Results 21 - 33 of 33
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: danjg Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | different races | OT general | danjg | 224934 | ||
Scripture doesn't give us a specific answer to your question. However, there seems to be two possibilities: (1)When God confounded the languages in Gen. 11:1-9, he changed the physical characteristics of the population into those of the different races to parallel the languages; (2)The general population up to then included people with all the various physical characteristics of the races and God confounded the languages to parallel the physical characteristics of the races. In Gen 10 we find the descendants of Noah's three sons "into their lands, every one according to his language,..." This perhaps indicates that Noah's sons already displayed the racial characteristics and that #2 above is how it happened. Hope this helps! Dan |
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22 | Heaven/hell - those never hearing gospel | Rom 10:12 | danjg | 223993 | ||
Since Jesus is the ONLY way to heaven, then those who haven't heard will end up in hell. Would not a connected question be, why did Jesus give us the Great Commission if those who haven't heard can somehow get to heaven? If that's possible, then we should never tell anyone the gospel since if they never hear they have a chance for heaven, but if they hear and reject it then they have no chance. Rev 20:12 says those at the Great White Throne judgment will be judged according to their deeds which have been recorded in the "books." Since God is fair and just, those who never hear will not be judged as harshly as those who actively oppose anything connected with the Gospel. Cornelius and the Ethiopian eunuch are examples of someone who is searching for truth and God brings someone (Peter and Phillip) to them with the truth. D |
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23 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | danjg | 223530 | ||
With all due respect, I strongly disagree that Jesus' human side needed repentance. He was the perfect sinless God-man. Obviously His deity was sinless, but so was His humanity since He didn't have a human father. That leads me to the conclusion that our sin nature is passed on by the father not the mother. | ||||||
24 | is gambling a sin | Bible general Archive 4 | danjg | 223529 | ||
No, it's not. However, it can be addicting and become a financial problem which then becomes an issue of living wisely for God's glory. | ||||||
25 | the Resurrection of Christ | 1 Cor 15:4 | danjg | 223500 | ||
A good source of information is here: http://www.leaderu.org/ Click on "Theology" and then "Jesus Christ" |
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26 | Why is the Sabbath Sunday? | 1 Cor 15:4 | danjg | 223499 | ||
I think in their attempt to keep the "Sabbath" of the 10 Commandments, some Christians called Sunday the "Christian Sabbath." I'm not aware of very many doing that anymore unless maybe in some of the Mainline denominations. The 4th commandment is the only one not repeated in the NT and therefore not relevant to NT believers as a command. Our church has two services on Sat night in addition to one on Fri. nite and 5 on Sun. There's nothing in the NT commanding us to worship on a specific day. |
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27 | Whence cometh the races? | Gen 11:7 | danjg | 223394 | ||
Gen 11:7 tells us that God confused the languages to force people to scatter around the earth as He had commanded. So was it at this same time that God changed the one race into the races that exist today with their distinct physical characteristics? Or is it possible that the population was composed of folks with all those racial physical characteristics and that God gave all Oriental looking folks certain languages, Negro looking folks certain languages, Caucasian looking folks certain languages, etc? | ||||||
28 | Please expain John 1:1 in layman's terms | John 1:1 | danjg | 223322 | ||
Diane...have found a satisfying answer to your question? D |
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29 | follow up to 1 corinth 15 question | 1 Cor 15:52 | danjg | 216478 | ||
True, the building of the temple could mark the starting point of the Trib, but isn't that assuming that the "covenant" in Dan 9 is about permission to build the Temple instead of simply some type of peace accord in the Middle East? The only firm facts about the Temple are that it does exist in the Trib and the anti-christ will desecrate it half way thru it. Again, the preponderance of evidence seems to be that the Trib is all about God dealing with the nation of Israel again after the church is raptured out! Blessings! |
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30 | follow up to 1 corinth 15 question | 1 Cor 15:52 | danjg | 216427 | ||
Hi cmfrantz: Here's why I believe Scripture teaches a pre-trib rapture: Dan 9:24 "Seventy weeks have been decreed for your people and your holy city"--The 70 weeks prophecy has to do with Daniel's "people" (Israel) and his "holy city" (Jerusalem)! The 69th week ended with "Messiah cut off" so one "week" is left for Israel: the Tribulation "week"! In Matt 24, Jesus' description of the Trib "week" is all about Jewish aspects: "standing in the holy place"--"those in Judea"--"Sabbath"--"false Christs (Messiahs) and prophets" Matt 4:23, Jesus is "proclaiming the gospel of the kingdom" which is the same that He says will be proclaimed during the Trib. (Matt 24:14)The same message Jesus brought to Israel will be preached by the 144,000 Jewish evangelists in Rev. Rev 1:19 gives us the outline which is chronological: "What you have seen"--Christ in His glorified body (Christ ascended before the church began); "the things which are"--the 7 churches which are at the beginning of the church age; "the things which shall take place after these things"--what happens after the church age! Also, with all the details given in Rev. about the Trib. yet no mention of the church from 3:22 until 22:16. The rapture of the church before the Trib is a logical event to indicate the beginning of it. If the church goes through the Trib. what event triggers it? How do we know when it starts? I hope this helps...at least provide food for thought! |
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31 | Divorced Do Christians Get Remarried? | 1 Cor 6:9 | danjg | 205454 | ||
Tamara...so are you saying that Jesus didn't say "except for the cause of unchastity" in Matt 5:32 and "except for immorality" in Matt 19:9? These statements were made in response to the Pharisees' question about divorce. Mark 10:9 was later in a house where His disciples questioned Him about what He said outside. Matt 19:10-12 apparently give us the context of the disciples' question to Jesus! | ||||||
32 | Divorced Do Christians Get Remarried? | 1 Cor 6:9 | danjg | 205442 | ||
Jeff...the point I was making is that just b/c one partner is guilty of adultery, doesn't automatically give the other partner the right to divorce. If the guilty partner repents, asks for forgiveness, and indicates a desire to be faithful again, the "innocent" party should forgive and grant another opportunity for restoration of the marriage. However, if after considerable attempts to reconcile (following Matt 18:15-17) there's no repentance on the part of the guilty partner, then divorce is allowed as an option but not required. From my experience, the divorce usually is pursued by the guilty party Hope this helps--Dan |
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33 | Divorced Do Christians Get Remarried? | 1 Cor 6:9 | danjg | 205353 | ||
Dear Tamara..as you've already seen, this issue is a controversial one, even among Christians. Here's my understanding of Scripture that might be helpful: 1-It's clear from Scripture that God's marriage ideal is one man and one woman for as long as they shall live (Gen 2:24). 2-Malachi 2:16 tells us that God hates divorce 3-Man is sinful and therefore misses God's ideal often 4-1 John 1:9 is true..."If we confess...He is faithful to forgive" 5-God allows (but doesn't compel) divorce in only two situations: unrepentant adultery by a marriage partner (Matt 19) and desertion by an unbelieving marriage partner (1 Cor 7) 6-God's ideal is reconciliation and restoration of the marriage, but that takes commitment by BOTH parties 7-If divorce takes place and one partner remarries, then obviously there's no chance for restoration. 8-When we come to Christ for salvation all past sins are forgiven including divorce and/or remarriage This issue is further complicated b/c there can be so many variables in a given divorce situation: Were one or both Christians at the time? Did the "innocent" party really try to reconcile or were they truly "innocent"? Has there been multiple divorces and remarriage? Etc. Etc. This is a condensed version (LOL) so if you would like more clarification, let me know! Concerning your question about the difference between Matthew and Mark's statements about divorce: If one passage gives more details about an incident than another, those details are part of the total description! Also, Matthew was an eyewitness while Mark was not. That may account for the difference! Therefore I see no conflict and believe that Jesus said "except for immorality" when He was giving this teaching! Blessings, Dan |
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