Results 21 - 40 of 197
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Vintage68 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Reformers Say God's Mot. Of Salvatation? | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 215442 | ||
Hi brothersmith (example of reformed Theology) 1 John 2:1-2 says, My little children, these things I write to you, so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous. And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world. concerning 1 John 2:2, ( for the whole world) - This is a generic term, referring not to every single individual, but to mankind in general. Christ actually paid the penalty only for those who would repent and believe. Most of the world will be eternally condemned to hell to pay for their own sins, so they could not have been paid for by Christ. The passages which speak of Christ's dying for the whole world must be understood to refer to mankind in general (as in Titus 2:11). "World" indicates the sphere, the beings toward whom God seeks reconciliation and has provided propitiation. God has mitigated His wrath on sinners temporarily, by letting them live and enjoy earthly life (see note on 1 Tim. 4:10). In that sense, Christ has provided a brief, temporal propitiation for the whole world. But He actually satisfied fully the wrath of God eternally only for the elect who believe. Christ's death in itself had unlimited and infinite value because He is Holy God. Thus His sacrifice was sufficient to pay the penalty for all the sins of all whom God brings to faith. But the actual satisfaction and atonement was made only for those who believe (cf. John 10:11, 15; 17:9, 20; Acts 20:28; Rom. 8:32, 37; Eph. 5:25). .......... John MacArthur Vintage68 |
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22 | holy spirit , speaking in tongue benfits | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 215504 | ||
Hi Ron886 "Question: " how does speaking in a unknown tongue benefit our spirit." The answer to that is, we are not told how it does, but we are told it does happen, that we should pray in an unknown tongue, for the edification of our spirit, when we pray privately, and for the edification of the Church, when we prophesy. 1 Corinthians 14:2-4 2.) For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries. 3.) But he that prophesieth speaketh unto men to edification, and exhortation, and comfort. 4.) He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church. We see from these verses that a person that speaks in an Unknown Tongue, speaks only to God, and thereby is edified, but when he speaks in public, the whole church is edified. We are then told by Paul, the speaking in tongues should not be forbidden, but the gift of speaking in tongues should be in order, with his teaching. 1 Corinthians 14:39 39.) Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues. 40.) Let all things be done decently and in order. Vintage68 |
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23 | An Enemy Has Done This! (Matt 13:24-30) | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 215542 | ||
Hi humility In order for you to be able to understand, the meaning to be found within this or any parable, you first have to understand, a parable was a tool Jesus used, to tell truth to the Jewish people, without them ever being able, to come to the knowledge of that truth. The use of the parables of Jesus were for the express purpose of Him fulfilling Prophesy. To be a teaching tool as some have espoused, is a false assumption. Jesus was speaking to the (Jewish people), knowing they (could not, would not, and did not), ever come to the knowledge to be found within His parables. Therefore how is it a teaching tool for their benefit? As far as it being a teaching tool for his disciples, it really isn't a teaching tool for them either, on the grounds, if Jesus was not speaking to the Jews, he would have given the understanding, knowledge and wisdom to be found in the parables, to the disciples in plain language, just as He had always done, with everything else He had ever taught them. The truth to be found in the parables of Jesus, are always, without exception, only about the Kingdom of God (Heaven). The following verses are for us, for the opening of our eyes to the knowledge about His kingdom. Matt. 13:10-17 10.) And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables? 11.) He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given. 12.) For whosoever hath, to him shall be given, and he shall have more abundance: but whosoever hath not, from him shall be taken away even that he hath. 13.) Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand. 14.) And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive: 15.) For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them. 16.) But blessed are your eyes, for they see: and your ears, for they hear. 17.) For verily I say unto you, That many prophets and righteous men have desired to see those things which ye see, and have not seen them; and to hear those things which ye hear, and have not heard them. With all of the ground work now done, we come to your question. First read the parable, remembering what a parable is, and what it is teaching. Jesus sets out the 4 parts of this parable, in his explanation. Read slowly, carefully, deliberately letting the Holy Spirit, speak to you personally, this will help you to understand. part 1: Declare unto us the parable of the tares of the field. He that soweth the good seed is the Son of man; The field is the world; the good seed are the children of the kingdom; but the tares are the children of the wicked one; The enemy that sowed them is the devil; part 2: the harvest is the end of the world; and the reapers are the angels. Part 3: As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this world. The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity; And shall cast them into a furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth. part 4: Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father. Who hath ears to hear, let him hear. Question: "How could I uproot the wheat along with the tares" Answer: Do you now see, it isn't you that will be doing the uprooting? Question: "How could the wheat and the tares be yoked together?" Answer: Do you now see, they are not yoked together, they have been planted separately by the enemy. Hope this helps Vintage68 |
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24 | An Enemy Has Done This! (Matt 13:24-30) | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 215555 | ||
Hi Doc in your post, you say. "Of the 33 parables of Christ, how many of them were for people other than the disciples? Two perhaps? Maybe three?" Would you be so kind, as to provide me with this list of the 33, with the possible 2 or 3 you have mentioned, I would really appreciate it. Because in this chapter alone, there are 4 parables spoken to the people. you go on to say. "Even the passage in Matthew 13 (which you cited) regarded the Lord's answer to an explicit question regarding parables from His disciples." What are you intimating by the fact He was only answering an explicit question? Unless I have missed something, Matt.13 is the chapter in which the question was originally asked, which started this thread. Therefore any answer Jesus might have given, was in direct relation to the context of this chapter. I offer as a conformation, of that answer made by Jesus, these two verses, you will find they are saying virtually the same things, as do the verses 10 - 17 previously posted, But these two, are not in relation to any question asked. 34.) All these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in parables; and without a parable spake he not unto them: 35.) That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying, I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter things which have been kept secret from the foundation of the world. welcome back Vintage68 |
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25 | An Enemy Has Done This! (Matt 13:24-30) | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 215592 | ||
Hi John Just a Quick question??? When Paul says to Timothy "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness. What scripture was Paul referring to? Was there a canon of scripture at the time of this letter to Timothy? 170 AD produced the first known Christian attempt at an (Old Testament) canon. The Council of Carthage, a local north Africa council of bishops created the same list of canonical books in 397. This is the council which many Protestant and Evangelical Christians take as the authority for the (New Testament) canon of books. The Old Testament canon from the same council is identical to Roman Catholic canon today. ..... Catholic Biblical Apologetics, © Copyright 1985-2004, Paul Flanagan and Robert Schihl Vintage68 |
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26 | An Enemy Has Done This! (Matt 13:24-30) | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 215598 | ||
Hi John you ask: how do we reconcile the statement: "To be a teaching tool as some have espoused, is a false assumption." When we hold it up against 2 Tim 3:16 You are using (2 Tim. 3:16) as the proof text, or your rule so to speak, by which we should judge. Lets look at that rule, This letter was written after Jesus had ascended, so then, using your understanding, ( reasoning), Jesus was not using His parables as a teaching tool. Period. On the grounds, they were not scripture when He spoke them. In other words, He was not Teaching scripture, He was Creating scripture. He was speaking words, that have since become scripture, therefore we can now use these scriptures as teaching tools, as per. 2 Tim 3:16 you go no to say: "Can you please give us some Scripture or perhaps some reputable commentary to lend some support to so bold a statement?" Are you asking for a sign? I will use the most reputable authority I can possibly think of. And His own commentary. 1.) A parable was a tool Jesus used, to tell truth to the Jewish people, without them ever being able, to come to the knowledge of that truth. Matt. 13:10-11 10.) And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables? 11.) He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, (but to them it is not given.) Therefore from the mouth of Jesus He says He is "NOT TEACHING THEM" anything! If you are of a different opinion, what He was teaching them? 2) The use of the parables of Jesus were for the express purpose of Him fulfilling Prophesy. To be a teaching tool as some have espoused, is a false assumption. Matt.13:13,14 13.) Therefore speak I to them in parables: (because they seeing see not); (and hearing they hear not), (neither do they understand). 14.) (And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias), which saith, (By hearing ye shall hear), (and shall not understand); (and seeing ye shall see), (and shall not perceive): By His own mouth He says, prophesy is being fulfilled, this is why I use Parables. No other reason is given. Jesus was speaking to the (Jewish people), knowing they (could not, would not, and did not), ever come to the knowledge to be found within His parables. Therefore how is it a teaching tool for their benefit? Again I ask you what was He teaching them? Vintage68 |
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27 | An Enemy Has Done This! (Matt 13:24-30) | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 215601 | ||
Hi Doc. you say 1.) "The doctrine of sola scriptura helps us understand the many aspects of the Word of God. When we consider things like the sufficiency and the necessity of Scripture, we come to understand that God has providentially provided at any given time in human history all that is needful for "all saving knowledge, faith, and obedience." Whether the divinely inspired writer realized that he was penning the Word or not, is really neither here nor there." ---------- I Agree 2.) "Even in the times of the primitive church, we have clear assurances concerning what the Holy Spirit was providing in terms of revelation of the Word of God to His own. Peter, consequently, assures us that these precious epistles are part of Scripture. Consider the following:" ---------- I Agree 3.) "Therefore, beloved, since you look for these things [the denouement and consummation of God's purposes in redemptive history], be diligent to be found by Him in peace, spotless and blameless, and regard the patience of our Lord as salvation; just as also our beloved brother Paul, according to the wisdom given him, wrote to you, as also in all his letters, speaking in them of these things, in which are some things hard to understand, which the untaught and unstable distort, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures, to their own destruction." (2 Peter 3:14-16 NASB)" ----------- I Agree 4.) As R. C. Sproul put it once, we have a fallible canon of infallible Scriptures. We may be confident, though, that God has assuredly provided and protected the Word for us (Hebrews 1:1-2). ------- I Agree Doc, What would give you the Idea, I do not believe these things you have just posted to me? If they are in a response to my post to John, I may have worded things wrong, thereby giving you that impression, I am sorry for that. It was my intent to only ask a legitimate question of John. For the purpose of clarification, before I posted him. His statement to me was worded in such a way, I was of the understanding, his (Johns) statements were based on knowledge "HE" now possess, 2000 yrs. after the parables were spoken, having all of the canon within his possession, and that I was going against that canon. I am not. I am not saying that the parables cannot be used as a Teaching Tool. I am saying that Jesus did not use them that way, for the reasons I have stated. This is a Study Bible Forum, if I am in error, show me the error, everyone wants the bible to be read literally, you can't get any more literal than taking what has been said at face value. Quoting it. I have not used any other verse within the whole canon of scripture, I have not jumped around from book to book, attempting to draw together what I have stated, only those verses to be found within Matt.13 itself. I have done nothing other than voice my exegeses of the chapter. So Doc, in conclusion, please take the time to go over what I have posted on this subject, my conclusions. Then post me back, on where the error has been made. Thank you for your time, I respect your opinion. Vintage68 |
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28 | An Enemy Has Done This! (Matt 13:24-30) | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 215602 | ||
Hi John: May as well have it all This would be the second part. 3.) As far as it being a teaching tool for his disciples, it really isn't a teaching tool for them either, on the grounds, if Jesus was not speaking to the Jews, he would have given the understanding, knowledge and wisdom to be found in the parables, to the disciples in plain language, just as He had always done, with everything else He had ever taught them. Matt. 13:16,17 16.) But blessed are your eyes, for they see: and your ears, for they hear. 17.) For verily I say unto you, That many prophets and righteous men have desired to see those things which ye see, and have not seen them; and to hear those things which ye hear, and have not heard them. Jesus did not use parables with the disciples, as he did with the people, because by His own mouth, He has already told us the reason the parables were spoken. My contention is, Jesus spoke openly, clearly, and easily to be understood by the disciples. I therefore offer for your approval, these scriptures as an evidence of that. 1.) whenever the disciples would ask Jesus to explain a parable he would always do so. Matt.13:36 36.) Then Jesus sent the multitude away, and went into the house: and his disciples came unto him, saying, Declare unto us the parable of the tares of the field. 2.) Whenever Jesus would speak to them, there were no hidden meanings, as in the parables He was speaking to the people. Matt. 13:44-46 44.) Again, the kingdom of heaven is like unto treasure hid in a field; the which when a man hath found, he hideth, and for joy thereof goeth and selleth all that he hath, and buyeth that field. 45.) Again, the kingdom of heaven is like unto a merchant man, seeking goodly pearls: 46.) Who, when he had found one pearl of great price, went and sold all that he had, and bought it. Matt. 13:47-51 47.) Again, the kingdom of heaven is like unto a net, that was cast into the sea, and gathered of every kind: 48.) Which, when it was full, they drew to shore, and sat down, and gathered the good into vessels, but cast the bad away. 49.) So shall it be at the end of the world: the angels shall come forth, and sever the wicked from among the just, 50.) And shall cast them into the furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth. 51.) Jesus saith unto them, Have ye understood all these things? They say unto him, Yea, Lord. If the information was openly given, it is no longer a parable. It does by definition become a teaching. We all know that every word that Jesus spoke could be called teaching, couldn't it? But it does not fit the criteria of the Parable as a teaching tool, the way you define it. But as Jesus said Himself, a Parable did not teach anybody anything. We have already heard from Jesus, the people would (hear and not understand, see and not perceive) Again what was Jesus teaching? But this time I also ask, who was He teaching in the form of a parable? 4.) The truth to be found in the parables of Jesus, are always, without exception, only about the Kingdom of God (Heaven). the kingdom of heaven is like unto, the kingdom of heaven is like unto, the kingdom of heaven is like unto He who hath ears to hear, let him hear. Vintage68 |
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29 | Doing for Others | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 216087 | ||
Thinking Biblically I could neither view, nor attain to no greater reward, than the committing a completely selfless act for the glorification of God. The joy derived would be it's own reward. Vintage68 |
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30 | explain baptism into moses | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 216390 | ||
Hi 561joshua01 Prototype of baptism in the Old Covenant The things which we have said, both of mortification and ablution, were adumbrated among the people of Israel, who, for that reason, are described by the apostle as having been baptised in the cloud and in the sea, (1 Cor. 10: 2.) Mortification was figured when the Lord, vindicating them from the hand of Pharaoh and from cruel bondage, paved a way for them through the Red Sea, and drowned Pharaoh himself and their Egyptian foes, who were pressing close behind, and threatening them with destruction. And Moses said unto the people, Fear ye not, stand still, and see the salvation of the Lord, which he will shew to you to day: for the Egyptians whom ye have seen to day, ye shall see them again no more for ever. Exod 14:13 The Lord shall fight for you, and ye shall hold your peace. Exod 14:14 God would save them but Moses believed a version of FAITH ONLY which Calvin calls fanaticism. On the other hand, when God has provided the MEANS and we reject His counsel then He will not give what we could never provide. And the Lord said unto Moses, Wherefore criest thou unto me? speak unto the children of Israel, that they go forward: Exod 14:15 But lift thou up thy rod, and stretch out thine hand over the sea, and divide it: and the children of Israel shall go on dry ground through the midst of the sea. Exod 14:16 And I, behold, I will harden the hearts of the Egyptians, and they shall follow them: and I will get me honour upon Pharaoh, and upon all his host, upon his chariots, and upon his horsemen. Exod 14:17 For in this way also he promises us in baptism, and shows by a given sign that we are led by his might, and delivered from the captivity of Egypt, that is, from the bondage of sin, that our Pharaoh is drowned; in other words, the devil, although he ceases not to try and harass us. But as that Egyptian was not plunged into the depth of the sea, but cast out upon the shore, still alarmed the Israelites by the terror of his look, though he could not hurt them, so our enemy still threatens, shows his arms and is felt, but cannot conquer. The cloud was a symbol of purification, (Num. 9: 18.) For as the Lord then covered them by an opposite cloud, and kept them cool, that they might not faint or pine away under the burning rays of the sun; so in baptism we perceive that we are covered and protected by the blood of Christ, lest the wrath of God, which is truly an intolerable flame, should lie upon us. The CLOUD literally covered them even though it was an OUTWARD SIGN of God Who gave it! Although the mystery was then obscure, and known to few, yet as there is no other method of obtaining salvation than in those two graces, God was pleased that the ancient fathers, whom he had adopted as heirs, should be furnished with both badges. (We are not by the rite of baptism set free from original sin, but by it we make confession of faith before men, 10-13) [Baptism does not free one from the propensity to sin.].........John Calvin Vintage68 |
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31 | explain baptism into moses | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 216463 | ||
Hi 561joshua01 This is the connection between Moses, Jesus, and baptism, and what that baptism is. Jesus is "our" mediator as Moses was for the people. "It is DRY" Acts 3:22 For Moses truly said unto the fathers, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; him shall ye hear in all things whatsoever he shall say unto you. Acts 7:37 This is that Moses, which said unto the children of Israel, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; him shall ye hear. Deuteronomy 18:15,16 The LORD thy God will raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, of thy brethren, like unto me; unto him ye shall hearken; According to all that thou desiredst of the LORD thy God in Horeb in the day of the assembly, saying, Let me not hear again the voice of the LORD my God, neither let me see this great fire any more, that I die not. Vintage68 |
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32 | roman8:28to jesus,moses,joseph,jermiah | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 216508 | ||
Hi 4runner Whenever a question that is so precise about the information needed, about such a convoluted question, the flags go up, that this is a school question. The place you are presently studying, should give you some kind of Idea as to the answer to your question. Vintage68 |
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33 | Obey your leaders ? | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 216615 | ||
In Heb.13:17 it says. Obey your leaders and submit to them. Who are these leaders, and should we blindly submit to them? What is our responsibility in the cases where there are clear abuses of power. Are they the same as found in 1 Pet. 2:13 ? 13.) Submit yourselves for the Lord's sake to every human institution, whether to a king as the one in authority, 14.) or to governors as sent by him for the punishment of evildoers and the praise of those who do right. Vintage68 |
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34 | Obey your leaders ? | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 216616 | ||
Duplicate! ;-( | ||||||
35 | How do you know when GOD is talking to y | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 216617 | ||
Hi Hood Rat The way you have phrased your question, it seems that you are asking, when God has spoken to me, how will I know it, As others have said, there isn't any definitive answer to specifically say this is the way God speaks, but a good way to start would be, for you to FILL your Heart with His word. Then there will be something there for the Holy Ghost to call back to your memory. God speaks in our minds, If it doesn't exist in your heart, then you have to rely on either reading those words, letting God speak to you that way, or by God using someone else to speak to you verbally. Vintage68 |
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36 | can a child be baptised | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 216727 | ||
Hi morrison Why should it be such a big deal to those not practicing infant baptism, if an infant is baptized within the doctrinal guidelines of the church doing the baptism? I'm sure there are things, both denominations believe, when looked at closely, would not stand doctrinal muster with the other denomination. Nobody has it all, everybody thinks they do, but they don't, that's why we have so many different denominations to begin with. Baptism does not bring salvation, it is not a part of the salvation process. Baptism was performed in a close proximity to salvation, as depicted in the bible. These events have been outlined very well by Searcher, therefore I don't see the need to repost them now. Baptism, by the words of Jesus Himself, (John 3:1-9) are the opening of our eyes to see His Kingdom, and the opening of the door to us that we may enter His kingdom. The process, is our identifying with His death, and resurrection, becoming born again. But the lack of seeing or entering His kingdom, does not mean you have not received salvation. But in answer to your question. Sure a child can be baptized, as you have seen in the answers given, there is no clear cut consensus as to the validity of child baptism. Therefore we will all have to wait until were all in heaven to find out for sure, then there will be those that were right, and those that will have been wrong. But either way it isn't something that will hurt the child. Is there anybody that would categorically forbid the baptism to take place? I do not believe in infant baptism, but my in-laws' do, so to give them the peace of mind, they needed, I let my child be baptized in their Church. (Side note) In contract law neither a child (infant), nor a mentally incompetent adult, can enter into a contract. The person entering into a contract, needs to be able to understand the terms of the contract, as to what is expected of them, and what to expect from the other person in the contract. No (proxy) agreement can be made for either party. Vintage68 |
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37 | Why do we delay baptism, not His Supper? | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 216774 | ||
Hi justme Jesus Himself declares what the purpose of baptism is for. John 3:1-9 Nowhere within the recitation to Nicodemus, does Jesus mention either inclusion or exclusion within the body. The account of the communion of Christ, by Paul does not say anything about the inclusion, or the excluding of anyone on account of baptism. 1Cor. 11:17-34 but in the middle of these verses. Paul says in vs. 29 "For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body." It could be asked therefore, does someone that has not been baptized, have any reservations for not doing so? It might be advisable then, whenever having a communion service, to read these verses in 1 Cor. letting everyone decide, with particular emphasis placed upon verse 29 and the consequences. Vintage68 |
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38 | Why do we delay baptism, not His Supper? | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 216778 | ||
Hi Searcher56 Are you of the opinion that the Church in general delays baptism? The biggest reason I have seen personally, would be to have a big Baptismal Service, with a lot of people being Baptized, like on an Easter Sunday, it makes it special for the person being baptized. But the reason for these types of services taking place, usually about 6 mo. apart would probably be for the economic reason of the cost to fill the pool. Other than that, your guess is as good as min. Vintage68 |
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39 | Why is the Christian Church so divided? | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 217335 | ||
Hi John you say Though not all Scripture is written to us, and words spokin are not all spoken to us, it is all still for us. 2 Tim 3:16 "All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness;" You seem to have a full understanding of Matt.13:14,15 . Please, apply 2 Tim. 3:16. Just how can these verses concern us, other than knowing, "That Generation" were blinded, as Prophesied in Isaiah? Vintage68 |
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40 | Why is the Christian Church so divided? | Bible general Archive 4 | Vintage68 | 217340 | ||
Hi John I concur with you 100 per. cent. when you say, "Plenty of folks today can read the same word of God and not see though they see and not hear though we can read it to them. Most of the world at large is spiritually blind and deaf to God's word as we speak." But when you say this, your just wrong. "The Scriptures do not say it was only for that generation, but I think common sense would dictate only that it applied to them at that time." Mat 13:14,15 14 ( And ( in them ) is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, ) which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive: 15 ( For ( this peoples ) heart is waxed gross, ) and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them. When Jesus himself says in them the prophesy is fulfilled, and this peoples heart is waxed gross. There is no mistaking who Jesus is talking about, it isn't a piece of scripture that is given to interpretation, it says what it says.This was the beginning point of the blindness of the Jews, towards the Gospel, Paul says. Rom 11:25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in. The rendering only apply's to the Jews. They as a people cannot come to the knowledge of the truth, every other nation could if it wanted to. People in general are blind as you say, but GOD has blinded the Jews. Vintage68 |
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