Results 21 - 36 of 36
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Results from: Notes Author: Michael T. Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Predestination | Eccl 6:10 | Michael T. | 197732 | ||
Greetings, Timothy, Part 4 – Final: Tim Moran: "(b) all the remainder; i.e. all unbelievers, a.k.a. the Reprobate or non-elect, in respect of whom it was always the will of GOD that they should be excluded from salvation, and who all inevitably perish in their sin and unbelief [Revelation 20:15; Matthew 25:41; Revelation 21:8]." My reply: If your theories were true; i.e. that “God wants to save everyone in the entire human race” and “Christ died for everyone in the entire man race” - then everyone of the entire human race would be saved without any exception. But it’s obvious from every-day common-sense observation, that this is certainly* not * the case - or are you classifying the current world combined population of 2,500 Billion Hindus and Buddhists and Islamics and Taoists and Confucianists as all born-anew disciples of Jesus Christ?? Please consider Christ’s statement in Gospel of John 6:44 – Gospel of John 6:44 - “NO ONE can come to Me UNLESS the Father Who has sent Me draws him: and I will raise him up at the last day.” Since coming to Christ is essential for salvation, and since no one can come to Christ UNLESS they are drawn to Christ by GOD the Father, it is obvious that in respect of all who perish in their unbelief and sin, that it never was the will of GOD that any of those people should be saved, for had it been, GOD the Father would certainly have drawn them to Christ. Christ’s statement in Gospel of John 6:44 is therefore conclusive Divine proof that those whom God desires to save - as in 1 Timothy 2:4 and 1 Timothy 2:6 – are those whom GOD the Father has from before Creation chosen to save, as described by the Apostle Paul in Ephesians 1:3-11 and elsewhere in the Scriptures. You also need to recognise that (a) salvation is only by saving Faith in Christ and (Romans 3:25-26; Galatians 3:14) and that (b) saving Faith is the gift of God (Romans 12:3; Acts 18:27; Titus 1:1; 2 Peter 1:1) Therefore it is very evident indeed that in respect of all who do not have saving Faith in Christ and who thus inevitably perish [see John 3:16], that it never was the will of GOD that any of those who perish should be saved, for had it been, GOD would assuredly have given them His gift of saving Faith. But He did not do so. Thus your universalistic ideas are proven to be contrary to and denied by the Scriptures. Regards, Michael T. |
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22 | Predestination | Eccl 6:10 | Michael T. | 197731 | ||
Greetings, Tim, (Continuation of reply – Part 3) Tim Moran also wrote: “Romans 5:18 – ‘Consequently, just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men, so also the result of one act of righteousness was justification that brings life for all men.’" My reply: This is yet another example where you have hacked an individual verse out of its context, totally ignored the remainder of Chapter Five of Romans and you have treated the remainder of the Letter to the Romans and the Scriptures as a whole as though it either doesn’t exist or is of no significance whatsoever. Ask yourself this: Does your isolationist treatment of the Scriptures display the reverence and respect due to the Scriptures? It obviously does not. When you examine the preceding verse of Romans 5:17 – which you omitted to recognise, you will see that the people in Romans 5:18b to whom the free gift actually comes upon are unto justification of life are identified in Romans 5:17 as those who "receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness," and who thus "reign in life.” Since Romans 5:1 tells us that justification is only through faith, and Romans 3:25-26 tell us that salvation is reserved for those who have saving Faith in Christ and for no others than these, it is therefore obvious that the term “all men” in Romans 5:18b refers to all those who have saving Faith in Christ and to no others than these, which is confirmed by John 3:16 which states that al who do not have saving Faith in Christ will perish. See also Gospel of John 3:36. Gospel of John 3:36 – “He who believes on the Son has everlasting life: and he that does not believe on the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abides on him.” Tim Moran also wrote: “Yet, there is not a single verse of Scripture which states that Christ did not die for all.” My reply: Then it’s evident that you need to study the Scriptures – all the Scriptures - much more thoroughly. Begin by considering Gospel of John 10:11 in the context of John chapter 10 - “I am the good shepherd: the good shepherd gives his life for the sheep.” Also reflect on Gospel of John 10:26 in the context of John chapter 10 – “But you do not believe because you are not of my sheep, as I said unto you.” Tim Moran also wrote: Yet, inferences are made from Scripture to support that Christ did not die for all, inferences which are not justified by the texts. For instance, look at the verses used in your post to support the view that " it was always the will of GOD that they should be excluded from salvation." They simply do not say any such thing. Here are the complete texts of the verses: 1) Revelation 20:15 - "If anyone’s name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire." Nothing is said in this verse about God's eternal will for these individuals.” My reply: It’s obvious from Revelation 21:8 that the lake of fire which GOD has reserved for the type of people described in that verse is everlasting in duration, as evidenced by the term “second death.” Try to avoid jumping to off-the-cuff conclusions. Instead, spend much more time in carefully reflecting on each verse, and the context of each verse, and then consider each individual verse in the context of all the Scriptures. Then and only then, form your conclusion. Never impose your own personal opinions on the Scriptures but allow the Scriptures to speak for themselves by the Holy Spirit of God because this is how God has designed His Scriptures to operate. Tim Moran wrote: 2) Matthew 25:41 - "‘‘Then he will say to those on his left, ‘Depart from me, you who are cursed, into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels."" Again, no mention of God's eternal will for these individuals.” My reply: I'm surprised that you haven’t realised what is very obvious; i.e. that the phrase “Eternal Fire” clearly refers to an eternal and therefore everlasting punishment for all those rejected by the Son of Man i.e. Christ. Thus, God’s eternal will for all such people is blatantly obvious. Tim Moran: 3) Revelation 21:8 - "But the cowardly, the unbelieving, the vile, the murderers, the sexually immoral, those who practice magic arts, the idolaters and all liars—their place will be in the fiery lake of burning sulfur. This is the second death." Again, no mention of God's eternal will for these individuals.” My reply: The term ”second death” clearly emphasises the enduring nature of the punishment to which GOD condemns all who do not repent and believe on Christ and who perish in unbelief. Revelation 21:8 is also conclusive proof that the superstitious theories of “universal atonement” and “universal salvation” are denied by GOD in His Scriptures. Final comments to follow in Part 4 of 4/ Regards, Michael |
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23 | Predestination | Eccl 6:10 | Michael T. | 197730 | ||
Greetings, Tim, (Continuation of reply – Part 2) Michael T. to Tim Moran: Again, if you consider Christ to have died on behalf of, atoned for the sins of, and bore the penalty of the sins of everyone of the entire human race in all generations from Adam and Eve unto the end of the world without any exception whatsoever, have you realised that by doing so, you’re implying that God is an unjust despotic tyrant because you infer that God requires a double penalty in respect of condemned sinners; once by Christ on the cross, and again by those sinners who have been sent to Hell. By now it should be evident that there are major problems with the totally unBiblical concepts of “universal atonement” and “universal salvation.” But these problems don't exist when we consider each verse of Scripture in the context of all the Scriptures and also in the context of the chapter and book in which each verse is located. When you begin to apply this essential exegetical policy, as do all competent students of the Scriptures, you will also discover that terms such as “all men,” and ”all,” and ”world” are synonyms for particular classes and categories of people; i.e. these terms aren’t referring to the entire human race in all generations, as you’ve assumed. Tim Moran also wrote: “Scripture also says, Hebrews 2:9 – ‘But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.’” My reply: Thanks for supplying us with this excellent example of the major errors in interpretation which invariably occur when individual verses of Scripture are wrenched out of their contexts and without any recognition or consideration for the contexts from which they have been hacked, or for the context of the Scriptures as a whole. The writer of the Letter to the Hebrews did not send his audience a single verse; no, he wrote an entire letter which in our Bibles, consists of 323 verses. For each individual verse of the Letter to the Hebrews to be properly and accurately considered and weighed, it must not be held in isolation but it must always be considered in the context of the entire Letter and also in its immediate context. Similarly, the Letter to the Hebrews must never be considered in isolation from the remainder of the Scriptures, but to be properly understood, it must always be considered as an integral part of the Canon of the Old Testament and New Testament Scriptures. If you had considered Hebrews 2:9 in its immediate context; you would have noticed from Hebrews 2:10 “many sons”; Hebrews 2:11-12 “brethren”; and Hebrews 2:13 “the children whom God has given to Me,” that the term “every man” refers exclusively to elect believers in Christ but not to “everyone of the entire human race in all generations from Creation until the end of the world without any exception whatsoever.” It’s evident that when the term “every man” occurs in the Scriptures it does not necessarily mean “everyone of 6he entire human race in all generations from Creation until the end of the world without any exception” and it is simplistic and altogether mistaken to blandly assume that it does. Colossians 1:28 and 1 Corinthians 12:7 are but two examples where the term “all men” has an obviously restrictive sense; i.e. believers. Remainder of reply to follow. Regards, Michael |
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24 | Predestination | Eccl 6:10 | Michael T. | 197729 | ||
Greetings, Tim, Tim: First of all, welcome to the forum! Michael: Thanks. I’m looking forward to exploring the Scriptures with you. Michael T. wrote: "Since the Scriptures confirm (refer Ephesians 1:3-11 and Romans 8:29-30) that Election and Pre-destination to salvation are Divinely-accomplished Facts which were completed by God the Father from before the creation of the universe, this itself proves that Christ's atonement was always intended to be limited; i.e. not universal in its practical extent." Tim Moran replied: “The problem with this statement is that it is based upon assumption concerning the meanings of these terms rather that what Scripture actually says. For instance, did Christ only die for the 'elect'? Scripture never says such a thing.” Michael T.: You’re mistaken, because you’ve a mere cursory consideration to these passages of Scripture. I suggest that you re-examine those two passages of Scripture’ namely, Ephesians 1:3-11 and Romans 8:28-30, and also consider their implications. These two passages conclusively confirm that Election and Pre-destination are Divinely-established facts, and prove that salvation in all its aspects and the extent thereof have always been determined and governed by the sovereign will of GOD. Please also carefully consider 2 Timothy 1:9; and 2 Thessalonians 2:13, and their implications. Are you aware of Christ’s statements in the Scriptures that declare and confirm that salvation is limited in extent to those whom God the Father has given to Christ? For example, refer to John 17:2 Gospel of John 17:1-2 - “These words spoke Jesus, and lifted up His eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify Thy Son, that Thy Son also may glorify Thee: As Thou hast given Him power over all flesh, that He should give eternal life to as many as Thou hast given to Him.” Thus Christ Himself, in His full Divine authority as the only-begotten Son, declares and confirms that the practical extent of salvation by grace is limited to all those whom GOD the Father has given to the Son. It therefore follows that in respect of all who perish in their unbelief and sin, that it never was the will of God that any of those perished ones that they should be saved, for had it been so, the Father would have given those people to the Son. But He did not do so. Therefore they all inevitably perished. Although many people are of the mistaken opinion that “universal salvation” is God’s will, this idea is denied and refuted by Christ and His Apostles in the Scriptures. Tim Moran also wrote: “Scripture does say: 1 Timothy 2:3-6 – 3 ‘This is good, and pleases God our Savior, 4 who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, 6 who gave himself as a ransom for all men—the testimony given in its proper time.’” My reply: Quite apart from the fact that you’ve obviously omitted to consider 1 Timothy 2:3-6 in its context * and * in the context of * All * the Scriptures, you seem to be assuming that the term “all men” must always only mean everyone of the entire human race ever to have existed from Creation till the end of time without any exception. Please confirm. If so, i.e. if you’re advocating the fanciful theories of “universal atonement” and “universal salvation,” you then have the problem of trying to explain why the LORD God is blatantly incompetent and manifestly incapable of accomplishing that which you assume He wants and-or desires to do; which, according to you, is to save everyone of the entire human race in all generations from Adam and Eve to the end of the world without any exception. If, according to your universalistic spin on 1 Timothy 2:3-6, God wants to save every individual person of the entire human race in all generations from Adam and Eve to the end of the world without any exception, how do you reconcile your theory of “universal salvation” with the fact that in the centuries from Creation till Christ’s incarnation in 6 BC, innumerable millions of people perished in unbelief and sin and were justly condemned to eternal punishment in Hell to bear the penalty of their sins. Surely a god that according to you, wants everyone without any exception to be saved, could have and should have saved those sinners now in Hell. But he-it did not do so. Why not? I await your explanation with much interest. Remainder of reply to follow. Regards, Michael |
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25 | Predestination | Eccl 6:10 | Michael T. | 197538 | ||
Since the Scriptures confirm (refer Ephesians 1:3-11 and Romans 8:29-30) that Election and Pre-destination to salvation are Divinely-accomplished Facts which were completed by God the Father from before the creation of the universe, this itself proves that Christ's atonement was always intended to be limited; i.e. not universal in its practical extent. Election as such is discriminatory in principle; i.e. an *election* inevitably implies an *exclusion from election.* Therefore, the Biblical facts of election and pre-destination to salvation inevitably implies that there will be an exclusion from the elective choice, which in this context is an exclusion from salvation of the non-elect; i.e. the Reprobate. Election to salvation and its inevitable corollary of Reprobation are both implied in John 3:16. John 3:16 in effect divides the entire human race into two groups; (a) those are given God's gift of saving faith [Romans 12:3; Titus 1:1; 2 Peter 1:1; Acts 13:48; John 10:26; Acts 18:27, etc.] and who, impelled by God’s sovereign grace, believe on and trust in Christ the only-begotten Son of God and who are then given everlasting life, and (b) all the remainder; i.e. all unbelievers, a.k.a. the Reprobate or non-elect, in respect of whom it was always the will of GOD that they should be excluded from salvation, and who all inevitably perish in their sin and unbelief [Revelation 20:15; Matthew 25:41; Revelation 21:8]. The wide-spread but sadly mistaken superstition that salvation depends upon the decision of unregenerate and therefore spiritually-dead and spiritually-blind people, has no basis in the Scriptures. Instead, Christ and His Apostles repeatedly teach and emphasise in the Scriptures that the sovereignty of God – Who works all things according to the counsel of His own will (refer Ephesians 1:11b) - always omnipotently prevails throughout the entire salvation process, from before Creation to ultimate glory. |
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26 | double predestination con | Rom 5:12 | Michael T. | 197528 | ||
Hi, Brad K. Thanks for the advice. It may be that since my comments are still valid from the Biblical viewpoint, perhaps others may wish to respond. Regards, Michael |
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27 | Not my will? | Rom 5:6 | Michael T. | 197514 | ||
Greetings, You said: “If predestination inevitably leads to regeneration, (I imagine you mean rebirth) and belief in Christ. Why then do we have the scripture that many are called but few are chosen? (Matthew 22:14) This would seem to me to be saying that all who are called, (predestined) will not be chosen because of unbelief.” My reply: Matthew 22:14 is often ripped out of its context and used as supposed support – with no Biblical justification whatsoever – for a hypothetical “dual-calling” scenario; in which everyone without any exception is supposedly called to respond to the Gospel, but only “the lucky few” are chosen. This peculiar idea is utterly foreign to the Scriptures. The Biblical Fact is that there is only one Divine call to salvation and that Divine is always effectual to those who are called to salvation, and those who are so called are always none other than God’s elect and pre-destinated people. Others; i.e. the Reprobate, are never called to be saved because it was never the will of GOD that any of the Reprobate be saved. This misuse of Matthew 22:14 is impliedly insulting to GOD’s character because it infers that (a) GOD is double-minded in that He calls those who He never intended to save, and (b) GOD is frustrated in His illogical calling of the Reprobate. Since the context of Matthew 22:14 [refer Matthew 21:23 onwards] clearly shows that Christ is addressing the Jewish religious leaders per se, Matthew 22:14 is totally Irrelevant to Election and Pre-destination unto salvation, described by the Apostle Paul in Romans 8:28-30 [see below]. Even though Matthew 22:14 includes the words “called” and chosen,” this doesn’t justify the popular but obviously mistaken simplistic assumption that Christ is thereby alluding to salvation by grace as referred to by Christ and His apostles. Romans 8:29-30 - “For whom He did foreknow, He also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom He did predestinate, them He also called: and whom He called, them He also justified: and whom He justified, them He also glorified.” Romans 8:29-30 clearly confirms that the number of those who are called is precisely synonymous with those who have been pre-destinated (and thus elected) to salvation, and those who are justified and ultimately glorified. God’s calling of His elect and pre-destinated people is always entirely effectual. Only GOD’s elect people are called to salvation; there id no other calling to salvation; no others are called to salvation, and it is presumptuous and insulting to GOD’s integrity to insist otherwise. You also said: “We also have those who come to Christ believing they were entitled to enter the Kingdom of Heaven. They said, Lord, Lord, we have prophesied, cast out demons, and done many wonderful things in your name. Jesus said, get away from me, I never knew you; depart from me you evildoers.” My reply: Your reference is to Matthew 7:21-23, and those whom Christ commanded to depart from Him were obviously mere empty professors; “christians” in name only, tares among the wheat, reprobate, and therefore they were justly condemned by the Saviour of GOD’s elect. These people were never called by GOD; instead, they called themselves, i.e. they were mere “free-will" decisionists, unregenerate, mere religionists, and there are vast numbers of such people in today’s “churchianity.” Regards, Michael |
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28 | double predestination con | Rom 5:12 | Michael T. | 197512 | ||
Greetings, You said: “Romans 5:12 clearly states that "ALL" men have sinned and have acquired the death penalty for Adam's likeness.” Agreed. You then said: “We are all predestined to spend eternity in hell because of the fall unless we are saved by God's grace before our physical death.” I disagree because your idea that God “predestined the entire human race to spend eternity in hell” implies that God later changed his mind – which unfortunately implies fickleness and double-mindedness on God’s part ! - when He predestinated many to be brought to salvation and be adopted as His dear children [Ephesians 1:3-11]. In other words, you’re postulating * two * Predestinations whereas there is but * one * Predestination in the Scriptures; which is predestination (because of election) unto salvation, as declared by the Apostle Paul in Ephesians 1:3-11 and Romans 8:28-30]. Reprobation is a Biblical Fact because it is the inevitable corollary of Election and Predestination unto salvation because all those excluded from God’s elective choice unto salvation are inevitably relegated to eternal condemnation. May I suggest to you that the phrase “election and reprobation” is more accurate than “double-predestination” and therefore preferable. Do you agree? Regards, Michael |
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29 | Basis of election and predestination? | Eph 1:5 | Michael T. | 197511 | ||
Greetings, Please forgive me for this my delayed reply to your comments on 8-Dec-2007. It’s been a busy week. You said: “You stated; "Faith is itself the gift of God to His elect" Based upon that statement, let me counter by saying that if faith is a gift then why does Romans 8:17 say "faith comes by hearing." Because God’s gift of saving Faith comes through the hearing of the good news [i.e. Gospel] of Christ. The Gospel and its proclamation is God’s appointed medium through which He effectually calls and draws His chosen ones to Christ by the irresistible impulsion of God the Holy Spirit. You said: “If faith was merely a gift, it would simply be given without the necessity of hearing.” “Merely a gift”? I'm perturbed that you consider saving Faith as only a “mere” gift? I say this because Salvation in all of its manifold aspects is a Gift; Justification is a gift, God’s indispensable grace is what it says it is - a gift; saving Repentance is a gift; effectual calling is a gift; Christ Himself is God’s gift to all of His elect people. Are all these but “mere” gifts”? You said: “I have read where Spurgeon described faith as a grasp rather than a gift. ‘I believe that, although I cannot swim, yonder friendly plank will support me in the flood, I grasp it, and am saved: the grasp is faith.’ - Spurgeon - The Warrant of Faith.” Spurgeon was speaking metaphorically. Figures of speech are no substitute for Biblical Facts. As a matter of principle, our theology must always be rooted and grounded in God’s infallible Scriptures; not on men’s oratory. The Scriptures state that saving Faith is the gift of God, and that determines the matter. And in reading Spurgeon’s allusion to saving Faith in the excerpt above, whether Spurgeon overlooked that the Biblical truth that Regeneration [the new birth from above – John 3:3-8] always must and does precedes the giving of saving Faith? I've also detected universalistic tendencies in Spurgeon’s oratory and therefore I increasingly treat his writings with caution. To sum up, although he was a prolific preacher, Spurgeon was far from infallible. His sermons and writings, and everyone else’s statements and opinions, must always be very carefully weighed against the sure litmus-test of the Scriptures. Finally, Sola Scriptura is always the incomparable Divinely-established criterion and only sure light and lamp for all authentic believers. The LORD God and His inspired Scriptures are always infinitely worthy of trust; all else is questionable. Regards, Michael |
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30 | Basis of election and predestination? | Eph 1:5 | Michael T. | 197200 | ||
Point noted, THanks Doc. BTW, how do I locate your e-mail address? Regards, Michael |
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31 | Basis of election and predestination? | Eph 1:5 | Michael T. | 197199 | ||
Hi, The “foreknowledge” referred to in 1 Peter 1:2 is God the Father’s foreknowledge from before Creation of those persons as such who He had chosen (elected and predestinated) to be brought to salvation by grace. This “foreknowledge” in 1 Peter 2:1 cannot be taken as referring to any hypothetical foreseeing by God that such people would have faith or would trust in Christ or would persevere, because the Scriptures are emphatic that saving Faith is itself the gift of God to His elect (Romans 12:3; Titus 1:1; 2 Peter 1:1; Galatians 5:22; Acts 13:48; Acts 18:27, and John 10:26), and the preservation of God’s elect people is also declared by the Scriptures to be by God’s grace [John 6:39-40; John 6:44, and John 10:28-29). Ephesians 1:3-11 repeatedly emphasises that God’s election and pre-destination of His people from before Creation took no account whatsoever of any supposed merit or goodness in them because the universally-depraving effects of the Fall of Man (Genesis 3, Romans 12:3; Romans 3:9-18 etc.) ensured that all of 6the human race without any exception were all spiritually-dead in trespasses and sins (Romans 3:23) and were thus incapable of doing and/or being Good in the sight of God. Romans 9:11-13 is a remarkable statement of Election (and therefore salvation) entirely on the basis of underserved grace: Romans 9:11-13 - [9] “For this is the word of promise, At this time will I come, and Sara shall have a son. [10] And not only this; but when Rebecca also had conceived by one, even by our father Isaac; [11] (For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of Him Who calls;) [12] It was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger. [13] As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated.” Particularly note the phrase in Romans 9, verse 11b “ . . . that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of Him Who calls.” This is an outstanding declaration of the absolute sovereignty of God’s grace in election and salvation. I hope that these comments are helpful. Please let me know id any point is not entirely clear. Regards, Michael T. |
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32 | What does Bible teach on election? | Bible general Archive 1 | Michael T. | 197112 | ||
Greetings Azure, Thanks for helping me in my navigation of the Forum. It's much appreciated. Michael |
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33 | Predestination is all of grace. | Eph 1:5 | Michael T. | 197097 | ||
Hi Doc, Thanks for your reply and also for your kind welcome to this Forum. I regret my delay in replying - being a newcomer, I'm still finding my way around. Glad to know that we’re on the same wave-length in respect of Predestination. It hasn’t always been that way for me; usually the opposite. [smile]. Thanks too for the Don Fortner excerpt which I've filed away for future reference and also appreciation. I've found John Owen, the 17th. Century English Puritan to be a great help in understanding the truths and practicalities of Christ’s Atonement; are you acquainted with his writings; e.g. “The Death of Death in the Death of Christ”? Looking forward to sharing with you in the Scriptures, Regards and thanks, Michael |
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34 | What does Bible teach on election? | Bible general Archive 1 | Michael T. | 197096 | ||
Hi, You said: “I do believe your interpretation of Divine Predestination. I guess where I disagree is interpretation of Election. In the verse you listed (2 Thessalonians 2:13), I interpret this as follows: Paul is writing to a group of believers and when he refers to "God has chosen (elected) you from the beginning for salvation", he's not telling them that they are special because God had pre-chosen them individually, but God had made a provision for them to be saved and they are special (the "Elect" or in today's terms "the born-again" or "believers") because they accepted God's gift and chose to follow Christ.” My comments: You may wish to consider Acts 13:48 which “puts the horse before the cart and in doing so, totally reverses your idea that Election is the * result * or the effect of faith. Acts 13:48 - “And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed.” Note the order in Acts 13:48n. It does NOT say “ . . . as many as believed were ordained to eternal life.” Instead, what Acts 13:48b DOES say is: “ . . . as many as were ordained to eternal life believed.” Thus believing on Christ unto salvation is the Effect – not the Cause – of God’s Election and Pre-destination. Christ’s statement in Gospel of John 10:26 is also very relevant to this issue because Christ Himself in His full Divine authority, makes it very clear that Faith and thus salvation is the effect of God’s Election, not the cause, as you’ve incorrectly assumed. Gospel of John 10:26 - “But you do not believe, because you are not of my sheep, as I said to you.” The Bible teaches that the good news that Salvation in all of its aspects, is always entirely by God’s grace. To put it another way, whether we know it or not and whether we accept it or not, we are always dependent upon God at every step. Personally, I wouldn’t want it any other way because although I know that GOD is always infinitely worthy of trust and altogether reliable in every way, I myself am not. So I'm most grateful that my salvation always depends, not on me, but only on Him; i.e. on GOD through Jesus Christ. The bad news is that if our salvation depended on us, then we’d all end up in Hell. Even though we may disagree, I'm willing to talk this topic through with you on a friendly basis if you wish. Michael |
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35 | What does Bible teach on election? | Bible general Archive 1 | Michael T. | 197095 | ||
Hi, The good news is that predestination is a Fact, not a theory, and the glorious news is that it, i.e. Predestination, has been an established fact even before Creation. I know this for an absolute certainty because it says so in the Bible. If you wish to see it for yourself, as I really hope you’ll do, take a look at chapter 1 of the New Testament Letter to the Ephesians, verses 3 to 11. Also look up chapter 8 of the Letter to the Romans, verses 28 through 30. Although we may disagree, that needn’t hinder us from discussing this topic of Predestination together if you wish. Cheers, Michael |
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36 | Predestination is all of grace. | Eph 1:5 | Michael T. | 197093 | ||
Thanks for the invitation and the link. I'll take a look. Regards, Michael |
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