Results 21 - 40 of 63
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Bill Mc Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Lifting up of hands? | Ps 63:4 | Bill Mc | 13978 | ||
Worship is more than having your hands raised. Consider Romans 12:1 - "Therefore, I urge you, brethren, by the mercies of God, to present your bodies a living and holy sacrifice, acceptable to God, which is your SPIRITUAL SERVICE of WORSHIP." Paul says here that a true spiritual "worship service" is making your body availible for Christ to live through. This is the only place that I know of in the NT where "worship services" are discussed ;) In Christ, Bill Mc |
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22 | healing | Ps 103:3 | Bill Mc | 19873 | ||
Dear James48, I believe that there are two aspects to the answer to your question, brother. One aspect is that all sins, those committed before the cross and those committed after the cross, were judged at the cross. The verdict was that all mankind was guilty and, in mercy, Christ took the punishment. Heb 9:15 tells us that all the sins committed before Christ sacrifice at Calvary were in 'forbearance.' It was kind of like a credit card. Old Testament believers could experience forgiveness, but it wasn't paid for yet. We too experience forgiveness but, for us, the price has been paid. The bottom line is that forgiveness for sins is a spiritual issue. That issue was dealt with at Calvary once-for-all. On the other hand, healing of physical diseases is not turly a spiritual issue. Our bodies are still unredeemed, still fallen as it were. The same is true of this old world we live it. The law of entropy is still in full effect. And, with few exceptions, our bodies return to the dust from which they are made. Disease is a part of that process unfortunately. Any healing that God grants to these mortals bodies is a band-aid at best. They are all headed for the grave. Can God and does God heal diseases? Yes, He does. There are numerous examples in the Bible where God has healed diseases instanteously (leprosy, the issue of blood, blindness, lameness, etc.). Some were healed gradually. Some were never healed for various reasons. But it is not correct to assume that if you are not healed, then there is unconfessed sin in your life or that God is punishing you for sin. If you are a believer, God exacted all punishment for sin upon Jesus Christ. God's ultimate reason for healing us, James48, is to bring glory and honor to Himself. He makes the decisions as to when, where and through whom He does that. Having said all of that, there is certainly nothing wrong with beseeching the Lord for physical healing. In James 5:14, God says to call for the elders to pray over the sick. Does God allow some to suffer? Yes, He does. Paul describes many who were martyred for the sake of the gospel. And he says that all these things conform us to the image of Christ. 2 Cor 4:7-11 says, 'But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, so that the surpassing greatness of the power will be of God and not from ourselves; we are afflicted in every way, but not crushed; perplexed, but not despairing; persecuted, but not forsaken; struck down, but not destroyed; always carrying about in the body the dying of Jesus, so that the life of Jesus also may be manifested in our body. For we who live are constantly being delivered over to death for Jesus' sake, so that the life of Jesus also may be manifested in our mortal flesh.' There is an ultimate healing coming. Christ assures us of this. For the believer it is a new redeemed body waiting in heaven for us. I hope this helps you, James48. In Christ, Bill Mc |
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23 | Did Satan wait to tempt Jesus? | Matt 4:2 | Bill Mc | 20049 | ||
Dear mylene, Searcher56 has explained those related passages very well. I just had a couple of other thoughts to share. As you know from precept, letting scripture interpret scripture is very important. And, without getting into any 'theomatic' discussions, the number 40 is frequently used in the Bible as a time of testing. It rained for 40 days and nights when the earth was being flooded. The Israelites scouted out (tested) Canaanland for 40 days to see what the conditions were there. Of course, after refusing to enter, they were 'tested' in the wilderness for 40 years, 1 year for every day spent in Canaanland. Moses was on the mountain for 40 days and nights before God gave him the 10 Commandments. Goliath 'tested' and taunted Israel every morning for 40 days. So, along with what Searcher has posted, I think that the 40 days and nights were a time of testing and temptation for our Lord. I hope this helps. In Christ, Bill Mc |
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24 | Did you forgive the Tuesday terrorists? | Matt 6:14 | Bill Mc | 16275 | ||
Dear Forum Readers, there are many who read this forum seeking scriptural answers to questions concerning life, death, God, man and the forgiveness of sins. We are all at different levels of spiritual maturity, growing in our knowledge of our Lord and His love. Please allow me to reassure some of you regarding the forgiveness of sins. It is being implied in this thread that if you, personally, do not forgive the terrorist for their sins, then God will not or has not forgiven you. This is a grave misunderstanding. Your forgiveness of sins before God is not based upon the above verse out of Matthew. The forgiveness of sins is based entirely upon Christ's redemptive work on the cross. "Without the shedding of blood, there is no forgiveness of sins" - Hebrews 9:22. Christ shed blood at the cross is what provides that forgiveness. All the Old Testament points to that one sacrifice at the cross and all the New Testament points back to it. If you are a believer in Jesus Christ, you have the forgiveness of your sins. Please see the following verses: Jesus said at the cross, in Luke 23:34 - "Father, forgive them, because they don't know what they are doing." That forgiveness for sins is only received upon placing one's faith in Christ. Once that is done, no more forgiveness is necessary or provided for the believer. Forgiveness is part of redemption. See these other verses: Eph 1:7 In Him we HAVE redemption through His blood, the FORGIVENESS of our trespasses, according to the riches of His grace. Col 1:14 in whom we HAVE redemption, the FORGIVENESS of sins. Col 2:13 When you were dead in your transgressions and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He made you alive together with Him, having FORGIVEN us ALL our transgressions. Eph 4:32 Be kind to one another, tender-hearted, forgiving each other, just as God in Christ also HAS FORGIVEN you. Col 3:13 bearing with one another, and forgiving each other, whoever has a complaint against anyone; just as the Lord FORGAVE you, so also should you. 1 John 2:12 I am writing to you, little children, because your sins HAVE BEEN FORGIVEN you for His name's sake. Acts 26:18 to open their eyes so that they may turn from darkness to light and from the dominion of Satan to God, that they may RECEIVE FORGIVENESS of sins and an inheritance among those who have been sanctified by faith in Me.' (When is it received? When they turn to God.) Heb 9:26 Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been manifested to PUT AWAY SIN by the sacrifice of Himself. Rev 1:5 says, "To Him who loves us and released us from our sins by His blood--" When and how were we released from our sins? By our death? No, by the blood shed at His death. Heb 10:17 "AND THEIR SINS AND THEIR LAWLESS DEEDS I WILL REMEMBER NO MORE." Jesus Christ said as He was shedding His last drops of blood, "It is finished! Paid in full!" His redemptive work was done. Our part is to place our faith in that work and accept it. In conclusion, if you are a believer, your forgiveness of sins IS NOT based upon whether or not you have forgiven the terrorists. And the inverse is also true. If you are not a believer, forgiving the terrorist WILL NOT secure forgiveness of sins from God on your behalf. Christ alone has done this. In Christ, Bill Mc |
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25 | Bill Mc, Are you twisting Scripture? | Matt 6:14 | Bill Mc | 16291 | ||
Dear Steve, no, I am not twisting scripture. I am trying to show you that there is a difference in forgiveness before the cross and forgiveness after the cross. All your sins were forgiven at the cross. I have posted scripture references to support this. If I said that we must believe that Christ has provided full forgiveness for sins but that we must also bring animal sacrifices back in to cover sins after conversion, I would be labeled (and rightly so) a heretic. Why? Because I would be mixing two different covenants. The Old was replaced by the New. Forgiveness before the cross of Christ was secured differently than after the cross. Sins before the cross were only 'atoned for', covered as a pointer to the once-for-all sacrifice that Messiah would make. Did you notice all the verses that I posted saying, 'FORGIVE BECAUSE YOU HAVE BEEN FORGIVEN.' It is a completed, eternal act of God, Steve. If you add ANYTHING to it, then you take away from it. In Him, Bill Mc |
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26 | Bill Mc, who do you forgive? | Matt 6:14 | Bill Mc | 16302 | ||
Where did you misunderstand my last answer? I said that I was willing to forgive BECAUSE I have been forgiven. My humanity wants to see justice done on the part of those victimized. And the Spirit of God in me wishs for NONE to perish but to come to God for eternal life. Whether they do that or not is their choice. In Him, Bill Mc |
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27 | Forgiveness, is it conditional? | Matt 6:14 | Bill Mc | 16625 | ||
Forgiveness IS conditional after the cross depending on whether you have come to Christ or not. If you want to put faith in the forgiveness and accept it, it is only received through Christ. But after coming to Christ, we HAVE the forgiveness of sins, our redemption. So, in the sense of saved/unsaved, though provision has been made for complete forgiveness, it must be received by placing one's faith and trust in the Lord Jesus Christ. |
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28 | Does this apply to Christians? | Matt 6:15 | Bill Mc | 15194 | ||
Dear Steve, I'm sure I'll be flailed alive for this one but you asked... Consider: Eph 1:7 In Him we have (present tense) redemption through His blood, the forgiveness of our trespasses, according to the riches of His grace. Eph 4:32 Be kind to one another, tender-hearted, forgiving each other, just as God in Christ also has forgiven (past tense) you. Col 1:14 in whom we have (present tense) redemption, the forgiveness of sins. Col 2:13 When you were dead in your transgressions and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He made you alive together with Him, having forgiven (past tense) us all (ALL) our transgressions, 1 John 2:12 I am writing to you, little children, because your sins have been forgiven (past tense)you for His name's sake. Heb 9:26 Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself. Heb 10:17 "AND THEIR SINS AND THEIR LAWLESS DEEDS I WILL REMEMBER NO MORE." Heb 10:18 Now where there is forgiveness (present tense) of these things, there is no longer any offering for sin. Acts 10:43 "Of Him all the prophets bear witness that through His name everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins." Luke 23:34 But Jesus was saying, "Father, forgive them; for they do not know what they are doing." Did the Father answer this prayer? Did He forgive us? Upon what basis did He forgive us? Heb 9:22 makes it clear that the shedding of blood is the ONLY thing that provides forgiveness. I don't believe that Christ was speaking to His crucifiers here. No one was there asking for forgiveness (not even the thief asked to have his sins forgiven). But Christ was born under law and He taught under law. If you are going to say that our forgiveness is now dependant upon whether or not we forgive others, you are going to have to rip out all these other verses that speak of forgiveness being past tense and something that every Christian professes. The ONLY way I have ever found to reconcile these passages is to understand the new covenant in Christ's blood that was shed for the remission of sins. Here's a challenge: Other than 1 John 1:9 that I believe Christians erroneously try to make applicable to believers as a 'bar of soap' to keep us clean before a holy God, find one, just one, other passage of scripture after Christ's death on the cross, where we are told to ask for forgiveness from God. (James 5:16 doesn't count because it is talking about confessing our sins to one another so we can be healed.) Was doesn't Paul (who wrote 2/3 of the NT) even once mention to ask God to forgive us for sins. Why not Peter? Surely he knew the importance of forgiveness. How did 1st century Christians ever stay in fellowship with God until 95 AD when 1 John was written? They must have all been out of fellowship with God for, gosh, 62 years! What do you think, Steve? In Christ, Bill Mc IN MY OPINION (based upon scripture), no it does not apply. |
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29 | Should this be taken only personally? | Matt 6:33 | Bill Mc | 17315 | ||
Dear Nolan, I don't think that very many people take the Sermon of the Mount literally. Why? How many people have you seen with only a left eye or a left hand? (No offense to the physically challenged here.) If we took what Jesus said literally, I myself would be blind and handless many times over. So would the whole Christian world. I am not trying to be funny. I am trying to say that we pick and choose what we want to believe and what we think requires obedience. I have already stated elsewhere that I believe that the Sermon on the Mount was primarily spoken to unregenerate people under the Mosaic law. What application it has for the Christian is, obviously, debatable. But the fact remains that Jesus was trying to demonstrate that NO ONE is righteous enough to enter God's kingdom by His works. Christ said, "You want to get into the kingdom of God? Good. Then be as perfect as God, and you can walk right in." He buried us under, not just the Mosaic law, but God's righteous character law so that we could see that we all need HIM. In Him, Bill Mc |
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30 | what's the difference in these two | Matt 10:5 | Bill Mc | 12615 | ||
An important thing to remember with any biblical teaching is that, from God's perspective, there are 2 basic covenants. There is the Mosaic covenant (Law) given only to the Jews (to show them their sinfulness so they would come to Messiah) and there is the New Covenant that Christ instituted at His death. Both the books of Galatians and Hebrews make it clear that believers are no longer under the Law and that Gentiles never were. Because the New Covenant did not go into effect until Christ's death, our Lord taught under law and, mainly, to the Jews. He did, however, proclaim that the New Covenant was coming when His blood would be shed. Remember the Lord's Supper? "This is the New Covenant in My blood..." So, what we call the Great Commission was given to believer's after the New Covenant (Grace) when into effect. And the rest of the New Testament (Acts, Romans, etc.) were all written under the New Covenant. Another good example of this is that, in the Lord's prayer, Christ says, "If you don't forgive men their sins, your Father will not forgive yours." But the rest of the New Testament (Covenant - same word in the Greek) makes it clear that God has forgiven ALL our sins because of Christ's offering of Himself to "take away the sins of the world." Let me also add that we must rely on the Holy Spirit to lead us into all truth. As you have said, not everything in the Bible has direct application for us as New Testament believers. We must consider the context of all the teachings in Scripture and understand who we are in Christ in order the correctly discern the Word. I hope this helps. |
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31 | Heb. 8 and Jer. 31 | Matt 10:5 | Bill Mc | 12706 | ||
WDC, This is a great passage. Look at the following verses carefully. They are inspired by God. My opinion is not infallible. So search it for yourself to see if these things are so. As I understand it, it has a dual fulfillment (hear me out). As you probably know, the original manuscripts did not have verse numbers in them. So look at verse 6. This describes Christ's role as the mediator for the new (better) covenant. Then this passage quotes from Jeremiah 31 where, even in the OT, God says that there is a New Covenant coming. Yes, this does describe Israel during the Millenium, but it also is applicable to us as NT believers. My reasons: 1. Check Heb 9:15-17 - Christ is the mediator of this covenant but it only goes into effect when the one who made it dies. Just like a will (same word in the greek - check it out). Christ will not die again to make a subsequent covenant. 2. This covenant does apply to Israel FIRST. But they, as a nation, have, for the time being, rejected it. This refers back to the passage you originally mentioned. Jesus said to only go to the Jews with the good news. The gospel was preached FIRST to the Jews. But they rejected it (Matthew 21:43) so the gospel, through Paul, was taken and preached to the Gentiles. This covenant was made FIRST with the Jews. Some have accepted it, but most, until Christ returns, have rejected it. But, during this age of grace, we, as believers, enjoy it's benefits (see Ryrie's comments on this passage). 3. (Back to Hebrews 8) Verse 13 reinterates that the first covenant has been made obsolete. Christ fulfilled it. It was still relevant during Christ's lifetime on earth. They still had temple sacrifices. It ended spiritually at Christ's death. The New Covenant (will) goes into effect when the one who made it (Christ, the mediator) dies. But the old covenant physically disappeared when Jerusalem burned in AD 70. 4. Look at Hebrews 10:9-18 - Christ took away the first covenant to establish the second (at His death). By this covenant (Christ's death to take away our sins) we have been sanctified once for all. Note verse 14. Then the Holy Spirit testifies about this great, new covenant. God puts His laws in our hearts and mind (instead of on stone tablets) and He remembers our sins no more. 5. Verse 17 solidifies it - there is no more offerings for sin. Why? Because Christ's once for all offering was suffucient. So we have forgiveness. 6. Verse 19-23 conclude the whole matter. Since we have forgiveness and there is no more sacrifice, we can enter into God's very presence. We can draw near to God. He has washed us clean. 7. Christ, Himself, declared that the new covenant was coming. See Mark 14:24, Luke 22:20, 1 Corinthians 11:25. This covenant was inauguarated with His blood being shed. So we see the Lord, the Holy Spirit, and the Son all telling us that there is a New Covenant that we are under and that the Old Covenant is obsolete. By this covenant, we are made holy, forgiven, redeemed, and have eternal life. What so you think? In Christ, Bill Mc |
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32 | Heb. 8 and Jer. 31 | Matt 10:5 | Bill Mc | 12712 | ||
Dear fellow believers, For those who believe that this covenant is made ONLY with Israel and Judah (the Jews) exclusively, during the Millenium, permit me to ask a couple of questions: 1. What does this new covenant provide? See Hebrews 8:12, Hebrews 10:16-18. Do we not have these today as believers? Is God's Holy Spirit not in us to renew our minds? Aren't we forgiven people of God? 2. What covenant is Christ describing in Mark 14:24; Luke 22:20; 1 Corinthians 11:25; Hebrews 9:15; Hebrews 8:6? He says it is the New Covenant, does He not? Didn't His death and resurrection graciously provide for the indwelling of the Holy Spirit and the forgiveness of sins? 3. If this New Covenant that Christ describes is not the same one the Lord talks about in Hebrews 8, and the Holy Spirit testifies to in Hebrews 10, how are they different? Did not the gospel go FIRST to the house of Israel and Judah? 4. Whose death will inauguarate the, according to your interpretation, future New Covenant with Israel? Hebrews 9:17,18 makes it clear that covenants only go into effect with the shedding of blood. So what sacrifice will bring in this 'future' New Covenant that only applies to the Jew? In Christ, Bill Mc |
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33 | Old T. and New T. | Matt 10:5 | Bill Mc | 12908 | ||
Dear WDC, I agree with Reformer Joe's answer above for the most part. God's attributes have never changed and never will. The Bible makes that very clear. But, for time's sake, as you know, I believe that God deals with mankind in different ways in different periods. Man has ALWAYS been saved by faith in what God says. But God has said different things to mankind down through the ages. (That is why your Bible is so thick) As you know, Adam and Eve, Noah, Abraham - none of these had 'the Law' as we know it. But they did believe in God's revelation to them during their respective time periods. They all had faith, and acted upon their beliefs. And, according to Hebrews, their faith was credited to them as righteousness. Old Testament saints were saved by belief in God's word to them. But, in these last days, as I'm sure you know, God has spoken to us through His Son. The Old Testament contained a progressive revelation of the 'once for all' sacrifice that Christ would make. There are many 'types' of salvation pictured in the OT. Hebrews says that the Law was a 'shadow' of the better things that were coming (Christ). Christ is the full revelation of God's plan to save mankind and, once again, to put His divine life back into His creation where it was designed to be. As to the seeming descrepancies of God's characteristics, I will leave that for others to reply to who may have a better answer than I. I'm not saying this as a cop-out. I'm just being honest. I don't understand why God has mercy on whom He will have mercy. There are too many specifics to answer every question as to the Lord's motives or actions, like, "Why did He allow innocent children to be slaughtered?" I believe that God gives us everything in the Bible that we need to know about Him and salvation. But He doesn't tell us everything He knows. His ways are not our ways. And I try not to use my limited understanding of Him to force Him into a box of neat little compartments so that I can fully comprehend Him. But, WDC, I can tell you this. I trust Him. He has ALWAYS been faithful to me. I, too, will have many questions to ask when I finally see Him face to face. This much I know - it was not just for the Son of God to leave heaven, take the form of a puny creation, live a perfect life amongst a sinful world, and to die a thief's death on a cross. It was not just for Christ to bear the sins on the world in His body. It was not just for Him to be separated from the Father when He never did one thing wrong. It was not just for Him to take my sins and for me to get His righteousness. It was not just for Him to take my death and to give me His life. It wasn't just, but it was love. And for that, I'm eternally grateful. In Him, Bill Mc |
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34 | Can A Christian disown Christ? | Matt 10:33 | Bill Mc | 15609 | ||
Hi Steve, Sorry to answer your question with a question but I would like to know your view of what a Christian is. Rom 8:9 says, 'However, you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Him.' Scripture makes it plain that to be a Christian means that you are indwelt by the living Christ. Paul said, 'I no longer live but Christ lives in me.' You can't be a Christian without the Spirit of God living in you. So, my question is this: Why do you quote something that Christ says in the gospels to either His disciples or the Jews (who were being pleaded with to make a descision to accept Jesus as Messiah) and assume that His audience are all Christians? The Holy Spirit was not given to ALL believers until Pentecost. That is a historical fact. Yes, Christ did call His disciples. And Christ did dwell among them. But He did not dwell IN them until Pentecost. Before Christ died the Holy Spirit was only given on a limited basis to a select few in order to accomplish God's purposes. We need to be careful in saying, 'Jesus said this...so, Christian...blah, blah, blah.' Jesus said many things. He talked to individuals, small groups, whole crowds, Jews and Gentiles and half-breeds. But to take everything that Jesus said and say that He is now saying that to the Christian is dangerous, brother. Here is an example: Jesus told the rich man that came to him in Matt 19:21 - "If you wish to be complete, go and sell your possessions and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven; and come, follow Me." So, Steve, should every Christian do this? God's Word says that IN CHRIST, we have been already made complete. Does Jesus require you to go sell ALL your possessions and give to the poor in order to be made complete? I don't think so or you wouldn't have a computer to access this forum. Can you follow Jesus to the cross and see Him crucified there for your sins? No. You can read about it and accept it by faith because it is a historical fact. Use care, brother, in the way you word your questions. If a was a new Christian in the Lord, your question might lead me to believe that everything that Jesus said was then directed to me personally. And any serious student of the scriptures knows to consider the grammatical and historical context of the scripture. Thanks for your questions and responses. Some of them are excellent. But, please, consider that many on this forum are looking for answers, not just a debate. Not everyone that is asking a question here is seeking confrontation. Blessings in Christ, Bill Mc |
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35 | If Law is quoted in NT, does it apply? | Matt 15:4 | Bill Mc | 15941 | ||
Dear Steve, I appreciate your question. Seeing as I am one of those who think the Old is done away with, permit me to respond. 1) Christ was born under Law and taught under Law. He did not come to abolish it but to fulfill it. And He did. His righteous life fulfilled ALL the Law. He proclaimed that the New Testament (Covenant) was coming when His blood would be shed, but He taught Law to the masses. Interesting enough though, He exuded grace when He dealt with people one-on-one. 2) Hebrews makes it clear that the New Covenant did not go into effect until the death of the One who made it. Christ is the mediator of the New Covenant (Heb 9:15)and it did not go into effect at His birth. It went into effect at His death (Heb 9:16,17). His death (not His birth) took away the Old Covenant and established the New (Heb 10:9). 3) So, as far as whether OT quoting in the NT goes, the NT does not actually start until AFTER the death of Christ. OT quotes in the proper NT must be interpreted in light of what Christ has done concerning sin and our salvation. Heb 10:1 makes it clear that the Law (the whole Law) was only a shadow of the reality that is found in Christ. There is no hard, fast rule to whether OT passages apply or not. In order to make that discernment, believers must know what the New Covenant accomplished. In closing, please look at Romans chapter 7. Paul gives a wonderful illustration of what relationship the believer has to the Law. He says that if a man and woman are married to each other (civil law) and the husband dies, the woman is released from the law of marriage to her husband. As long as they are alive, they are bound by the law of marriage. In fact, if she decides to go to another man while here husband is living, she is rightly called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, and she marries another, she is not an adulteress because the first law of marriage has been nullified. Then Paul draw the spiritual truth from this illustration. Starting in verse 4, he says that we (believers) were made to die to the Law. The Law didn't die. The Law is perfect, good, and righteous. But, as you know, we were crucified, buried, and spiritually raised with Christ. So Paul says that we, through the body of Christ, WERE (past tense) made to die to the Law. Here is the crux of the matter? Why? Verse 4 - So that we could be married to another, to Christ Himself. He concludes the matter in verse 6. We have been released from the Law (all the Law). How? We died to it. We used to be married to it but we, not the Law, died. Why? So that the Christian, the believer, the new creation in Christ could serve in the newness of the SPIRIT, NOT in the oldness of the letter (the Law). We are to serve by walking in the Spirit which Christ gives us, not by trying to keep the Law. The Spirit renews and governs the believer internally. The Law served its purpose for the Christian. It was a tutor to lead us to Christ. Now that we have come to Christ, we are no longer under the Law. In fact, per Paul's illustration, if we are still serving under the Law while joined to Christ, we are ADULTERERS. Christ died (and had us die) to free us from our marriage to the Law so that He could marry us. We are now joined to Christ. Rejoice in that. Hope this helps, In Him, Bill Mc |
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36 | Selling all required to gain salvation? | Mark 10:21 | Bill Mc | 12782 | ||
Dear Steve, See these verses: Galatians 3:10 - If you are under the works of the Law, you are under a curse UNLESS you can abide by ALL of them ALWAYS. Can you do this? James says that if you break the least of them (ever lie?), you have broken them ALL. Gal 3:11 - You are not justified by the Law NOR should you, as a believer, live by it. We live by FAITH in the Son of God. - Colossians 2:6,7 Gal 3:12 - The LAW IS NOT of faith. It is contrary to faith in what Christ, who justifies the ungodly, has done. Gal 3:13,14 - Christ has redeemed us from the Law so that we can receive His Spirit. We live by that Spirit, not the Law. Does this invalidate what Jesus said? No, Christ taught UNDER the Law - see Galatians 4:4. The Law could not be done away with UNTIL Christ fulfilled it. And He did. Eternal life is found ONLY in Christ's resurrection. The Law NEVER saved anyone. Hebrews and Romans both make it clear that it was only given to show man his sinfulness so that he could come to Christ for life. Salvation has ALWAYS been by faith in what God says, even in the OT. And, in these last days, God has spoken by His Son, Jesus Christ. In Christ, Bill Mc |
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37 | What is your definition of Law and grace | Mark 10:21 | Bill Mc | 13163 | ||
Hi Steve, I'm on the road right now, brother, so I can't give a complete answer, but I believe that the Law, as Paul is using it in Galations must encompass more than just the 10 commandments. Primarily, because the issue that has him all fired up is whether the Gentile believers should be circumcised. But the 10 commandments never address circumcision. Also note that in Romans chapter 7 where Paul says that we were made to die to the Law (vs.4) and that we were released from the Law (vs.6), that these immediately preceed Paul's quotation of one of the 10, "You shall not covet." So this is implication of God's moral law, not the sacrificial or ceremonial laws. As to grace, it's often said, "God's unmerited favor." I.E. it is being looked upon with love and acceptance without regard to whether we deserve it or not. If you would like a wonderful living picture of law and grace, compare Jesus to the Pharisees. Jesus was full of grace and truth. The Pharisees were full of law. Notice the different attitudes they had toward people. In Him, Bill Mc |
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38 | What protects us from Judgement? | John 1:12 | Bill Mc | 13665 | ||
Romans 8:1,2 says that "there is now no condemnation (judgment) for those in Christ." Why? "For the law of the Spirit of LIFE in Christ Jesus has set you free from the law of sin and of death." The law of sin and death says, 'the soul that sins, it shall die.' But Christ took our punishment (death, the wages of sin) and God judged all our sins at the cross. The verdict was guilty and Christ took the punishment. But, as you know, 3 days later He was raised again as a "life-giving Spirit" who now indwells the believer. So what protects you from judgment or condemnation? It has already been executed on your behalf. We believe it, have faith in it (as JVH0212 says) and appropriate it to our lives. In Christ, Bill Mc |
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39 | Once Save; Always Saved? | John 6:37 | Bill Mc | 15139 | ||
Dear J.D., Here is my two cents. If we really understand what salvation is, we will come to understand that we can't lose it. The plan of salvation is encapsulated in Romans 6:23 - For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord. The wages (what sin earns) is death (separation from God). But, in Christ, we have the cure for death - LIFE. And it is a free gift. Paul makes it clear that we were born 'dead' to God - in trespasses and sin. What is the remedy for death? Not forgiveness. A forgiven dead person is still a dead person. The only remedy for death is LIFE. And that is exactly what Christ came to give us - "I come so that you might have LIFE and life to the full". We are saved by Christ's life, not His death. So, if Christ gives us His life - the Holy Spirit, what is the only thing that can make that Spirit depart from us? Sin, right? So, why doesn't He depart when we sin? Because the sacrificial death of Christ 'takes away' the sin issue between God and man - "Behold, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world." Christ's blood has washed away our sins so that the only thing which could make His Holy Spirit depart, sin, can no longer do so. He became sin for us and took our death, so that we become His righteousness and have His life. Remember the 'dead man' analog? Suppose cancer killed him. If you wanted to really 'save' this man from death, you would have to do 2 things: 1. Cure his death, by giving him life and 2. Cure what killed him - the cancer. If you just resurrected him without curing his cancer, he would soon die again. If you cured his cancer but didn't resurrect him, you'd just have a 'healed' dead man. You must cure his cancer AND restore his life. This is what Christ has done for us, my friend. He 'cured' what killed us, sin, and restored His life to us, resurrected us spiritually. How can you lose that? For eternal life to be eternal, by definition, you can't lose it. If you can lose the life of Christ in you, then it is only 'temporal life', not eternal. So Christ has 'saved' us from the wages of sin - death - by giving us His divine LIFE as a free gift. But, He IS the life. He does not despense it like a gumball machine. Eternal life is found only IN HIM. See 1 John 5:11,12,13. He is our life. And He has dealt eternally with what caused our death, sins, at the cross. That is why He can say, "I will NEVER leave you or forsake you." That is why eternal life is ETERNAL LIFE. What do you think? In Christ, Bill Mc |
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40 | Does God hate or love sinners, or both? | Rom 5:8 | Bill Mc | 19706 | ||
Steve, Once again your sharp eye has caught a grave contradiction in the scriptures. This is a very worth-while endeavor, showing that the Old Testament and New Testament are not in agreement. Keep up the good work. How did the Lord miss these when He had the scriptures written? He sure could have used your help. In Christ, Bill Mc |
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