Thus Job did continually." Now, concidering that, and that it is listed twice that the "Sons of God" were presented before God, wouldn't that be supportive of what I have said all along? That Job 1:6 and 2:1 are both talking about a time of humans worshipping God? It seems so. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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350 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31370 | ||
Hello Hank, I am all for closing this thread. In fact, it has gotten to the point where I am just repeating myself over an over, and yet my original point still has been forgotten or overlooked. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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351 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31369 | ||
Hello, Actually, I have presented the answer to this question. I have given an enormous amount of support for the answer I gave. The problem is that people continue to deny it, even though they cannot answer my question in return. Besides, you asked if this has any bearing upon the deity of Christ. I say that Yes it does. In my original post, I stated that by the Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 being the lineage of Seth, then it fulfills the messianic Prophecy made in Genesis 3, establishes the Line that will ultimately bring the Promised Messiah who will bruise the head of the Serpent, and establishes the line in which we, as adopted Children of God, are now members of. By the Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 being the Line of Seth, it points directly to the Christ and to us. So far, no one has brought that point up, nor has anyone asked me about that. My whole original post was to show how Genesis 6:1-4 points to Christ, yet it seems that no one is interested in that. Amazing! Jesusman |
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352 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31368 | ||
Hello, The main problem that I see with "Sons of God" referring to Angels is that this passage would be the one, and only time that this phrase is used to mean angels. On top of that, you have passages in the New Testament in which the Greek clearly is saying something other than what everybody is wanting it to say. Take Jude 5-7 for example. I have shown through an analysis of the Greek that verse seven is not talking about the cities in relation to the actions of the angels in verse 6, but the cities in relation to the actions of Sodom and Gamorrah, which are listed in verse 7. Also, all that Peter says is that the angels left their natural domain. He says nothing that even hints to idea that angels had relations with humans. Then you have the question in Hebrews 1:5 that asks, "to which of the angels has HE said, you are my son, today I have begotten thee?" Then you have the numerous times where human believers, either Israel or Christians, and Jesus Christ are all called the "Sons of God". I have dismissed the passages in Job chapters 1 and 2 because of the question of what the original text says. Some manuscripts have "angels of God" and others have "Sons of God". This variation makes Job's passages unreliable in this discussion. Even further, there is the context of Genesis 1 - 19. Up until the destuction of Sodom and Gamorrah in Genesis 19, the only angelic creature referred to is the Cherubim with the flaming sword. To talk about angels for a length of 4 verses without calling them angels, then to refer to them by name again 12 chapters later adds confusion. Also, Genesis 2-3 talks about God and Man. Genesis 4-5 talks about the growth of Man, specifically Cain and Seth. With these two chapters you have names that appear in both lines. Then from Genesis 6:5- chapter 10 you have Noah's Ark. Now, to refer to angels in Genesis 6:1-4 makes me ask the questions, "where did the angels come from, and Why weren't they talked about before?" Remember the duplication of Names I mentioned, how do you resolve that if Genesis 6:1-4 refers to angels marrying humans? The only solution which solves these problems is that the Sons of God refers to Seth's line, the Daughters of Men refers to Cain's line, and Genesis 6:1-4 talks about when the two lines intermarried. It is the only way that it all makes sense. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman "God is not a God of confusion but of peace," 1 Corinthians 14:33. |
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353 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31365 | ||
Hello, No, "sons of God" would be a literal translation. "Heavenly Bodies" is a matter of interpretation. This also goes into the area of syntax and textual critisicm, of which I admit for not being entirely familiar with in the Hebrew. While I am familiar with Hebrew grammer, the areas of Hebrew Syntax and Hebrew Textual Critisicm are areas where I need to do more research. I have heard the argument that "heavenly bodies" would be acceptable in Genesis 6, but this is primarily based upon similar usage in Job 1 and 2, which I shown to be questionable in certain ways. Besides all of this, the foundational question remains unanswerable: where does it clearly say in the Bible that Angels are identified as the Sons of God? On top of that, all of the verses provided thus far to support that angels had relations with humans has been given an entirely different interpretation, one that seems to fit closer with the context. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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354 | Jesus' sisters? | Bible general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 31363 | ||
Hello, The Bible doesn't list their names. All that is mentioned is that he had sisters. As for his brothers, the epistles of James and Jude are believed to have been written by his brothers rather than the two apostles by the same name. You might have to turn to some early church historical writings to find the answer. However, I don't know of which ones will have it. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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355 | Discussion of Heb 2:9 and I John 2:2 | Heb 2:9 | Jesusman | 31131 | ||
Hello, I have long given up in trying to understand the thinking of Calvinism. While I agree with parts of it, I find it difficult to accept Calvinism fully. From the reading of the two verses, It sounds like you are questioning the Calvinistic belief that Christ died for the elect only. Correct? I have argued this over and over with many Calvinists, and the reply I recieve is always the same. I personally believe that Christ died for the Sins of every person. He had to, or else his job would've been only half completed, and death would not have been fully conquired. Also, in Revelation 20, you have the scene before God, where the final judgement takes place. It is recorded that all people are there before God. In another passage (I don't remember where), it says that God cannot be in the presence of Sin. Now, how can God and every person who has ever lived be in the same place at the same time, especially in heaven? The only answer I have been able to find is that Jesus died and paid for the sins of every person, and that we are responsible for accepting that payment. If not, we pay for it ourselves with our souls. I am not saying that every person is saved, but that the overall debt to sin was paid for on the Cross, and it then becomes a matter of whether you'll accept this payment, or pay the debt on your own. I attempt to back this up with passages that refer to Christ dying for all of mankind, like John 3, these that you have listed, and others. Now, for the Calvinist response I keep getting. As for the term "everyone", "whole world", "mankind", and etc, they'll tell me that it is a generalization. It doesn't mean every single individual. Christ died for mankind as a whole, not for every individual in mankind. Such is the case for these verses. An example that some have used to clarify this is talking about a person who travels a lot. Sometimes we will talk about that person and say something like, "He has been all over the World ...". Now, has this gentleman stepped onto every single square inch that is upon the globe, or has he been to a lot of places around the world? So, that is the answer I keep getting. I still disagree with it, but I keep getting it. I hope this helps. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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356 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31129 | ||
Hello Tim, Given the context, and given the nature of the greek language, and many other factors, I'm sure you won't mind at all if I believe that "toutois" refers to Sodom and Gamorrah. For some strange reason, that seems like the strongest possibility. :-) Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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357 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31122 | ||
Hello, I did view you post correctly. The context of Genesis 6:1-4 takes place prior, if not around the same time as Noah. Besides, there was a long time between Noah getting the command to build the ark and the time that the flood came. That also needs to be taken into concideration as well. As for "heavenly bodies", the passage doesn't say that. It says "sons of God". The question is "Who are the 'sons of God'?" As I have continuously pointed out during this thread, the sons of God are first the Lineage of Seth, and, in a larger sense, the messianic line. Feel free to disagree with me. However, the point still remains, upon careful research, angels cannot be the Sons of God in Genesis 6. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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358 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Jesusman | 31121 | ||
Hello, Not implying to be rude, but What left field did this come from? Your references are taken out of context. Matthew 24:37 The context is that the people before the flood were acting in the normal manner. They were eating and drinking. They were marrying and so forth. Everything was going normally, then Whammo! Noah and his family got in the Ark and The flood came. It is not implying anything closely related to angels taking them as mates. 1 Corinthians 11:10. Again, taking things out of context. The idea being presented is that Just as the angels came from God, so did Woman come from man. As a result, her hair is a symbol of the fact that she same from man, and that her hair should not be shaved off, nor should she go around with her head uncovered. Now, while this is a cultural symbol, it does have meaning for us today. A woman who had her head covered was viewed as an upstanding woman, a woman of good character. This can be applied to us today. Women today don't necessarily need to cover their heads, but they do need to act as Christian Women should act. This is what Paul was trying to say in this passage. He wasn't saying anything about angels doing the nasty with humans. As for the passages in Revelation 12, this is talking about what will happen to Satan and his demons. On that note, The reason why they are to be punished is that they left heaven and rebelled against God. There is no verse that says that angels had sexually immoral relations with humans. All that is ever said about disobedient angels is that they left their natural domain. As for Satan, in one place, it says that he attempted to overthrow God and take charge. As a result, he was cast out of heaven along with those who followed him. Jesus also said, "When he puts forth all his own, he goes before them, and the sheep follow him because they know his voice," and "I am the Good shepherd; and I know my own and My own know me." I wish for there to be more who would properly read and study the Bible and stop taking things out of context. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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359 | Free will in heaven? | Bible general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 31119 | ||
Hello, These are some interesting questions you have presented. let's take a look at them. 1) Why do we have to live here on earth before we can be in heaven? Why doesn't God just create people in heaven. The answer is obvious. God cannot be in the presence of sin. As a result of Man's sinful nature, God and man cannot be in direct contact with each other. Therefore, a mediator was needed. From there, we have Jesus Christ being sent. Through his death, burial, and resurrection, and through our faith in him, we are made righteous and sinless before God. After this has taken place, and after God's will for us is concluded, we are brought to heaven to be with Him. So, in a sense, our life on earth is a trial and cleansing period for us. 2) Why does God allow evil and suffering to exist and why must we endure it? Why is metal heated in fire before being shaped and molded? Why is a clay jar cooked in a hot oven before it is concidered complete? The prophets often used metal work and pottery to describe God's work in our lives. I believe they had a good reason for doing so. In order for metal to be made into what is needed, it first must be heated and melted. In a heated state, it can be forged into any shape the worker desires. As for Pottery, a clay jar, before being cooked in a kiln, cannot hold it's shape under great pressure. The cooking part enables for the clay to be hardened to the point where it can withstand great pressure. The same is true for Christians. By permitting suffering and evil, God is molding us and shaping us for his needs. Some time, the evil and suffering happening to us maybe as simple as a test, as in the case with Job. The point is that God utilizes many things in order to shape us and mold us into what he desires. 3) If the answer is "Because we chose to disobey God", then why can't that possibility also exist in heaven? Disobedience, or sin, and God both cannot be in the presence of each other, as explained above. I hope this answers your questions. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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360 | New Testament Anti-Semitic? | Bible general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 31117 | ||
I'm not positive about whether or not this would be useful in an apologetic setting, but I'll present it anyway. The history of the Church is filled with many who have stood up in the name of the Church, yet acted entirely opposite from what the Scriptures actually teach. The Scripture doesn't teach that we, Christians, are to be anti-semitic. It teaches that we are to love our neighbors and our enemies. It teaches that there are two types of people in the world: those who believe in Jesus Christ and His saving work, and those who reject Jesus Christ and his saving work. The Bible teaches that all of mankind, no matter what the indiviual cultural setting maybe, fits into one of these two groups. The Bible teaches that Jesus Christ did not have the intention to destroy the Jewish way of life or to start a new belief system, but to bring the old one to it's completed state. Now, with that in mind, does the New Testament teach anti-semiticism and racism? No! It teaches the exact opposite. Let's not let a few idiots in History cloud what the Bible actually teaches. Let's let the Bible speak for itself. We will be amazed at what will be revealed to us. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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