Results 2081 - 2100 of 2277
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Hank Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
2081 | Intimidated by the word "doctrine"? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 3370 | ||
When I was a young boy I used to sit in the church pew between my parents, miserable in a white shirt saturated in Faultless Starch, and hear the preacher talk about doctrine, doctrine, nothing but doctrine, or so it seemed to me. I had no idea of what he meant by doctrine, of course, and by the time the service was ended I was so glad to get home and get out of that wretched starched shirt that I never thought about asking my parents what doctrine was all about. So I invented a definition of my own. The word sounded to my young ears a lot like doctor so I figured it must have something to do with people being sick and going to a doctor. Little did I dream then that I had stumbled upon as good as definition as there is of doctrine. As JVH has pointed out, it means nothing but teaching. That's all. In the New Testament, it is the teaching of Christ Jesus and is intended to heal a spiritually sick world. He is the Doctor (Great Physician) and the doctrine is for sick people. An eight-year old boy in a starched shirt had it right after all. Hank | ||||||
2082 | Whole Bible flawed? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 8148 | ||
May God richly bless you for this testimony, prayon....When we begin to cast doubts on the inerrant truth of the Bible, we put ourselves upon a pathway that leads us to ultimate destruction. The by-ways of human error and human wisdom lead to apostasy, to agnosticism, to atheism, to paganism. Once we permit a crack in the dam, the floodgates open rapidly. That's why many members of this forum have risen up so strongly against even the insinuation that Apostolic teaching could have been in error. We believe that it is wrong, terribly wrong, to entertain any possibility for error in the teachings, written or oral, of the Apostles of Jesus Christ. This forum is not the proper medium for any such wild speculation. There are any number of other places where anything goes and wherein one can philosophize and muse to his heart's content. Let those who wish to engage in such activities take their baggage and check it in at those places, but not on this study Bible forum. We are here to study God's word, not question it. The premise that God's word is authoritative and inerrant is a given, a sine qua non, on this forum. This is not to thwart honest questions by honest seekers after the truth, but it is to discourage vain discourse -- philosophical and metaphysical musings that have no didactic merit whatever. --Hank | ||||||
2083 | Do we have a flawed New Testament? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 8151 | ||
Lionstrong, thanks for your comments on my question. Your question is multi-faceted and I will attempt to address but two segments of it.....First, regarding 1 John 1:8 as it may be applied to the context of the item now under review, i.e. Do we have a flawed New Testament? and a corollary question, Are the Apostles' teachings inerrant? The passage in 1 John 1:8 says, "If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us." You ask how can we equip new believers to explain that this verse applies to the Apostles? The Apostle Paul leads the way to understanding that the Apostles were by no means men without sin. He says to Timothy in 1 Tim. 1:15, "It is a trustworthy statement deserving full acceptance, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners, among whom I am foremost of all." But the question, Lionstrong, has nothing whatever to do with apostolic sin or sinlessness. The question has to do with apostolic teaching. Was it infallible and inerrant? If whether a biblical writer's inerrancy is pivotal upon his sinlessness, if a writer had to remain sinless in order for his words to be fully trustworthy, then no biblical writer, from Genesis to Revelation, meets the criterion. Then where are we? We are then plunged into the ignominious position of having to say that the sacred writings all are flawed and untrustworthy because they were written by flawed and untrustworthly, yes sinful, men. It is not our logic, or lack of it, that is flawed? .......A second segment of your question I'd like to address is, What from the Word will equip (2 Tim.3:17) them with an answer? This verse says, "so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work." The answer lies, at least in part, in the preceding verse, in the words "All Scripture is inspired by God." The obvious answer then is, everything from the Word of God equips the believer to be able to give and answer for the hope that is in them (1 Pet.3:15). "For the word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword, and piercing as far as the division of soul and spirt, of both joints and marrow, and able to judge the thoughts and intentions of the heart." (Heb. 4:12) The Word and the Spirit are fully capable of convicting the sinner and leading him into paths of righteousness. I cite the experiences of three men, all of them dedicated skeptics at a time in their lives, who became staunch defenders of the faith. They are Frank Harber, an evangelist; Josh McDowell, a writer and lecturer; and C. S. Lewis, one of the foremost apologists for the faith in modern times. Each of these men set out with the aim to prove the Bible was more or less a fairy tale and ended up a powerful witness to its eternal truth. How did this happen? They read, studied, pondered on the Bible. With two of these men, Harber and McDowell, I am personally acquainted and have heard from their very lips their testimony. It is the testimony of men such as these that provides a most powerful and convincing attestation to the power of the Word of God......Thank you, Lionstrong, for posing the questions, which bear every earmark that they have the motive of searching for truth. I only hope that, in some measure, these remarks of mine have lent something toward that end. --Hank | ||||||
2084 | all scripture for doctrine? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 24742 | ||
Dear Flag: Doctrine is a word that has been adultered by some to mean little more than denominational bias. We hear talk of "doctrinal differences" among various denominations. But the word "doctrine" in 2 Timothy 3:16 is better understood as teaching or instruction, and that's how it's rendered by most modern translations. So, therefore, the Bible from Genesis to the Revelation teaches and instructs us about God, who He is, how He reveals himself as Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, and how He has made it possible for us to enjoy life with Him eternally. We are taught and can learn from every page, indeed from every word in the Bible. Nothing has been included in it merely to fill space. It is none other than God himself who has breathed the words. Sir Walter Scott, himself the author of many books, spoke the truth when on his death bed he said to his son-in-law, "After all, there is but one Book." --Hank | ||||||
2085 | Is the Bible a Will or a History book? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 31913 | ||
just: The Bible is neither a will nor a history book in any real sense. Although it contains some history, primarily of the Jewish people, this is not its central message. The scarlet thread of redemption is the central theme of the Bible, and from Genesis to Revelation the central focus is on the Lord Jesus Christ. --Hank | ||||||
2086 | Can we say that all of the scriptures | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 43256 | ||
In the final scheme of things, man is not the judge and jury of Scripture; what he says about it carries little weight in the world at large, but what he thinks about it can lead either to salvation in heaven or condemnation in hell. It's what God says about Scripture that really counts. He says that all Scripture is God-breathed and profitable. We can believe it or not. If we refuse to believe parts of the Bible, we may as well refuse to believe any of it. Why? Because the Bible says ALL Scripture is inspired by God and is profitable. When any "wiser-than-God" finite, flawed and sinful human being refuses to believe all the Bible, but only the parts he likes or agrees with, he is in effect saying that 2 Timothy 3:16 is wrong and thus calling God a liar. That's how it is. God does not give us a middle ground; He does not negotiate; He does not compromise His truth. Jesus said it best: "He who is not with Me is against Me." (Matt. 12:30) --Hank | ||||||
2087 | Did God write the Bible? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 45202 | ||
Dear Kirklara: The Bible says of itself that it is the word of God. Some Scriptures that may be of help: 1 Cor.2:13; 1 Thess.2:13; Psalm 119:9-16; Prov.3:5; Matt.4:4; Matt.24:35; John 17:17; Col.3:16; 2 Tim.2:15; Heb. 4:12-13; 2 Pet. 1:19-21; Rev. 22:18,19; 2 Tim.3:16. --Hank | ||||||
2088 | could man write the bible w/qumran? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 49206 | ||
bravos-tarr: The mathematical odds against the messianic prophecies of the Old Testament, all of which were written by a number of writers centuries before the Advent of Jesus Christ, being fulfilled all to the letter by our Lord, are overwhelming. The odds against such an occurrence have been calculated at one in billions of billions -- so great in fact that statisticians view the odds as not only highly improbable but as practically impossible, leaving divine intervention, i.e., God's inspiration of the scriptural phrophecies, the only viable explanation. Man's attempts to explain away Scripture fail in the light of truth. --Hank | ||||||
2089 | who are the authors of books of bible | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 68460 | ||
Pande: The Bible was written over a period of approximately two thousand years by some fifty human authors, including kings, fishermen, physicians, military leaders, statesmen, tax collectors, tentmakers, farmers and a host of others. The Old Testament (or Old Covenant) contains 39 books and was written in the Hebrew language, with small portions inscribed in Aramaic. The earliest book, probably Job, dates from the age of the patriarchs and possibly can be dated circa 2,000 B.C. The final book of the Old Testament is Malachi, written in the fifth century before Christ. Among its notable authors are Moses, David, Solomon and Isaiah...... The New Testament (or New Covenant) contains 27 books and was written in the Greek of the common people, the language of the marketplace. It is called Koine Greek. Possibly the earliest of the New Testament books is the Epistle of James, the Lord's half brother, written circa 45 A.D.; while the final contribution is the Apocalypse, or Revelation, of John, written in exile on the rock quarry island of Patmos around A.D. 96. Outstanding among New Testament authors are Paul, Luke, John, Matthew and Mark. Some of the human writers of the Bible remain anonymous to this day, but the Bible teaches [2 Timothy 3:16] that all Scripture is inspired, that it literally proceeds from the breath of God Himself. If you own either a good reference or study Bible, you will find an introductory page or two to each book of the Bible which usually includes information of what is known, or not known, about its author. For brevity's sake, I have not attempted to treat your question exhaustively but have given only a general overview of this most precious book of books and its human authors. --Hank | ||||||
2090 | Does the Bible answer your questions? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 71762 | ||
Justme: The Bible answers general spiritual questions and specifically tells how God has made it possible for man to be restored to a right relationship with Him through faith in His Son, Jesus Christ. But I do not see the Bible as being the answer to every conceivable question that man can pose. God reveals such of Himself and His universe as He chooses. As He did not answer all questions that Job put to Him, neither does He answer all of ours. Man's problem, in his relationship with God is, and always has been, not so much a lack of knowledge as of faith, trust, and obedience. --Hank | ||||||
2091 | Messages within bible | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 84308 | ||
Ellemen, the Bible says that "all Scripture is given by inspiration of God (the Greek word is theopneustos and it literally means "God-breathed"), and is profitable for doctrine (teaching), for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, that the man of God may be perfect (complete in all details), thoroughly furnished unto all good works. (2 Tim. 3:16,17). The preferred way to study God's word is systematically, a book or a theme at a time, not by randomly opening the Bible and reading it haphazardly. Your pastor or a Bible teacher at your church can help you with answers to your specific questions. Since you say that you recently joined a church, may I assume it to mean that you have recently been saved? If this is so, I can understand your wanting to do things properly right from the beginning of your new life in Christ. But don't be discouraged to find that trials and temptations will come your way, but you have the Lord's promise that He will be with you always. Trust in Him always, and may God richly bless your work with Him. --Hank | ||||||
2092 | meaning of inspiration | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 89024 | ||
Mel, I tossed around in my mind several ways to approach your multi-faceted question and finally decided to give you your money's worth, a rather long discussion of the issues raised by your question, and a superb discussion at that. I'm not boasting, because I didn't write the discussion, although I wish I had! John MacArthur wrote the piece. It's excellent and worthy to be aired on a forum such as this and read by all its users. Herewith is the entire article which appears on page 2192 of the MacArthur Study Bible published by Word Publishing. Entitled "The Holy Scriptures" it's one of the best treatments of the issues addressed in your question that I've ever read: "We teach that the Bible is God's written revelation to man, and thus the 66 books of the Bible given to us by the Holy Spirit constitute the plenary (inspired equally in all parts) Word of God (1 Cor. 2:7-14; 2 Pet. 1:20,21). ..... We teach that the Word of God is an objective, propositional revelation (1 Cor. 2:13; 1 Thess. 2:13), verbally inspired in every word (2 Tim. 3:16), absolutely inerrant in the original documents, infallible, and God-breathed. We teach the literal, grammatical-historical interpretation of Scripture, which affirms the belief that the opening chapters of Genesis present creation in six literal days (Gen. 1:31; Ex. 31:17). ..... We teach that the Bible constitutes the only infallible rule of faith and practice (Matt. 5:18; 24:35; John 10:35; 16:12,13; 17:17; 1 Cor. 2:13; 2 Tim. 3:15-17; Heb. 4:12; 2 Pet. 1:20,21). ..... We teach that God spoke in His written Word by a process of dual authorship. The Holy Spirit so superintended the human authors that, through their individual personalities and different styles of writing, they composed and recorded God's Word to man (2 Pet. 1:20,21) without error in the whole or in the part (Matt. 5:18; 2 Tim. 3:16). ..... We teach that whereas there may be several applications of any given passage of Scripture, there is but one true interpretation. The meaning of Scripture is to be found as one diligently applies the literal, grammatical-historical method of interpretation under the enlightenment of the Holy Spirit (John 7:17; 16:12-15; 1 Cor. 2:7-15; 1 John 2:20). It is the responsibility of believers to ascertain carefully the true intent and meaning of Scripture, recognizing that proper application is binding on all generations. Yet the truth of Scripture stands in judgment of men, never do men stand in judgment of it." | ||||||
2093 | conterdictions in the bible yes or no | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 89992 | ||
No contradictions in the Bible; see 2 Timothy 3:16. The Bible is the word of truth; see Psalm 119:160. --Hank | ||||||
2094 | Only Gospels as Authority? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 92228 | ||
Dear seekingtruth: The "logic" of your questioner crashes before it gets off the ground. Were not Matthew, Mark, Luke and John who wrote the four Gospels human authors too? --Hank | ||||||
2095 | Were human authors aware of inspiration? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 92627 | ||
bjh: In the opening chapter of the Revelation of Jesus Christ to John, the apostle leaves no doubt that he was aware of receiving prophetic revelation from God. "I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day (Rev. 1:10). Paul was well aware of the source of his message. He told the Corinthians that "we...speak not in words which man's wisdom teaches but what the Holy Spirit teaches." (cf. 1 Cor. 2:13). ..... Isaiah opens his book with "Hear...for the Lord has spoken. ..... Jeremiah begins with "the words of Jeremiah...to whom the word of the Lord came." ..... "the word of the Lord came expressly to Ezekiel (Ezek. 1:3) ..... The opening words of Hosea are "The word of the Lord that came to Hosea..." and so on all the way to Malachi who opened with these words, "The burden of the word of the Lord to Israel by Malachi." Not only is it clear that God inspired His chosen servants to write His word but it is also clear that they were aware that the words they were writing were the very breath of God. Everything Scripture says, therefore, is prefaced by "thus saith the Lord." When Scripture itself says, "all Scripture is God-breathed" it means ALL Scripture is God-breathed -- not just the parts we like and not just the parts that we agree with. All of it is God's word. --Hank | ||||||
2096 | Literal or Not? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 92871 | ||
The Bible does not deal in myth, fable, or superstition. It is the revealed word of God and is meant to be read and understood in its plain, literal sense except in those passages which explicitly state or contextually imply that they are clearly symbolic or metaphoric. Regarding the creation account in Genesis, you ask for proof that it should be read as being literal. I ask you for proof that it should not be read as a literal, factual account of the origin of man and the universe. The proper understanding of Genesis is foundational to the proper understanding of God, His world, and His word. --Hank | ||||||
2097 | IS YOUR MODERN TRANSLATION CORRUPT? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 98878 | ||
Radioman - Having just now finished reading every word of James R. White's article, IS YOUR MODERN TRANSLATION CORRUPT?, I would urge all readers of this page to go to the web site you referenced in your post and read the article carefully. If every reader of this forum took time to search out this article, read it, study it, and think on its sound reasoning, perhaps it would serve to put a stop to some of the insanity we've read on this forum about the 'great conspiracy' of modern translations. It's nothing short of ignorant bunkum. Sure, there are modern versions out there that are corrupt and intentionally misleading, such as NWT, but the NASB, NKJV, ESV, Holman CSB, and NIV are not among them. These are trusthworthy translations and anyone who seeks to call them corrupt, misleading and, of all things, conspiracies, simply doesn't know what he's talking about. To impugn the motives of such fine scholars as those that produced these excellent modern English translations is in itself a form of conspiracy. So, forum, equip yourselves with solid knowledge about how translations come about, and let's move away from this ignorant and insane witch hunt for a conspiracy that does not exist. It strikes me as particularly brash to use this Lockman-sponsored Forum to defame their highly esteemed, trustworthy, and literally accurate NASB. Where has the sense of human decency fled? ..... The URL for that article is www.equip.org/free/DK115.htm --Hank | ||||||
2098 | Which words of Jesus are literal? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 99484 | ||
TommyS - May we first agree that every word our Lord ever said is true? This is not the same thing as saying that everything He said is literal. Often He spoke in figures of speech called metaphors: "I am the door; I am the bread of life; this bread is My body; this cup is My blood" etc. And many times He used similitudes: imaginative comparisons, similes, parables; e.g. "The kingdom of heaven is like..." Our Lord used these to teach or enforce a truth. ..... In His teaching and discourses, except where He used metaphors and parables, His words are properly to be understand in the plain, literal sense in which He used them. It is always a mistake to take the literal language of Scripture symbolically and the symbolic literally. Fortunately, it is not difficult to distinguish the one from the other if one reads Scripture carefully and contextually. --Hank | ||||||
2099 | Is the entire Bible (specifically Genesi | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 104397 | ||
Dear Confused - Welcome, friend! Nothing divisive about your question. We all need help in rightly dividing the word of truth. For some excellent perspectives on Genesis from a scientific AND Christian point of view, go to www.icr.org. I think you'll like the web site. I know I do and have profited enormously from it. --Hank | ||||||
2100 | why did David write the 37 psalms? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Hank | 107036 | ||
Charlotte: Why did David write a portion of the Psalms? Somebody had to do it :-) The scriptural answer to your question is found in 2 Timothy 3:16. David, like all other human authors of Scripture, wrote because the Holy Spirit of God inspired him to write. --Hank | ||||||
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