Results 21 - 40 of 97
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Jim Estes Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | How many generations betw Exodus-Solomon | Matt 1:17 | Jim Estes | 207154 | ||
Hi Zor, Your question is one of doing the math. We start out with 480 years. Solomon began to build the temple in the 4th year of his reign. That takes us down to 476 years. His father David was 30 years old when he became King and his reign was 40 years. This takes us down to 406 years. Salmon was born during the 40 years in the wilderness. At the time of the battle of Jericho he could be any age up to 39. Let’s say that both Salmon and Rehab were both 20 years old (it is likely that Rehab was older). Deducting 20 years from the 40 years in the wilderness takes us down to 386 years. In other words, from the birth of Salmon to the birth of David is 386 years. Therefore, how old, on average, were Salmon, Boaz, Obed and Jesse when their sons were born? 386 years divided by 4 gives us an average age of 96.5 years. This is certainly possible. The timeline would be close to this: Exodus to birth of Salmon: 20 years, Battle of Jericho: 40 years, birth of Boaz: 116.5 years, birth of Obed: 213 years, birth of Jesse: 309.5 years, birth of David: 406 years, David becomes King: 436 years, Solomon becomes King: 476 years, and begins to build the Temple: 480 years. What is not possible is that Rehab, the Harlot, is the same Rehab of Matthew 1 (Matthew does not identify his Rahab as either the harlot or a Canaanite). Rahab, the Harlot, is not the ancestor of Jesus Christ. Not only would it contradict many other scriptures, but it would be a physical impossibility as Rahab, the Harlot, would have been well past the age of bearing children. Jim |
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22 | What is the "Lord's Day" | Rev 1:10 | Jim Estes | 206777 | ||
Hi Bowler, Thanks for taking the time to answer my question. It appears there is no scriptural support for the interpretation that the “Lord’s Day” is Sunday, just the traditions of men. The “Lord’s Day” appears to be the same as “ the Day of the Lord” as defined in Isaiah 2:12, 13:6, 13:9, Jeremiah 46:10, Ezekiel 13:5, 30:3, Joel 1:15, 2:1, 2:11, 2:31, 3:14, Amos 5:18, 5:20, Obadiah 1:15, Zephaniah 1:7, 1:14, Zechariah 14::1, Malachi 4:5, Acts 2:20, 1 Corinthians5:5, 2 Corinthians 1:14, 1 Thessalonians 5:2 and 2 Peter 3:10. These scriptures describe the actual events that Jesus Christ was revealing to John. Jim |
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23 | What is the "Lord's Day" | Rev 1:10 | Jim Estes | 206722 | ||
Revelation 1:10 "I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like the sound of a trumpet," I have often seen the interpretation of the "Lord's Day" in Rev. 1:10 as the first day of the week or Sunday. Is there scripture to support this? I ran a word search of "Lord's Day" and found only this verse in Rev. However, using "Day of the Lord" I found numerous scriptures which indicate the future events of Christ's return. Wouldn't John have been "in the Spirit" on this future date when he witnessed the revelation of these events? Thanks, Jim |
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24 | 3 brothers descendants changed | Col 1:16 | Jim Estes | 205961 | ||
Hi Jim, I know I am getting in very late in this tread, but would like to add my 2 cents. John makes a very valid point. The 4 wives on the Ark were not Noah’s descendants. We do not know their ancestors, except to say it goes back to Adam. Genesis details the origin of the Hebrews. They descended from Terah and his wives. The Moabites descended from a daughter of Lot, the Ammonites from his other daughter. Esau’s descendants were the Edomites. This all happened well after the Tower of Babel. Deuteronomy 32:8 - When the Most High gave the nations their inheritance, When He separated the sons of man, He set the boundaries of the peoples According to the number of the sons of Israel. Acts 17: 26-27 - and He made from one man every nation of mankind to live on all the face of the earth, having determined their appointed times and the boundaries of their habitation, that they would seek God, if perhaps they might grope for Him and find Him, though He is not far from each one of us; Hope this helps, Jim |
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25 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205775 | ||
Hi Val, No offence taken. I agree with you on the light of the whole Bible and that we are not meant to know everything. I think there are many Bible truths that are counter to the traditions of men. What I think is not important, but I would refer you to my other posts. The debate over 3 days and 3 nights has been long debated and I am sure it will continue to be. I think the scriptures concerning the spices in Mark and Luke offer the solution. If this tread caused some to examine the scriptures more closely, that's not a bad thing. What we believe, we must believe in faith. Jim |
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26 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205752 | ||
Hi Val, When I find scriptures that, on their face, contradict each other I like to study them and see why there is a conflict. (Such as the women buying the spices after the Sabbath, but preparing them before the Sabbath.) Almost without fail, it is due to a wrong interpretation. I have found that the Bible will interpret itself. However, this often results in an interpretation counter to the commonly held view. Views people have held since childhood and by various denominations. Views that people have a personal commitment to. In 1 Thess 5:21 we are told “Test everything. Hold on to the good.” Jesus told us, "If I told you earthly things and you do not believe, how will you believe if I tell you heavenly things? (John 3:12) When Paul and Silas arrived in Berea, they went to the synagogue. They found the Bereans to be of noble character. Why? Because they received the message with great eagerness and examined the Scriptures every day to see if what Paul said was true. Paul didn’t tell the Bereans he was an expert and far more knowledgeable than they were and criticize them for checking scripture. So when I submit a question, I’m looking for scripture that I may have overlooked. Some answer the call of the question and support their view with scripture. Others cite some expert or commonly held belief or doctrine, but with no scriptural support. If I don’t accept that, some quickly turn the discussion to personal insults. I don’t have any particular interest in science or math. Would it matter if I did? I’m not sure what you mean about the 72 hours. None of this is about me, but about scripture. I believe with all my heart that Jesus is the Messiah and the Son of God. I also believe he was saying exactly what he meant. Hope this answers your questions. Jim |
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27 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205670 | ||
Hi Tamara, My sincere apologies if I came across too headstrong and I hope I didn’t offend you. You have a great writing style. You always answer the call of the question and cite scripture for your support. I very much appreciate your postings and do learn from them. My personal view is that Jesus was in the tomb for 72 hours. That could only be from just before sunset on Wednesday to just before sunset on Saturday. The Passover Sabbath on Thursday, spices bought and prepared on Friday and then the Saturday Sabbath. One other point I would make is about the two witnesses in Rev. 11. Their ministry appears to be a shadow of Christ ministry in regards to time. They prophesy for three and a half years and then they are killed. They are not placed in a tomb, but are dead for 3 ½ days and then come to life and are taken up into the clouds. I don’t think these 3 ½ days can be disputed. Also, Daniel 9:27 talks about the middle of the week. However, I don’t have a very good understanding of Daniel. Thanks, Jim |
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28 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205667 | ||
Hi Brother Tim, Sorry if I missed the point. I think 72 hours because this was a sign. If it was anytime between 25-72 hours it would certainly diminish it as a sign. Why would Jesus not say "three days" only or "within three days?" I agree that Peter was not saying that private individuals cannot interpret Scripture, but he referred specifically to prophesy. I think you would still say the same principle applies. You were very clear and I appreciate your answer at a late hour. Thanks, Jim |
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29 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205637 | ||
Hi WOS, The original question I had: where is the scriptural evidence? You are in error on the point, none has been provided. Please see my response to Tim Moran. I’ve always hear it explained that it was an idiom, but if it was just the way people understood what 3 days and 3 nights was, that still does not address my original question. How do we know from scripture? I don’t think it really matters if you call it an idiom or an understanding. Thanks, Jim |
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30 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205634 | ||
Brother Tim, That is an excellent question! I would say the following scriptures would apply: Genesis 1:5 – God called the light day, and the darkness He called night. And there was evening and there was morning, one day. Genesis 1:13 – There was evening and there was morning, a third day. John 11:9 - Jesus answered, “Are there not twelve hours in the day? If anyone walks in the day, he does not stumble, because he sees the light of this world. But, for the sake of discussion, “three days and three nights” was meant to be one day and parts, perhaps only minutes, of two other days. Then my question is: who decided Jesus was crucified on Friday as opposed to Thursday or Wednesday and why? Under this reasoning could it not have been any of those days? Next question: Does this way of thinking by the Hebrews also apply to scripture concerning 7 days and/or 40 days? Example: the spies for Israel spent 40 days spying out the promise land. Could this have been 38 days and just small parts of two other days? They certainly got the full 40 years of punishment! Were the three days of thick darkness in Egypt really only one day and parts of two nights? I have tried to look at 2 Peter 1:20 in different ways, but keep coming back to the fact that “scripture interprets scripture.” I figured that is where the quote must have come from. I would really appreciate your elaboration on the point. Many thanks, Jim |
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31 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205628 | ||
Hi WOS, Thank you for your response. Matthew 24:4 “And Jesus answered and said to them, ‘See to it that no one misleads you’.” We should not be relying on “those far more knowledgeable,” but we should examine the scriptures with eagerness to determine the truth of the matter. (Acts 17:10-11) Jim |
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32 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205627 | ||
Hi Tamara, Many thanks for your response and effort in answering my question. You said “Fact - Jesus said He too would be in the heart of the earth three days and three nights, that makes that part fact, right?” Correct, I agree. You said “Okay now turn to Mark 15:42-47 - Jesus was buried the day before Sabbath could begin, the Sabbath begins on Saturday, so Jesus was buried on Friday. Yes, Jesus was buried just as the Sabbath was to begin. (Luke 23:54) However, this was not the weekly Sabbath observed on Saturday. This was the Sabbath that took place on the first day of the Passover feast. This Sabbath could occur on any day of the week. (John 19:31) There were two Sabbaths that week. This is why it was possible for the women to buy spices after the Passover Sabbath and prepare them before the Saturday Sabbath. You said, “Look down at Mark 16:1-6 - Mary and the women came on the first day of the week to anoint Jesus and get told, He is risen that morning of the first day of the week.” Please read that again. It says, “He has risen; He is not here; behold, here is the place where they laid Him.” It does not say he arose that morning. Mark 16:9 says “Now after He had risen early on the first day of the week, He first appeared to Mary Magdalene, from whom He had cast out seven demons.” My understanding is the New Testament Greek is without punctuation. The punctuation was added by translators. It could just as easily read, “Now after He had risen, early on the first day of the week He first appeared to Mary Magdalene, from whom He had cast out seven demons.” You said, “What Jesus actually was saying was accurate when you factor in that what He meant was figuratively a period, not twenty four hour periods. This issue is about a figure of speech, it has to do with the use of the word Hemera as being it's last listed meaning - a figurative period.” I don’t think Jesus would state it that way when this was to be the only sign he would give the Jews that he was the Messiah. John 11:9 Jesus answered, “Are there not twelve hours in the day? If anyone walks in the day, he does not stumble, because he sees the light of this world. Thanks again, Jim |
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33 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205608 | ||
Hi Val, If there are no scriptures that show that "three days and three nights" is an idiom, then it is not. "Three days and three nights" must be taken on its face as meaning exactly what it says. If I take "three days and three nights" to mean something else, then it must be supported by scripture. I am not entitled to make my own private interpretation. (2 Peter 1:20) Jim |
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34 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205569 | ||
Doc, Someone, at sometime, must have made the decision that when Jesus gave the only sign that he was the Messiah by saying “three days and three nights” that it was an idiom. I read John Gill on the subject concerning Matthew 12:40 wherein he took it as an idiom that when Jesus was placed into the tomb just before sunset, that counted as a full day and night, Saturday counted as a full day and night and whatever time Jesus may have been in the tomb on Sunday was the 3rd day and night. So what Jesus really said was “as Jonah was one day and one night and parts of two other days in the belly of the sea monster, so will the Son of Man be between 24 hours, 2 minutes and 72 hours in the heart of the earth.” This is the only sign Jesus said that he would give that he was the Messiah! 2 Peter 1:20 states, “But know this first of all, that no prophecy of Scripture is a matter of one's own interpretation. . .” John Gill does not back up his interpretation with scripture; therefore it does not comply with the requirement of 2 Peter 1:20. My question remains, what scriptures interpret “three days and three nights” to mean anytime between 24 hours, 2 minutes and 72 hours? Thank you for your assistance. Jim |
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35 | Idiom? | Not Specified | Jim Estes | 205480 | ||
Matthew 12:39-40 “An evil and adulterous generation craves for a sign; and yet no sign will be given to it but the sign of Jonah the prophet; for just as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the sea monster, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth. When Jesus says, “three days and three nights in the heart of the earth” is he using an idiom meaning one day and night and parts of 2 other days and/or nights? If yes, who first decided it was an idiom? Since this is prophesy, and not subject to a private interpretation, where does scripture interpret “three days and three nights” as an idiom? |
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36 | Idiom? | Bible general Archive 4 | Jim Estes | 205488 | ||
Matthew 12:39-40 “An evil and adulterous generation craves for a sign; and yet no sign will be given to it but the sign of Jonah the prophet; for just as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the sea monster, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth. When Jesus says, “three days and three nights in the heart of the earth” is he using an idiom meaning one day and night and parts of 2 other days and/or nights? If yes, who first decided it was an idiom? Since this is prophesy, and not subject to a private interpretation, where does scripture interpret “three days and three nights” as an idiom? |
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37 | Spices and the Sabbath | Luke 1:2 | Jim Estes | 205278 | ||
Hi Brother Tim, I would say that “about to begin” would indicate that the sunset and the High Sabbath were imminent and there was not sufficient time for the women to return home and prepare spices, even if they had already purchased the spices in contradiction to Mark 16:1. Jesus cried out about the ninth hour and died a short time later. This would have left about 2 ½ - 3 hours before sunset. Then there was the earthquake. Later the Jews were becoming so concerned that the bodies would still be on the cross at sunset that they requested Pilate to have their legs broken. When it was already the evening, Joseph gathered up his courage and went in to see Pilate to ask for Jesus body. Pilate then summoned the centurion to determine if Jesus was dead. Only then did he grant Joseph permission to take the body. Joseph then bought a linen cloth, took Jesus down from the cross, wrapped him in the linen cloth with about a hundred pounds of spices and laid him in the tomb and secured it with a large stone. Even with help from Nicodemus, all these events had to take some considerable time. I agree with you that these scriptures in Mark and Luke do not constitute a Biblical discrepancy, contradiction, or error. They are very clear and precise. However, they do contradict the idea of a Thursday or Friday crucifixion. Jim |
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38 | Spices and the Sabbath | Luke 1:2 | Jim Estes | 205145 | ||
Hi Tim, Thank you for your response. Can you give me an actual timeline how this would work. Jesus was placed into the tomb as the Sabbath was about to begin. The women were there watching. How did they then prepare any spices and perfumes (all or part) and then rest on the Sabbath as stated in Luke 23:56? Thanks, Jim |
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39 | Spices and the Sabbath | Luke 1:2 | Jim Estes | 205144 | ||
Hi Tamara, Thank you very much for your thoughtful response. If Jesus was indeed using an idiom as the only sign he would give that he was the Messiah, then I thought the answer might be that Luke 23:56 was written out of sequence and they had rested on the Sabbath and then prepared the spices. But, as you point out, Luke was writing “in consecutive order.” Therefore, the only explanation I see is that Jesus was not using an idiom, being crucified on Wednesday. After the Thursday High Sabbath, they purchased the spices and prepared them on Friday. They then rested on the Saturday Sabbath. I would very much like to hear any other possible explanations as to how the two scriptures (concerning the spices) could be reconciled. My experience has been that when I find such a conflict, it is due to a misinterpretation of the scriptures and that the scriptures are in harmony. Thanks again, Jim |
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40 | Spices and the Sabbath | Not Specified | Jim Estes | 205104 | ||
Matthew 12:39-40 states that “as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the sea monster, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.” Some think this means that Jesus went into his tomb just before sunset on Wednesday and came out of the tomb on Saturday just before sunset. Others feel the three days and three nights is an idiom and Jesus went into the tomb on Thursday or Friday and arose Sunday morning. My question concerns the spices which the women prepared and brought early Sunday morning to the tomb. Mark 16:1 – When the Sabbath was over, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, bought spices, so that they might come and anoint Him. Luke 23:56 – Then they returned and prepared spices and perfumes. And on the Sabbath they rested according to the commandment. The women bought the spices after the Sabbath was over, but prepared them before the Sabbath! How can these two scriptures be reconciled? |
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