Results 21 - 40 of 43
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Results from: Notes Author: xmikx Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | xmikx | 136977 | ||
Kalos, This taken directly from my post: Well, I don't read, speak or understand Greek. But, I know that I do not have to know any Greek to understand the word of God. Tim's point has been based on his "understanding" of the Greek language and the reference of 'ho theos' and how many times it has been used and how many times it has meant Jehovah God and how many times it has not meant Jehovah God. Well, I am saying this very clearly, I do not read, speak, or understand (if you were speaking Greek to me, I would not be able to understand you or even recognize you speaking Greek) and I know that I do not have to know any Greek to be able to realize the meaning of a passage of Scripture in the word of God. I have not read anywhere nor ever heard from anyone that I or anyone else for that matter had to know Greek to understand what God's word means. Mike |
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22 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | xmikx | 136967 | ||
To me, there is a big difference between Satan blinding the minds of the unbelievers so they can't see the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. and saying God blinds the minds of the unbelievers so they can't see the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. |
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23 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | xmikx | 136966 | ||
Please read James 2:14-20 and not only verse 19. These verses are centering around how a person with real faith (in God) will prove this by his good deeds or actions. It does NOT say that you must do this, it merely states that faith without good deeds is no faith at all-- that kind of faith is dead and useless. verse 19) Do you think it's enough to believe there is one God?... (notice it says there IS one God)... Well, even the demons believe this , and they tremble in terror! My opinion: the demons shudder because they do believe there is one God and realize how powerful He really is. Once again, this is my opinion of these verses. |
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24 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | xmikx | 136952 | ||
I would not say hostility is the right word, agitated might be a better choice. You are no doubt knowledgeable about the Bible. But, from reading your posts, they come across to me as you are better than someone else when their view/post/belief is different than what you believe. This agitates me. This is an open forum. It is open to any and all who want to post, ask questions, give their view on scripture or whatever as long as they follow the guidlines that had to be agreed upon before creating a user name for this website. First off, I have never asked you to explain anything about 'ho theos' as I had never heard that word(s) before until you first used them in your post since I do not know Greek. 1) capitalization, I get your point. More sarcasim from you on the paragrahs, tabs and what not... 1 John 4:14 was used by me to illustrate an example of God and Jesus Christ being referred to by something other than the words God and Jesus Christ. The comment about not having your Greek handy to translate was a little sarcasim from me, my bad!!! But when reading your posts, you like to add in Greek it says _______ 'fill in the blank'. Well, I don't read, speak or understand Greek. But, I know that I do not have to know any Greek to understand the word of God. the Scriptural references you give do not state that God is the God of this world. If you will go back and read your post from which I took this quote, you will notice you were making a point of how since God created the world, God loves the world and God wants to save the world, none of those verses say, "is He not also the God of this world that He created, loves, and saves?" As for you comment about my email to you. I do not have a saved copy of this email, but if I remember correctly, I think I asked WHY would God blind anyone. You provided scripture that answered that question. I do not hold anything personally against you. I just do not agree with how your posts read to me. Your posts seem to portray yourself as better than others when trying to "defend" your point of view. Have a wonderful day fellow heir... Mike |
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25 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | xmikx | 136940 | ||
Tim, Where did you get that from? Did you even read the verse of scripture? You yourself emailed me and said that when someone says the scripture says something that is not there you would point it out. I did the same thing. James 2:19 just does not say that God is over the demons. It says that even the demons believe there is a God and tremble in terror. Mike |
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26 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | xmikx | 136936 | ||
Colin, This is James2:19 (NIV) 19You believe that there is one God. Good! Even the demons believe that–and shudder. This verse states only that the demons believe there is a God and "tremble in terror (NLT). It does not say that God is over the demons only that the demons believe there is a God. Mike |
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27 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | xmikx | 136934 | ||
Colin, I am not sure what you mean? I completely agree with the Holt Trinity of God the Father, God the Son and God the Spirit. He is three different entities all in the great I AM. My main point to Tim was why did he differentiate between god and God when that is his main position against the use of 'god of this world' not referring to Satan. Even the NASB, which most consider the most accurate translation, uses little g god at the beginning of the verse and BIG G God at the end of the verse when referring to God the Father. I only used 1 John 4:14 as an example where other names are used for God and Jesus. God is referred to as the Father and Jesus is referred to as his Son and the Savior. |
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28 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | xmikx | 136883 | ||
Tim, It is so funny to me how your whole basis for "discussing" this verse is the use of god vs. God. Yet, when you (who knows Greek) type, you use both little g and BIG G. Why the difference? Is it to clarify your point as to who you are referring to in your post? This is 1 John 4:14 (NIV) 1 John 4 14And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world. Who is the Father? and why is it capitalized? who is the Son? and why is it capitalized? who is the Savior? and why is it capitalized? In case you are not familiar or can not find your Greek text to interpret these, I will tell you who each is... the Father is God. the Son is Jesus Christ. the Savior is also Jesus Crhist. Your last post contained the following: Scripture also tells us that God loves the world, that God created the world, that God sent His Son to save the world. Is He not also the God of this world that He created, loves, and saves? :-) Scripture does not support the answer you give to the question... "Is He not also the God of this world that He created, loves, and saves?" What book and verse is that from? Please provide scriptural evidence to support this claim. Mike |
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29 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | xmikx | 136745 | ||
This is a very interesting point! It does make one ponder this idea. I use www.biblegateway.com as a resource for reading while at work. This website allows the user to choose between 19 different translations of the Bible. Now, I have not looked at each and every one of them, but the ones that I have used for reading/studying have used both god and God. Tim, I now your point about Greek not using capitalization, but each of the translations I have used from biblegateway use both little g god and BIG G God. Tim, how are you able to understand what Paul means each time he uses the word God or god? If Greek has no capitalization, then how do you know the translation you use is correct when it reads: god of this world? All of the 19 translations listed at biblegateway.com use either god of this world or even say Satan or the devil. Not one of them uses God (big G). At the end of this verse, Paul says "who is the image of God." Now, every translation I have ever seen uses big G God at the end of this verse and little g god at the beginning of this verse. Tim, how can you not see the difference? These translations were made by people much smarter than I. They have done the research and study to interpret the old ancient texts that are available to the scholars doing the translation. Some translations/versions (New Living, New Life, Wycliffe) use either Satan or the devil in this verse to further clarify who Paul is referring to in 2 Cor 4:4. You may or may not agree with or even like these three versions of the Bible. That is your choice, but I am certain that Paul is referring to Satan when he says, the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers so that they cannont see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. I have seen on this topic the use of how Moses would veil his face as a reference to how God would blind or veil the minds of the unbelieving. Please read the following which is referenced in 2 Cor 3:13. This is Ex 34:33-35. Exodus 34 33 When Moses had finished speaking with them, (1) he put a veil over his face. 34 But whenever Moses went in before the LORD to speak with Him, (2) he would take off the veil until he came out; and whenever he came out and spoke to the sons of Israel what he had been commanded, 35 (3) the sons of Israel would see the face of Moses, that the skin of Moses' face shone. So Moses would replace the veil over his face until he went in to speak with Him. This tells how Moses' face would shine because he had just spoken to God. He would put a veil over his face because Aaron and the sons of Israel were afraid to come near him. Moses then called to them and they came forward and Moses told them what the LORD had commanded them to do. Moses would speak to the LORD, deliver the message from the LORD (with his face shining to show he was under the LORD's influence if you will) and then put the veil over his face after delivering the message. The veil was to "hide" the fading glory that was on Moses' face. See this mentioned in 2 Cor 3:13. As you all know, Paul wrote this as a letter to the church at Corinth. If you read this as one should read a letter (from the beginning) Paul first mentions Satan in 2 Cor 2:11 and he uses the word Satan for this reference. Please read 2 Cor 4:3 and then verse 4. 3 And even if our (7) gospel is (8) veiled, it is veiled to (9) those who are perishing, 4 in whose case (10) the god of (11) this world has (12) blinded the minds of the unbelieving so that they might not see the (13) light of the gospel of the (14) glory of Christ, who is the (15) image of God. (9) is 1 Cor 1:18 and says how the word of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved, it is the power of God. It is so clear who Paul is referring to in 2 Cor 4:4. He is referring to Satan as the god of this world and not God as the god of this world. |
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30 | claiming things in your life | Is 53:5 | xmikx | 136350 | ||
Well, acutally you are wrong. That was my first post on this subject, you must be confused as to who said what. Since you state you are a member of the Assemblies of God Church, shouldn't you say, 'a statement of what WE believe' instead of they believe? You state that you have given scriptures to prove it, but it seems that you are the only one you have proved it to. From reading the posts from the other forum contributers, it appears that you have not proved anything to them and especially me. Did you read the scripture in 1 Peter 2:24-25? It clearly states that we might die to sin and are to live to righteousness as a result of Christ's wounds and suffering. It does not say anything about being physically healed as a result of His death and resurrection. It is referring to a spiritual healing. Please take a look at the commentaries at www.crosswalk.com . They have very good Bible study tools on this website with many different commentaries. | ||||||
31 | claiming things in your life | Is 53:5 | xmikx | 136345 | ||
You may rest your case all you like and you have every right to do so. But, if you will read 1 Peter 2:24-25 with an open mind and not how you already perceive healing being provided in the atonement, it might show you something different. Here is 1 Peter 2:24-25 (NASB) 1 Peter 2 24 and He Himself (1) bore our sins in His body on the (2) cross, so that we (3) might die to sin and live to righteousness; for (4) by His wounds you were (5) healed. 25 For you were (6) continually straying like sheep, but now you have returned to the (7) Shepherd and Guardian of your souls. If you notice, the scripture says so that we might die to sin and live to righteousness; for by His wounds you were healed. Righteousness means without guilt or sin. That is what we gain from Christ dying for us on the cross. We will, one day, live in righteousness, but until then we are to continue living for God in every aspect of our lives. Praise God that you were healed as my daughter was healed by God when the doctors thought she should have never made it through the pregnancy. And I don't mean to start any argument, but since when did the Assemblies of God position paper take precedence over the Bible? |
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32 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | xmikx | 136155 | ||
Excellent post pcdarcan. You make the same point as I, but in a much more convincing manner. It is very clear to me that Paul is referring to Satan. You have to read the entire verse to really see how 'the god of this world' is not referring to God. Why would God want to blind the eyes of the unbelievers from the glory of his Son? Please go to the following link for a very detailed explanation of this verse using Robertson's Word Pictures of the New Testament. It will not let me paste the passage here as it contains words or letters (i don't know which) in what I assume is Greek. This is a very good explanation of 2 Cor 4:4. http://bible.crosswalk.com/Commentaries/RobertsonsWordPictures/ and then just click on the book, chapter and verse to see Robertson's commentary. |
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33 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | xmikx | 135940 | ||
Every verse below is from NASB. 2 Corinthians 4 4 in whose case (1) the god of (2) this world has (3) blinded the minds of the unbelieving so that they might not see the (4) light of the gospel of the (5) glory of Christ, who is the (6) image of God. Reference point (1) is John 12:31 which is the following: John 12 31 "(1) Now judgment is upon this world; now (2) the ruler of this world will be cast out. John 12:31 lists 1 John 5:19 as a cross reference which is the following: 1 John 5 19 (1) We know that (2) we are of God, and that (3) the whole world lies in the power of the evil one. 1 John 5:19 lists John 17:15 as a cross reference which is the following and this is Jesus speaking: 15 "I do not ask You to take them out of the world, but to keep them from (39) the evil one. Now I ask, who is referred to in each of these verses as being opposed to what God wants for His children? The only answer is Satan. Yes, I know that Satan is not mentioned in any of the above verses, but it is implied that is who each of the verses is referring to. In no way am I trying to compare Jesus and Satan, but 2 Cor 4:4 uses god and not God. There is a huge difference between little g god and BIG G GOD. There are numerous times in the Bible where Jesus is referred to many different words/titles other than Jesus Christ. He is referred to as the Way, the Truth, the Light, the Savior, Lord and many others. Each time we know the author is referring to our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. When the author uses 'the god of this world' with the little g, he is referring to Satan and is using the word god, not calling him God. The end of the verse is as follows: the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. Here the author uses big G which is intended for the God of the universe. The God that created everything in six days. The God that sent his only son to die on a cross for mine and your sins. The God of love. Have a wonderful day and remember that God loves you more than you can comprehend. Mike |
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34 | 2 corn. 4:4 the god of this world hath b | 2 Cor 4:1 | xmikx | 135939 | ||
Hey Tim. I agree with you on the New Living Translation bible. I know it is not a word for word translation only a phrase for phrase translation. But I do not feel they changed the meaning of the text. This verse is speaking of Satan as being the one who has blinded the eyes of the unbelieving so that the unbelieving will not see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ who is the image of God. You say they potentially change the meaning of the text, but that is not the case of 2 Cor 4:4. You also state the Living Bible 'adds' it anyway. The way you wrote your post is as if the Living Bible is the only translation/version that has 'added' things. If you will search any verse on this website, it lists both the NASB and the Amplified translations. They are not exact matches for the exact same verse. The Amplified translation has many 'added' words/phrases that do not appear in the NASB or any other version of the Bible. I am not trying to attack you or any other version or translation of the Bible, I am merely stating my opinion as you did about the Living Bible translation. Mike |
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35 | Interracial marriages? Bible says what? | 2 Cor 6:14 | xmikx | 135844 | ||
Yeah man, we are cool on this subject. The end result is God loves all. Just read John 3:16 and really think about what Jesus did for all and it makes me go WOW!!!!! He did that for me. Thank you Jesus for loving me that much!!! | ||||||
36 | Interracial marriages? Bible says what? | 2 Cor 6:14 | xmikx | 135834 | ||
Hank, I completely agree with you. The post prior just mentioned that mixed marriage was not discussed in the Bible. I merely posted two different passages where mixed marriage is mentioned in the Bible. Maybe I should have included more information, but someone mentioned to me to not read too much into what is not in the scripture. I only included the verses. It is then left up to the individual to study its significance. | ||||||
37 | Interracial marriages? Bible says what? | 2 Cor 6:14 | xmikx | 135625 | ||
Please read the following two examples taken from the NASB... This is Ezra 9:1-2. Mixed Marriages 1 Now when these things had been completed, the princes approached me, saying, "The people of Israel and the priests and the Levites have not (1) separated themselves from the peoples of the lands, (2) according to their abominations, those of the Canaanites, the Hittites, the Perizzites, the Jebusites, the Ammonites, the Moabites, the Egyptians and the Amorites. 2 "For (3) they have taken some of their daughters as wives for themselves and for their sons, so that (4) the holy race has (5) intermingled with the peoples of the lands; indeed, the hands of the princes and the rulers have been foremost in this unfaithfulness." This is Nehemiah 13:22-24 also from NASB. Mixed Marriages Forbidden 23 In those days I also saw that the Jews had (3) married women from (4) Ashdod, (5) Ammon and Moab. 24 As for their children, half spoke in the language of Ashdod, and none of them was able to speak the language of Judah, but the language of his own people. I hope this will help clarify the situation for you and your grandson as well as anyone else reading about this subject. It is covered in the word of God. |
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38 | Are angels sinful? | Heb 12:26 | xmikx | 135593 | ||
Tim, I can agree with everything you say. Maybe I am adding or reading too much into what is actually not there. I also agree that rule or reign is a poor choice of words on my part. God is only allowing him to influence us in this world. During the time mentioned in Revelation, God will not allow Satan to have any control during Christ's 1000 year reign. |
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39 | Are angels sinful? | Heb 12:26 | xmikx | 135585 | ||
Thanks Tim for the welcome. I really enjoy this website. This is Rev 12: 1-6 from NIV translation. 1And I saw an angel coming down out of heaven, having the key to the Abyss and holding in his hand a great chain. 2He seized the dragon, that ancient serpent, who is the devil, or Satan, and bound him for a thousand years. 3He threw him into the Abyss, and locked and sealed it over him, to keep him from deceiving the nations anymore until the thousand years were ended. After that, he must be set free for a short time. 4I saw thrones on which were seated those who had been given authority to judge. And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony for Jesus and because of the word of God. They had not worshiped the beast or his image and had not received his mark on their foreheads or their hands. They came to life and reigned with Christ a thousand years. 5(The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended.) This is the first resurrection. 6Blessed and holy are those who have part in the first resurrection. The second death has no power over them, but they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with him for a thousand years. This is my take on this. If Satan is going to be locked in the abyss for a thousand years while Jesus rules on earth, where is Satan ruling now? If Jesus is going to rule on earth during this 1000 year period mentioned in Revelation (which is in the future) who rules on earth now? Fellow heir, Mike Nash |
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40 | Are angels sinful? | Heb 12:26 | xmikx | 135572 | ||
I do not dispute anything you say in this last note. Everything that you state about the Bible is accurate. Also, everything you say here is what I said in my note. Satan and one third of innumerable number of all angels fell to earth just after the war with Michael and his angels. If you will carefully read the last part of my note, I was not quoting scripture. The end of my note is a paraphrase of what happened to Satan after he fell. He does rule and reign on earth today and will continue to have his way until Christ begins His 1000 year reign of heaven on earth. | ||||||
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