Results 21 - 40 of 80
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: stokeyhk Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55729 | ||
The teaching that Michael, the archangel is Jesus Christ before he came to earth and since his return to heaven is not exclusive to Jehovah's Witnesses. The name of Michael is found in Daniel 10:13, 21; 12:1; Jude 9; Revelation 12:7. The term "the archangel" is found in 1 Thessalonians 4:16 (NIV) and Jude 9. Daniel 10:13 says: "Michael, one of the chief princes." Daniel 10:21 says: "Michael, your [Daniel's] prince." Daniel 12:1 says: "Michael, the great prince who protects your [Daniel's] people." Jude 9 says: "Michael the archangel." Revelation 12:7 says: "Michael and his angels." Michael means "Who is like God?" This points to the fact that Jehovah God is without like, or equal, and that Michael is the one who takes the lead in upholding Jehovah's sovereignty and destroying God's enemies. At 1 Thessalonians 4:16 (NIV), the command of Jesus for the resurrection to begin is described as "the voice of the archangel," and Jude 9 says the archangel is Michael. If the designation "archangel" applied, not to Jesus, but to other angels, then the reference to "the voice of the archangel" would be describing a voice of lesser authority than that of the Son of God. Notice the term is never plural in the Bible, thus implying that there is only one: "THE archangel." Revelation 12:7-12 describes "Michael and his angels" defeating Satan and his angels in connection with kingly authority being conferred on Christ. (2 Thessalonians 1:7) Jesus is the one who leads the armies in heaven to destroy the nations of the world. Jesus is the one who will 'crush Satan's head' also. (Genesis 3:15; Galatians 3:16) Daniel 12:1 associates the 'standing up of Michael' to act with authority with an unprecedented "time of distress" during "the time of the end." (Daniel 11:2-4, 7, 16b, 20, 21, 40) This fits the experience of the nations in Revelation 19:11-16 and Matthew 24:21. So the evidence indicates that the Son of God was known as Michael before he came to the earth and is known also by that name since his return to heaven where he resides as the glorified spirit Son of God. Stokey. |
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22 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55711 | ||
1) Reuben was "the firstborn of" Jacob's children. So still part of the group. Yes, the word "for" gives the reason for the statement "the firstborn of all creation." Why can we say Jesus is the firstborn? Because all other creation came after and "through" him. (Colossians 1:16) The word "through" shows that Jesus is not the Source. As for Genesis 1:1, "the heavens" were not the first creation of God. (Revelation 3:14) Proverbs 8:27 says: "When he prepared the heavens, I was there." Genesis 1:26 says: "God said, Let us MAKE man in our image." (Colossians 1:15a) Verse 27, however, says: "God CREATED man." Jesus agreed with this in Matthew 19:4. 2) Strong's nos. 2304, 2305, 2320. 3) Genuine Christians are "in God," too. 4) Yes, Philippians 2:6 does not harmonize with humility! Being "equal with God" is not the same as 'being God.' The Navajo translation of the Bible was published in 1985, after 41 years of work! "Jehovah" appears in the Navajo Bible in Psalm 68:4. The brochure: "Enjoy Life on Earth Forever" was released in the Navajo language by Jehovah's Witnesses in 1995. Say "Hello!" to the local brothers in the Kingdom Halls in the Navajo and Hopi resevations. Stokey. |
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23 | Why do you wait? | Phil 3:20 | stokeyhk | 55708 | ||
Of course time corrects us! The Bible says that's how we learn! (See Proverbs 11:3; Luke 21:29-31) Did the Watchtower Society tell them to sell everything? So, Are you saying we shouldn't preach "this gospel of the kingdom"? (Matthew 24:14) Are you saying we shouldn't proclaim "the day of vengeance"? (Isaiah 61:2) The Society doesn't claim to be an "infallible" interpreter of Scripture. "Lied to its followers time and time again" is quite an accusation. You're accusing them of being serial liars and providing no examples. Shame on you! Were you ever baptized as one of Jehovah's Witnesses? Stokey |
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24 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55705 | ||
You're accusing me of making a doctrine out of one scripture. There are hundreds. You say "John 17:3 must be examined in the totality of scripture." Yet, that is not what you are doing. You are examining it in the selective use of scripture. You say: "Jesus is called God in John 1:1, 14; 8:58; Col. 2:9; Heb 1:8." However, this is true according to the KJV only in John 1:1 and Hebrews 1:8. John 1:18 says: "No one has seen God at any time." Moffat says the Word "was divine." (John 1:1) Hebrews 1:9 says: "God, Your God." RS translates this as: "You divine throne." (Psalm 45:6, addressed to God's king.) Jude 4, KJV, "Denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ." Mark 10:18. You say this means "Jesus is not good," not Jehovah's Witnesses! Again you say, "according to Witness logic.' The Bible does not tell us that Jehovah is the only savior. (Nehemiah 9:27; Isaiah 19:20; Acts 13:23; Titus 1:3, 4; Jude 25, NIV) Moses, Elijah, Elisha, Jesus and some of his disciples performed miracles. John 1:3 and Colossians 1:16-17 show that God created all things "through" Jesus. Jesus is not the Source. You sound like you are just repeating what you have heard. If you don't trust Watchtower publications, use a concordance and a variety of older translations as well, preferably an interlinear. Do you believe everything "www.carm.org" tells you? Stokey. |
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25 | Who is Jesus Christ? | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55697 | ||
Does everyone else in the forum agree that "OT scripture clearly teaches that there is but one God, Jehovah"? So, does this mean you don't believe the Trinity is taught in the OT? Isaiah 43:11: "I-I am Jehovah, and beside me there is no savior." Consider the context. Verse 3: "I am Jehovah you God, the Holy One of Israel your Savior." Verse 5-7: "Bring my sons from far off, and my daughters from the extremity of the earth, everyone that is called by my name." Verse 9: "Let national groups be gathered together. Who is there among them that can tell this? Or can they cause us to hear even the first things? Let them furnish their witnesses." Verse 10: "'You [Israel] are my witnesses,' is the utterance of Jehovah." So no salvation was to be found for Israel from any of these "national groups." Judges 3:9 says: "The LORD [Jehovah] raised up a saviour to the children of Israel, who delivered them, even Othniel." Isaiah 19:20: "[The LORD (Jehovah)] shall send them a saviour, a great one." Nehemiah 9:27: "[Jehovah] gavest them saviours, who saved them." From these it can be seen that Jehovah is the Source of true salvation, and he does so by raising up individual saviours. Were these individuals God? Was Othniel God? Of course not! Now let's turn to Titus. But before we do, let's see it in the light of Jude 25, NIV, which says: "To the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord." So God saves by raising up Jesus. (John 3:16) Yes, both Jehovah and Jesus are saviors, just as Jehovah and Othniel were saviors. This agrees with Acts 13:23: "God raised up for Israel a Savior-Jesus." So, in the context of Isaiah 43, God was the only Source of salvation for Israel. That has always remained true. There is no other Source of salvation. From what source did the savior Jesus come? Acts 13:23 makes it clear. So when we get the complete picture form the scriptures, its not "inexplicable." By the way, just in case someone wants to equate Jehovah with Jesus using Titus 2:13, the Greek reads "of savior" and the New American Bible, for example, correctly translates it as "of the great God and of our Savior Christ Jesus." Stokey. |
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26 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55696 | ||
1) Yes, "Beginning" in Revelation 3:14 is "arche." Yes, Strong is right! It means "beginning." Your 2nd quote contradicts your statement: 'not the first in a sequence.' 2) "Godhead" in Webster's means "divine nature or essence: DIVINITY." "Godhood" means the same. See Strong's nos. 2304, 2305, 2320. 5) Mss. A, B, C, L. Stokey. |
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27 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | stokeyhk | 55695 | ||
What are you talking about, Steve? John 10:29: "My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all." You forgot to mention verses 34-36: "I am the Son of God"! What about John 17:20-22? "They may be one just as We are one." Stokey. |
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28 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55635 | ||
Running out of space. "Only-begotten." John 1:18: "No one has seen God at any time." God "gave his only-begotten Son." (John 3:16) 'God sent his Son into the world.' (John 3:17) Not Mary's "only-begotten Son" but God's. He was such before he was sent into the world, yes all the time he was "in the bosom position with the Father." Jesus "has always been." Shouldn't it be: Jesus has "before Abraham" been? (John 8:57) A question for you: If Jesus is "God the Son," why did he call his Father "the only true God"? (John 17:1-3) Stokey. |
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29 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55632 | ||
1) Colossians 1:15. The NKJV reads in part: "The firstborn over all creation." The KJV reads: "The firstborn of every creature." Notice the expression "the firstborn of." Here we're not concerned with "firstborn" by itself. (Hebrews 12:16) Rather its "the firstborn of." Each time this expression appears in the Bible before here, it refers to part of the group when speaking of living creatures. E.g. "the firstborn of Pharaoh," is one of Pharaoh's family, and "the firstborn of beasts," are themselves animals. (Exodus 11:5) So, everywhere else, "the firstborn of" is part of the group! To translate the Greek as "the firstborn over" changes it to a place of preeminence or authority. So, the question is: Does the Greek say "the firstborn over" or "the firstborn of"? Well, "the firstborn over" contradicts Revelation 3:14, NKJV, where Jesus himself says that he is "the Beginning of the creation of God." Whereas "the firstborn of" agrees with it and the Greek! 2) Notice the context: Verse 3: "We give thanks to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ." No equality there! Verse 16: "In him" (Int.) not "by him." Have you compared the translation of the Greek "panta" in Luke 13:2, NKJV? It translates it as "all [other]." Colossians 2:3 says: "In whom [Jesus] are hidden all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge." What's the point of saying this? Verses 4 and 8 answer: "Lest anyone should deceive you." "Lest anyone cheat you through philosophy and empty deception . . . not according to Christ." So Jesus possesses superior "wisdom and knowledge" as verse 9 shows: "For in him dwells all the fullness [put there by the Father, Colossians 1:19]." "All the fullness" of what? Verse 3 mentions "wisdom and knowledge." Verse 9, NKJV its "the Godhead." "The divinity." (Int.) "The Deity." (NIV) "The fulness of God's nature." (Weymouth) "The perfection of God."(LB) This word "Godhead" is mentioned three times in the KJV: (a) Acts 17:29; (b) Romans 1:20; (c) Colossians 2:9. Strong's says (a) means: "godlike (neut. as noun, divinity)." This indicates a quality in the neuter tense; (b) means: "divinity (abstract)"; (c) means: "divinity (abstract)." We can see it doesn't mean "God." Rather its abstract; a divine quality; spiritual qualities. This agrees with "all the treasures of [godly] wisdom and knowledge" and is in contrast with 'human philosophy and tradition.' 3) Colossians 3:1 says: "If then you were raised with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ is, sitting at the right hand of God." The "things above" are spiritual. Christ is not God himself, but "sitting at the right hand of God." 4) Philippians 2:6. The NKJV rendering does not harmonize with humility and unselfishness, rather the opposite. (Genesis 3:5) The New Jerusalem Bible says: Who, being in the form of God, did not count equality with God something to be grasped." What does the Greek word rendered "robbery" mean? Strong's says: "to seize." Lit. "snatching." It would be totally inappropriate for a sinful human to have the "selfish ambition" of being equal to God. Even Jesus, in the position of God's firstborn Son and in God's form, not a slave's form, still didn't have the "selfish ambition" of being equal with God. This would be a greater display of humility because a son is greater than "a slave"! 5) Romans 9:5. The question is, Why do some translations contain a period after "according to the flesh, Christ came" or "from Christ, as a human being, belongs to their race." Is it primarily to show whether Jesus is God or not? Well, consider the context and the Greek? Romans 15:6 records Paul as saying we should "glorify the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ." So that would mean Paul was contradicting himself, wouldn't it, if he meant to teach Jesus was God? The Authorship of the Fourth Gospel and Other Critical Essays says "[the (thing) according to flesh] in reading must be followed by a pause,-a pause which is lengthened by the special emphasis given to the [according to flesh] by the [the (thing)]." He says the preceding sentence is complete. Further he says the recounting of all the blessings given to the Israelites-"the adoption, the glory, the covenants, the giving of the Law, the service [of God], and the promises . . . the fathers and . . . the Christ"-"naturally suggests an ascription of praise and thanksgiving to God as the Being who rules over all; while a doxology is also suggested by the [Amen]." He says all the oldest manuscripts of this verse contain a period after "flesh." Then verses 6-24 point to God's authority, his being "over all." Stokey. |
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30 | What's Jesus' position? | 1 Cor 15:27 | stokeyhk | 55623 | ||
What is Jesus' position in relation to the Father? | ||||||
31 | Would this rule out worshiping Jesus? | John 5:41 | stokeyhk | 55622 | ||
Would this rule out humans worshiping Jesus? | ||||||
32 | Why do you wait? | Phil 3:20 | stokeyhk | 55621 | ||
I didn't say the Watchtower has taught this since 1876. The first Watchtower was issued July, 1879. I said: "Jehovah's Witnesses have recognized 1914 as the end of 'the times of the Gentiles' since 1876." This was in an article printed in the October 1876 issue of the Bible Examiner. Maybe I should have said the Bible Students, who adopted the name Jehovah's Witnesses in 1931, have taught this. Yes, Jehovah's Witnesses were mistaken in their expectations about 1914, 1925 and 1975. The Bible says: "No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father." (Mark 13:32) What's worse is when a person realizes his mistakes, but refuses to correct them! I don't think the organization of Jehovah's Witnesses has ever claimed to be "infallible." (Acts 1:6, 7; Luke 19:11; Daniel 12:8; 1 Corinthians 13:12) Stokey. |
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33 | Why do you wait? | Phil 3:20 | stokeyhk | 55617 | ||
Its interesting that the Amplified Bible inserts "tasting" into the verse. TEV inserts "eat." Jehovah's Witnesses "take it literally," too. You're right, "abstain from blood means abstain from blood." So, do you admire this aspect of our doctrine? Naturally to believe it intellectually is one thing, but to do it is quite another! Acts 5:29, 32 says: "'We must obey God as ruler rather than men." 'God gives his holy spirit to those obeying him as ruler.' James 1:22 says: "Do not merely listen to the word, and so deceive yourselves. Do what it says." Stokey. |
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34 | Why do you wait? | Phil 3:20 | stokeyhk | 55531 | ||
Like you said, only Jehovah's Witnesses believe Jesus' return was in 1914. There are some religious groups who have an afinity for 1914, but have different understandings. Not only Jehovah's Witnesses recognized 1914 as the end of "the times of the Gentiles" as mentioned in Luke 21:24, KJV. There were a number of clergymen in the 19th century who did so, and others. As you may know, we have taught this since 1876. Many people believe we're living in the "last days." (2 Timothy 3:1-5) World events clearly show this. It all depends on whether we're willing to consider a different viewpoint. So, I believe Jesus' invisible return was in 1914 because it has "Scriptural support." I agree with their explanation, too. Further, Jehovah's Witnesses didn't have the New World Translation before 1950. You have to admire their worldwide peace and unity, though, don't you? Will you answer my question regarding Acts 15:28, 29? Stokey. |
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35 | Why do you wait? | Phil 3:20 | stokeyhk | 55514 | ||
Do you believe that Jesus' invisible return was about 1914? Or, Do you disbelieve it because Jehovah's Witnesses say this? As one of Jehovah's Witnesses, I would like you to tell me how you understand Acts 15:28, 29 which says: "It seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us not to burden you with anything beyond the following requirements: You are to abstain from . . . blood . . . and from sexual immorality." (NIV) Stokey. |
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36 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55513 | ||
Dear all: 1) Philippians 2:6, KJV, taken by itself, and according to this translation of the Greek, it would appear that Jesus considered it appropriate to be equal to God. However, consider the context first. (Philippians 2:3-11) a) Philippians 2:3-5 says: "In humility consider others better than yourselves. Each of you should look not only to your own interests, but also to the interests of others." (NIV) So, we should be humble and unselfish. Then Paul says: "Let this mind be in you." What mind or attitude? One of humility and unselfishness! Then he says: "Which was also in Christ Jesus." So what was Jesus' mind or attitude? One of humility and unselfishness. So in verse 6, would you say Jesus not 'thinking it robbery to be equal to the Most High God' is an example of humility and unselfishness? Of course not! It would completely undermine Paul's persuasive argument and convince no one. Then verse 7 says: "[Jesus] made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men." This is genuine humility and unselfishness! Then verse 8 says: "He humbled himself, and became obedient unto death." Even a humiliating death. Then verse 9 says: "God also hath highly exalted him." So rather than proudly and selfishly exalting himself, Jesus was exalted by God. Finally, verse 11 shows how it was all for "the glory of God the Father." Not Jesus' own glory. b) Notice the NIV translation of verse 6: "[Christ Jesus] did not consider equality with God something to be grasped." 2) Romans 9:5 says: "Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen." (KJV) Notice these translations: a) "Theirs too (so far as natural descent goes) is the Christ. (Blessed for evermore be the God who is over all! Amen.)" (Moffat) b) "And of their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ. God is over all be blessed for ever. Amen." (RSV) c) "From them, in natural descent, sprang the Messiah. May God, supreme over all, be blessed for ever! Amen." (NEB) d) "Christ, as a human being, belongs to their race. May God, who rules over all, be praised for ever! Amen." (TEV) e) "From them came the Messiah (I speak of his human origins). Blessed forever be God who is over all! Amen." (NAB) Seems like Paul is saying God is over Jesus, too! That he is blessing God for having made all these provisions, including the Messiah. 3) "First born points to eternal preexistence." Why? He says: "We must carefully avoid any suggestion that Christ was the first of created things." Bias or sincerity? Strong's says firstborn is derived from: protos; foremost (in time, place, order or importance); and tikto; "to produce." Colossians 1:15: "The firstborn of every creature." A word is known by the company it keeps. Notice that this is in the passive tense. E.g.: i) He created all things. (Active) ii) In him all things were created. (Passive) iii) He lifted his leg. (Active) iv) In a sling his leg was lifted. (Passive) Jesus here is the instrumentality that God used to create all things. Ephesians 3:9 clearly says: "God, who created all things." (Active) Revelation 4:11 says: "[God] created all things." (Active) Colossians 1:18 says: "[Jesus is] the firstborn from the dead." The first resurrected from the dead? No. (1 Kings 17:22) The first to be resurrected to eternal, heavenly life? Yes. (John 3:13; Acts 2:34) So, yes, Jesus does have "the preeminence" in all things. 4) Romans 1:4. Strong's says "horizo" means "to mark out or bound ("horizon"), i.e. (fig.) to appoint, decree, specify:-declare, determine, limit, ordain." The question is, How many translators use "appoint" in Romans 1:4? 5) As far as the long list of scriptures you cited, Makarios, I'll quote McClintock and Strong's Cyclopedia which advocates the Trinity doctrine but acknowledges regarding Matthew 28:18-20, and the same reasoning could be used for the others, that this text: "Taken by itself, would not prove decisively either the personality of the three subjects mentioned, or their equality or divinity." What do you think about 1 Timothy 5:21, which says: "I charge thee before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, and the elect angels"? Would this indicate a Trinity? Or, Do we have four now? 6) "Only-begotten" means "single of its kind." Jesus is "the single of its kind" as regards being a son of God: God "gave his only-begotten Son." This word comes from Greek words that mean "sole" "single" and "cause to be." So, again Jesus was "born" or "begotten." Colossians 1:16 shows how Jesus can be "firstborn" and "only-begotten." "All other things were created" using Jesus as an agency or instrumentality. Jesus was created by God alone as "the first of his works." (Proverbs 8:22) Hence Jesus was created by God alone, using no instrumentality, being of a "single" kind among God's sons. (Job 1:6; 38:7) Stokey. |
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37 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55255 | ||
Doesn't the term "firstborn" refer to both position and chronology? Colossians 1:15, 16 says Christ is "the Firstborn and Lord of all creation. For in Him was created the universe of things in heaven and on earth . . . all were created, and exist, through and for him." (Weymouth, capitalizations are his.) This agrees with 1 Corinthians 8:6 which says: "For us there is but one God, the Father, FROM whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, THROUGH [again an intermediary] whom all things came and through whom we live." (Capitalizations are for emphasis only.) Further, 1 Corinthians 11:3, 27 say: "The head of the Christ is God" and "for he 'has put everything under his feet.' Now when it says that 'everything' has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ." Is this clear to us? Interestingly, Colossians 1:18 says he is "the Firstborn from among the dead." Again position and chronology! This agrees with John 1:1-3. Verse 3 says: "Through him all things were made." "Through" indicates intermediacy. Revelation 19:13 calls Jesus "The Word of God." (KJV, capitalization KJV.) John 1:18 says: "No man hath seen God at any time." John 1:1 in the Greek clearly distinguishes between the two Gods mentioned by saying Jesus was "with the God." You say "APPOINTED" is "a more precise translation of Romans 1:4." Note the following translations: 1) NIV says: "Declared." 2) Weymouth says: "Decisively proved." 3) KJV says: "Declared," or "determined." 4) TCNT says: "Miraculously proved." 5) The Century Bible says: "Declared: Gr. 'determined.'" Is "to claim otherwise" outside the bounds of the Bible, though? Hebrews 1:8-12 does not prove that Jesus "is, has been, and always will be the one true God." Hebrews 1:9 says: "Thy God." That is Jesus' God! Further, John 17:1-3 shows that Jesus said his Father is "the only true God." How many persons did Isaiah see? Isaiah 6:8 records God as saying: "Who will go for us?" So, he saw God's glory and Jesus' glory. Yes, most of 'the sons' are in italics. So, Does this mean that Seth was not the son of Adam? Does this mean that Adam was not the son of God? Is this what Luke was saying? In Matthew 28:18, if "authority has been given," then Jesus didn't have it before. Hence, he could not be the equal of God, could he? Yes, as Hebrews 5:8 shows, Jesus served God. However, God Almighty doesn't serve anyone! Capitals are added by the translator's feelings and views. Jesus was transferred to Mary's womb. He did not inherit sin from Adam, so doesn't come within the scope of Hebrews 9:27, which, incidently, is primarily referring to Jewish high priests under the Law. The Bible (KJV) uses the terms: 1) "Firstborn" in Colossians 1:15. 2) "Born" in Luke 1:35. 3) "Firstborn" in Colossians 1:18. All are "born," so why not "births"? Acts 24:5 calls Jesus' followers: "The Nazarene heretics." (TCNT) I suppose it was a heresy from apostate Jewish worship. But remember what Jesus said: "You nullify the word of God for the sake of your tradition." (Matthew 15:6) Clearly, the Trinity is not a BIBLE teaching! (Capitalizations are for emphasis!) Stokey. |
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38 | Why do you wait? | Phil 3:20 | stokeyhk | 55251 | ||
That's what the Bible indicates. Matthew 24:14, 36-44 shows why we wait. Stokey. |
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39 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55088 | ||
The Bible clearly shows "Jesus is a created spirit-being." He didn't 'take on the appearance of man' but was actually a human son of God the same as Adam. (1 Corinthians 15:45) Jesus then received "all authority in heaven and on earth" as given to him by God. (Matthew 28:18) Hebrews 5:8 shows he was obedient to God, for example. Stokey. |
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40 | Do you yet say that Jesus was just a man | John 9:24 | stokeyhk | 55074 | ||
I believe Jesus was born three times: 1) Colossians 1:15; Revelation 3:14: "The firstborn of every creature." "The beginning of the creation of God." (KJV) 2) Luke 1:35: "That holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God." (KJV) 3) Jesus was "declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by resurrection from the dead." (Romans 1:4, KJV) In the first stage of Jesus' life he was a spirit son of God. In the second stage he was a human son of God. Now, in the final and eternal stage, he is again a "life-giving spirit." However, he now has greater authority. (See Matthew 28:18; Philippians 2:9-11; 1 Peter 3:22) 1 Corinthians 11:3 says: "The head of Christ is God." So as Ephesians 1:2, 3, 17 show "God our Father" is the "God of our Lord Jesus Christ." So, I believe God is the Almighty Father, "the most high," Jesus is God's firstborn Son, a "mighty God" but subject to God, yet at God's right hand, hence having the second highest position. (Exodus 6:3; Psalm 83:18; Isaiah 9:6, 7; Philippians 2:11, KJV) Stokeyhk. |
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