Results 21 - 40 of 89
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: meta Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Can someone explain God's favor to me? | Bible general Archive 4 | meta | 233495 | ||
You have received some helpful and insightfu answers. I would like to clarify a couple of points. First, a calling does imply that it is from God and for a specific purpose. It cannot be limited to what many people believe ministry is. The term to minister means to serve. It does not mean only or specifically in the capacity of pastor, teacher, deacon or any other church affiliated function. That is unless you greatly broaden the use of the term church. God calls people as artists, He also provides a grace for them to function in that role. In this instance Grace can be described as a power working within us lifting us from death (and everything leading to death) into Life (and everything that leads to spiritual Life). It can also mean an ablility from God or even favor that causes divine influence on circumstances to yield to your presence and purpose. He may call somone into nursing or agriculture. Anyone can develop skills but one who is called has the added grace to develop those skills and will therefore stand out and make a difference spiritually as well. In this case He provides grace. The bible mentions a number of kinds of grace. Abundance of grace Rom 5:17, Abundant grace Acts 4:33. The bible speaks of being full of grace John 1:14 and Acts 6:8. It also speaks of grace upon grace John 1:16. It seems there are a number of different things grace can be or do. God did not however give grace to pharoah. The scripture says He hardened pharoa's heart (that is an entire study in itself). He did not give grace to Judas. This goes against basic preschooler theology God good, Devil bad. John 1:15 states that God is light and there is no darkness in Him. James 1:13 states Let no one say when he is tempted, “ I am being tempted by God”; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone. |
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22 | Did Jesus heal everyone? | 2 Cor 12:9 | meta | 233282 | ||
Thank you | ||||||
23 | Did Jesus heal everyone? | 2 Cor 12:9 | meta | 233281 | ||
Thank you John for trying to answer my question. My question was did Jesus turn any one away? I should have been more clear. I was aking if Jesus Christ turned any one away that was seeking healing while He was on earth. I apologise for that. Your second statement takes a bit of a leap to presume what I was getting at. I was asking a question without implying that Paul or anyone else should jsut believe or heal everyone. If that were true it would leave a lot of people hurting. While we are on the subject though Do you have a lot of understanding about what the thorn was? We know that it was "a messenger from Satan to torment me" Paul implored The Lord "that it might leave me" There is weakness, insults distresses,persecutions difficulties mentioned, but not sickness. I am not implying that it was definitely not a sickness only that the scriptures are not stating that it is. So I still have questions. |
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24 | IS DIV | Matt 19:9 | meta | 233252 | ||
The short answer is NO. There is no scriptural basis for a man leaving His wife withjout the cause of adultry. However it is difficult to answer this question without knowing if the husband is a Christian. Is the wife a Christian and who is asking the question here; The husband, the wife or a third party. That does not change Jesus view or the scriptural instruction. It does change how I would respond to the question though. | ||||||
25 | Knowing the Word | Jer 8:7 | meta | 233248 | ||
Mathew actually does not say we are to anything. It says man "does not live by bread alone" It does not say we "are to” it says "we do". You may not think that this is significant either but we are to let sola scriptura be our guide and not your or my preferences. We cannot live without drawing conclusions from scripture. You are drawing a conclusion when you say that "every word that proceeds out of the mouth of God" must refer to scripture. You then state the reason for this as being "because the only words God has given us to live by are contained in Scripture" that very reason is a violation of sola scripture. The scriptures prove this to be wrong in fact because it was Jesus who spoke and He spoke in present tense to a specific group of people. The scriptures as we know them were not in existence at that time. If He were refering to the old testament scriptures he would have used the word scripture (graphe) as He always did unless he was referring to something different. Something He thought important enough to differentiate but you do not see any reason for such differentiation. I believe that is because you place great importance on scripture which is highly commendable. Reluctance to differentiate between these three words is more due to the subjective nature of interpretation than an adherence to accuracy. I have reasons to differentiate. You do not. In Luke 3:2 the (rhema) word that came to John in the wilderness is certainly different than the word that Jesus was sharing with the people in Luke 5. Even If you or I today do not see all of the difference we both see more than we used to. Your point is not completely lost on me though. Jesus did not speak Greek any way but Aramean so the word that he delivered to us has already been changed. However I believe in the canon and love the scriptures that we have. I do hold scripture in a very high regard. God speaks to me through it. It is not the only way He speaks to me. (Even Sola Scripture does not insist on that). It is however the test for everything I believe He is saying. That is what Sola Scripture does insist on. Thanks for your patience with me God bless you Meta |
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26 | Knowing the Word | Jer 8:7 | meta | 233233 | ||
one brief comment. It may help if we do not use the word "word" when referring to the word scripture . Jesus said Mat 4:4 "MAN SHALL NOT LIVE ON BREAD ALONE, BUT ON EVERY WORD THAT PROCEEDS OUT OF THE MOUTH OF GOD.'"" He did not say "every scripture". He did use the word scripture (graphe) many times but not in this instance. For the sake of accuracy it may help if we do not substitute one word for another. We should not exchange the word "scripture" for the word "word - rhema" or for the word "word - logos". They do have 3 different meanings. Jesus did not say "but on every scripture that proceeds out of the mouth of God. There is no evidence to suggest that every word that came out of the mouth of God became scripture. My intention is soley to focus on keeping things clear as to what the scriptures say. Otherwise we will certainly lose our way. |
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27 | Why did Jesus get baptized | Not Specified | meta | 232923 | ||
Why did Jesus get baptized. Mat.3:13-17, What did He mean when He said "to fulfill all righteousness." |
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28 | Why did Jesus get baptized | Matt 3:13 | meta | 232925 | ||
Why did Jesus get baptized. Mat.3:13-17, What did He mean when He said "to fulfill all righteousness." |
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29 | what is the Talmud | John 1:25 | meta | 232922 | ||
Thank you. Your answer is very enlightening. I am not familiar with the Talmud. Is what we refer to as the old testament also viewed by the jewish scholars as inspired or what we refer to as Canon? Is the Talmud viewed as having the same authority? |
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30 | Did pharisees understand/epexct baptism | Not Specified | meta | 232917 | ||
John 1:25 They asked him, and said to him, "Why then are you baptizing, if you are not the Christ, nor Elijah, nor the Prophet?" Why did the religeous leaders of the day ask this question? It seems they already have some kind of underdstanding of Baptism and an expectation that The Messiah or Elijah or The Prophet would baptize. What is their frame of reference for baptism and for the 3 individuals? |
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31 | Did pharisees understand/epexct baptism | John 1:25 | meta | 232920 | ||
John 1:25 They asked him, and said to him, "Why then are you baptizing, if you are not the Christ, nor Elijah, nor the Prophet?" Why did the religeous leaders of the day ask this question? It seems they already have some kind of underdstanding of Baptism and an expectation that The Messiah or Elijah or The Prophet would baptize. What is their frame of reference for baptism and for the 3 individuals? |
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32 | who are the prophets in Eph 2:20 | 1 Sam 19:20 | meta | 231880 | ||
Hello again Beta, I will not be reposting the question. What I was looking for is in Eph 2:20, is the writer referring to the prophets of the old testament referred to so often in the phrase "the law and the prophets" or were they the prophets of the new testament as referred to in Matt 23:24, and Acts 15:32. I did an exhaustive study of the word prophet in the new testament and got my answer. I believe they were the new testament prophets mentioned primarily in 1 Corinthians, Ephesians and Revelations but especially Eph. 3:5, 4:11 Rev 11:18, 18:20. I hope this clears up the fact that I was not challenging whatever it was you were responding to. I suppose it would help to say that Christ is everything to me. He is my savior, He is The Living word by which the world was made. He is the Glory and the lifter of my head. He is The Truth The Way and The life. He is the Reigning and returning King of all creation. Blessings in Him. Thank you |
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33 | who are the prophets in Eph 2:20 | 1 Sam 19:20 | meta | 231879 | ||
I am sorry but I do not understand the response. I also must take responsibility for the confusion. I did not intend my posted question to be under any other thread. It was not a response. I probably was looking for a previouse answer before wasting peoples time with a redundant question, and somehow my "new question" got posted under a previous thread. Very sorry. That being said I still do not understand the response. Thats ok though I cannot try to imagine what you may have been thinking when you thought it was a response to the thread. I will repost it as a new question. |
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34 | who are the prophets in Eph 2:20 | Not Specified | meta | 231862 | ||
who are the prophets referred to in Eph 2:19,20 So then you are no longer strangers and aliens, but you are fellow citizens with the saints, and are of God's household,having been built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus Himself being the corner stone, |
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35 | who are the prophets in Eph 2:20 | 1 Sam 19:20 | meta | 231865 | ||
who are the prophets referred to in Eph 2:19,20 So then you are no longer strangers and aliens, but you are fellow citizens with the saints, and are of God's household,having been built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus Himself being the corner stone, |
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36 | jesus ask peter to thrust from land | Luke 5:3 | meta | 231861 | ||
I do not believe it is possible to give a scriptural answer. Perhaps it is possible to give a practical answer that is not disqualified by scripture. Sound is absorbed by sand very easily also plants and cloth and even our flesh. That is the environment Jesus was speaking in. Sound is not easily absorbed by water but is reflected off the water. He was simply making it easier for people to hear Him speak. Note Matt 13:1 That day Jesus went out of the house and was sitting by the sea. Matt 13:2 And large crowds gathered to Him, so He got into a boat and sat down, and the whole crowd was standing on the beach. Also Mark 4:1 He began to teach again by the sea. And such a very large crowd gathered to Him that He got into a boat in the sea and sat down; and the whole crowd was by the sea on the land. It also appears that in Mark 3:9 "And He told His disciples that a boat should stand ready for Him because of the crowd, so that they would not crowd Him" it was to be able to adress the people without being crowded. Who knows what kind of pushing and grabbing might take place. He was often being pushed by crowds. Mark 5:24 And He went off with him; and a large crowd was following Him and pressing in on Him. |
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37 | Post flood, how did people get all over | Gen 6:13 | meta | 231860 | ||
Boats, It is obvious that this is possible due to the fact that Noah himself built a very large and extremely effective boat. A study of Gen 6:13 to 8:14 will show that Noah built a boat that was floating on the water for over one year. In addition reed boats are mentioned in the book of Job. Job is believed to be a contemporary of Abraham. There have also been people in the twentieth century who have built a reed boat like ones used in ancient Egypt. They sailed to South America successfully. This was in fact to verify their theory that the people of South America originated in Egypt. Also When God sent confusion to the people that resulted in the many languages it was in response to their technology and the twisted purpose of trying to build a tower to heaven. Gen. 11:6. This was much later than Noah so boat building would be very simple for them. The LORD said, "Behold, they are one people, and they all have the same language. And this is what they began to do, and now nothing which they purpose to do will be impossible for them. Man did eventually set foot on the moon. The bootom line is that before all of this Noah had already built a boat that could sail the world |
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38 | why five stones | 1 Samuel | meta | 221465 | ||
Hi Doc, I do not refute one single statement here. I do not in any way question the authority of scripture. I am not trying to be argumentative either. I believe that our tracks are parallel and very close to each other. Here are some facts. No commentary. I don't have time right now. Just an observation A thorough search of the scriptures will reveal that in the New testament that which is referred to in John 1:1 as "The Word of God" is never the same word as that which is used to translate the word "Scriptures". Mathew 4:4 is another word for "Word" Similarly in the old testament the word used to translate to "The Word of the Lord" (that came to Abraham or the prophets) is never the same as the word used for "The Law", The Commandment, or The Statutes". (The word scriptures is not found in the OT NASB.) Heb 4:12 For the word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword, and piercing as far as the division of soul and spirit, of both joints and marrow, and able to judge the thoughts and intentions of the heart. logos is used here. logos; from 3004; a word (as embodying an idea), a statement, a speech:--account(7), account*(1), accounting(2), accounts(2), answer(1), appearance(1), complaint(1), exhortation*(1), have to do(1), instruction(1), length*(1), matter(4), matters(1), message(10), news(3), preaching(1), question(2), reason(2), reasonable(1), remark(1), report(1), said(1), say(1), saying(4), sayings(1), speaker(1), speech(10), statement(18), story(1), talk(1), teaching(2), thing(2), things(1), utterance(2), what he says(1), what*(1), word(179), words(61). And here2 Tim 3:16-17 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work. here it is graphê; from 1125; a writing, scripture:--Scripture(31), Scriptures(20). Matt 4:4 But He answered and said, "It is written, 'MAN SHALL NOT LIVE ON BREAD ALONE, BUT ON EVERY WORD THAT PROCEEDS OUT OF THE MOUTH OF GOD.'" here it is rhêma; from a modified form of 2046; a word, by impl. a matter:--charge(1), discourse(1), fact(2), matters(1), message(2), nothing*(1), remark(1), say(1), say say(1), saying(1), sayings(3), statement(6), thing(2), things(4), word(18), words(22). Thanks Meta |
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39 | Revalation 6:2 | Rev 6:2 | meta | 221418 | ||
Hello Auhsoj Mulb You said the horse in Rev 19 is Jesus, Don't you mean the one sitting on the horse is Jesus? Meta |
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40 | why five stones | 1 Samuel | meta | 221404 | ||
Hi Doc, Great points Are all of God's words in scripture. Did he ever speak to any one on the earth that was not recorded in the scriptures. Obviously the answer is yes. The words of Christ for his entire life are the words of God, however they are not all recorded. In the beginning was the word. Not in the beginning was the scriptures, Jesus Christ is the Word made flesh not the scriptures made flesh. I agree God is inseparable from His Word and He is inseparable from the scriptures also. The Word made flesh is Christ Jesus. He is much more than simply the scriptures made flesh. The scripturesare referred to as The word of the Lord not The Lord. I worship God and I use the scriptures. I do not use God in the same sense as I use scriptures. We will discuss further Meta |
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