Results 201 - 220 of 362
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: keliy Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
201 | Love for all, judge not anyone | OT general | keliy | 213173 | ||
Amen Brother John. Thanks for the illumination St.Paul makes also makes an awesome statement in Romans 8, where he declares: "For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death. For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. (ROM 8:2-4) Notice that the law was fulfilled in us. Paul is Not saying that it is fulfilled By us. Jesus is the only One who ever fulfilled all of the law. Jesus said, "I do always those things that please the Father." (John 8:29) and He asked the Jews one day, "Which of you convinceth Me of sin?" (8:46) "Which of you can find a fault in Me?" Then said Pilate to the chief priests and [to] the people, I find no fault in this man. (Luk 23:4) Truly we may find rest in Him. Thank you Jesus! Enjoy this 'Lord's Day' keliy |
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202 | God always gets what he desires? T or F | 1 Tim 2:3 | keliy | 213158 | ||
Hi KcabmI4, You are asking some very good questions, Keep 'em coming :o) You are being clear enough to answer the question, but I might not give the right answer, so we are both human, ok? You ask why would God be having this desire? Well I would answer that since God had enough wisdom to give us freedom of choice, then it would grieve Him whenever we made the wrong choice. Also, (I am going out on a limb here,) words in physical nature are not the same concept in the spiritual realm. When God is said to have regrets, does it really mean what we think? The LORD was sorry that He had made man on the earth, and He was grieved in His heart. ( Gen 6:6) Since God knew what would happen, there must be some way to describe what God felt. Did God make a mistake? I believe that is against His nature. But for lack of a better word, the NASB uses 'sorry' So, I think you are right when you say how you understand it: "Because what Iam understanding is that there are then 2 apposing beleafs." Yes there are. This is called the debate between 'predestination', and 'free will' This has been debated before and will continue to be so. I say there is a little of both. How much of each is hard to say. But to claim that God uses only one to the exclusion of the other is unbiblical. God chooses people for His purpose, that is true. Examples would include King David, The race of Jews, and the Virgin Mary. Jesus used the Greek word 'eklektos to refer to those who were chosen by God. And He also told the Apostles, that He chose them, they did not choose Him. On the other hand, the Bible never directly tells us when or if people are predestined for hell. But God has used evil people to accomplish His holy purpose. In the Book of Romans, Paul says that evil Pharoah was 'raised up' to be an example of God's power. God also chose Jacob over Esau. God reserves His right to choose to have mercy on some more than others. John prophesies that God will turn over the kingdom of Israel to the beast to fulfill His Word. Yet the conundrum begins when we are told we have free will. In Deuterotomy God tells the people to choose to follow Him: "I call heaven and earth to witness against you today, that I have set before you life and death, the blessing and the curse. So choose life in order that you may live, you and your descendants, (Deuteronomy 30:19) Joshua instructs likewise: "And if it is disagreeable in your sight to serve the LORD, choose for yourselves today whom you will serve: whether the gods which your fathers served which were beyond the River, or the gods of the Amorites in whose land you are living; but as for me and my house, we will serve the LORD." (Joshua 24:15) There are other Old Testament verses telling us to choose to follow the Lord. Besides the verses that tell us to make choices, there are verses that say how we are to live. -Obviously, following this advice requires the ability to choose. Choice is not possible if everything is predestined. The Bible says that Jesus died for the sins of all and wants all to repent. I feel that we all are to exalt Jesus so that Father God may be glorified. I have given here a view of free will and of predestination. It is clear that the Bible does not favor either one. I believe that God fore-ordains history. I do not believe that He forces history. But, God puts people in places so that His will is done. There are also different aspects of God's will. Think about God's perfect will, then about His permissive will. I believe you will increase your understanding, but do not try to decipher everything at once. It all is in the Lord's time. joyful blessings to you and yours. keliy |
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203 | God always gets what he desires? T or F | 1 Tim 2:3 | keliy | 213141 | ||
Hi KcabmI4, Thank you for your question. I saw this after I posted the 7 translations. My suggestion would be to look at the last definition for the Greek word "thelo" to take delight in, have pleasure I would definitely say that God would take delight in all men being saved. So then, that would be His desire. Yes, God can do as He pleases. Like Norton's reference to desiring a new motor for his boat. It would be simple for God to just command a motor to become new. God could also command us to love Him, but that would not be true love. In order for love to be true, there must be an alternative. Or else we would just be a race of talking heads. Without the capacity to decide, -can we possibly make a choice? Faith, and blessings to you. keliy |
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204 | Keliy, can faith be predetermined? | Eph 2:8 | keliy | 213140 | ||
Hello KcabmI4 Very Good question, but it is a little vague to me, so I can only try my best for you. I will run through some parts of your query and try to sum up at the end. Part 1, Is this saying: A person that is not being saved cannot be having Faith? -Not sure. But I do believe that the devil has faith in God, probably knowing the Bible better than us. The devil believes, as he trembles. Part 2, Is it also saying to a saved person? The Statement, made by Paul, who is saved contains "we" so I see him including himself, with his kinsmen. Part 3, If you are trying to live a life towards God by trying to keep laws your faith is then shut away again. That, is hard to answer, brother. Does a person attempt salvation through the law while maintaining a faithful relationship with God? Did he have a saving faith? What God was he trying to please by keeping the law? I am sorry to answer a question with a question, But Verse 24 says, "Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster [to bring us] unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. So, the law convicts us of our sin, and our need for a Savior. Part 4, We are having the choice to either be keeping of the Laws. Or we can be having Faith. Let me go to Matt 19:16-22. A young man went to Jesus asking what could he do that he may have eternal life. Jesus said, "...keep the commandments" to which the man replied I have kept these from my youth, what do I lack? Jesus said "to be perfect, sell what you have, give it to the poor, and follow me." The young man walked away sorrowful. Jesus knew the man's heart. The man's first mistake was to think that there was something he could DO to gain eternal life. Jesus answered, "If thou wilt be perfect..." So, the standard that must be met is God's standard of perfection. That is humanly impossible. There is no choice to either keep the laws Or to have faith. The law did not ever teach of gaining salvation through the law. But by the sacrifices, it was pointing to Christ, so the law was simply a servant of Christ. Verse 24 calls it "a schoolmaster." Who is a schoolmaster employed by, the school, or the students? (the students do not sign his paycheck) Weymouth New Testament translates v.23 thusly: Before this faith came, we Jews were perpetual prisoners under the Law, living under restraints and limitations in preparation for the faith which was soon to be revealed. I am not sure how to apply that verse in Galatians to our selves today, but there certainly are parallels. Many today continue to live in darkness because they love their sin and also their idols of this world. They are blinded by their pursuit of pleasure, so they attempt to shut the light out. But the sinner that opens his eyes to the light discovers his miserable condition. Then he is able to understand in his own heart that the grace of God and His mercy are the only hope. The letters of the law are signs that show us our need for forgiveness, and bring us to Christ. After that we can use the law for judging ourselves and we begin to depend upon our Savior for strength and wisdom. I hope I answered your questions well enough. Did I miss anything? I will be here if you need something more. Lord Bless, keliy |
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205 | God always gets what he desires? T or F | 1 Tim 2:3 | keliy | 213129 | ||
Hi, I think this might make it easier on you. 7 translations. Just add this, (2:4) to the verse 2:3, above. who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. NASB Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. KJV for he wants everyone to be saved and to understand the truth. NLT who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth. NIV who doth will all men to be saved, and to come to the full knowledge of the truth; Young's who desires that all men should be saved and come to [the] knowledge of [the] truth. Darby's Who will have all men to be saved, and to come to the knowledge of the truth. Webster's "thelo" is the Greek word that follows 'Who', and here is the def. for you: 1) to will, have in mind, intend a) to be resolved or determined, to purpose b) to desire, to wish c) to love 1) to like to do a thing, be fond of doing d) to take delight in, have pleasure Blessings, keliy |
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206 | Bible software? | Bible general Archive 4 | keliy | 213125 | ||
Hi akh, Have you been to blueletterbible.org ? It is an online search engine where you either enter in the verse you want, or else up to 5 words from a verse you are looking for. There is also audio and textual commentaries videos, songs, blue letter bible institute, and more. I just received 2 free CDs on Bible study, and a Library and reference guide from cdearth.com/ Blessings, keliy |
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207 | Love for all, judge not anyone | OT general | keliy | 213115 | ||
Hello KcabmI4 I agree with you that the person writing to the paper doesn't have a clue. But neither do the ones who are reading his blather. Many who have unformed opinions will agree with him. You asked what was the agenda, There it is. The sad part is, you can't unring a bell. Yes, the words have been unleashed, and whatever damage is done, our Lord knows. But there is something you can say to answer him. We are not defeated. You said if we answer him, satan will only bring more. Exactly. That is our service in this world, and our service will be judged in the refiner's fire. I once wrote a reply to a local column by Joel NcNally, and the paper published it. My reply was longer than his original column, and I prayed over my submission, that my bell would ring louder than his. I felt I had done my part. Most of the other times that Joel raised my ire, I let my fellow christians know about it, and that accomplished nothing. Is anything known about the author, you ask? No, and it does not matter. His name is printed as Solmon Smith,and he is just one in a long line, prowling about while serving the enemy, who seeks out whom he may destroy. Remember, "we wrestle not against flesh and blood, but against principalities, against powers, against the rulers of the darkness of this world, against spiritual wickedness in high [places]. " (Eph 6:12) The only way to defeat this foe is by using the Word of God. It was the only weapon used by Jesus in Matt 4, when the tempter came to him after a 40 day fast, In an attempt to lure Jesus into sin, said, "If thou be the Son of God, command that these stones be made bread" Jesus simply answered, "It is written...." -to all 3 powerful enticements, and satan was defeated. So as Solomon Smith said in his published letter, "Can Christians be any more clueless about what the bible says? This is the fault of Christians, not Mr. Smith. We as the Lord's servants are ordered to "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth." (2 Tim 2:15) And the Old Testament Command: "And these words which I command you today shall be in your heart. "You shall teach them diligently to your children, and shall talk of them when you sit in your house, when you walk by the way, when you lie down, and when you rise up. "You shall bind them as a sign on your hand, and they shall be as frontlets between your eyes. "You shall write them on the doorposts of your house and on your gates. (Deu 6:6-9) This is how we must answer people like Smith who call us "shallow" as he proclaims,"The truth is human decency and compassion are what guide us in following the universal law of love. It comes from the heart." We as Christians know "The heart [is] deceitful above all [things], and desperately wicked: who can know it?" Jer 17:9 So, we must be diligent in our studies. Thank God for forums such as this, where we can fortify ourselves against these relentless onslaughts. God Bless, and Bless God! keliy P.S. if, as you say, we are unable to legislate morality, then lets take all police officers of the force, because they are wasting taxpayer's money. |
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208 | Keliy, can faith be predetermined? | Eph 2:8 | keliy | 213100 | ||
Norton, Please remember that we are not dealing with the original language in the verse you are referring to. There is no language that translates 100 percent into any other language. -This means You are placing your understanding at the mercy of an interpretation. "You Have Been" is one interpretation, that is all it is. For instance, the KJV renders it, "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: [it is] the gift of God" There are many nuances in the original Greek that can only be covered here in specifics by one who is more knowledgeable than I. But if I may suggest to you, there are moods, tenses, and genders of words that all play a part in proper interpretation. Translation is not just a science, but an art as well, because language is flexible and changes over time. For instance, what would you think, as you are called upon from another country in another time, and you are looking at a phrase such as "let's eat a hot dog" or, "care to join me in a butter burger?" I think it may increase your understanding if you were to look into hermeneutics. a good start would be to go to: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hermeneutics I am in agreement with you on Grace. No works can be attached. These works will not survive the refiners fire, but will be burned up like hay. Thank you for your time as well. (o: !! keliy |
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209 | Does All mean All or is the a BUT? | Rom 5:18 | keliy | 213098 | ||
Hi Norton, you ask in your post, 'Is there more to this?' The short answer of course, would be, Yes. The long answer has to do with Paul, because he is known for expressing thought patterns in overly long sentences that run on and take up a string of verses. This is one of such cases. If you were to go backwards through the preceding verses and look only at the first word in each verse you will find what is referred to as 'connecting words'. It also helps to look at the punctuation mark at the end of the prior verse, and you will not usually see a period -if it is before a connecting word. (an example of three connecting words would be: 'and', 'for', 'but') Notice also the beginning of the chapter. The first word is, 'Therefore.' And what that means, is the thought pattern is continued from the preceding passage. (it is another 'connecting word')So, to get a cursory glance at the preceding thought pattern, just look at the verses that are sandwiched between the last two periods of the prior chapter. That is what the 'therefore' is there for. (I did say 'cursory' glance) It also helps to remember that many of the punctuation marks were not there in the original language, but were placed there in the process of translation. Now we can look into your query, (sorry) -I just felt it necessary to lay a proper foundation. That by one man sin entered the world is in 5:12. The first Adam was the sinner that brought on the fallen state that we live in today. No one is free from the sinful nature that is each one of us. Then, in 5:9 we are told that we are saved through (the second Adam), one man, who is Jesus. They are called first and second Adams because they are the only two men in creation without biological fathers. And yes, by the righteousness of the one, the free gift came upon all men. All we have to do is accept the gift to gain possession of it and claim our inheritance forever. Praise God, Amen. Lord Bless, keliy |
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210 | Keliy, can faith be predetermined? | Eph 2:8 | keliy | 213094 | ||
Hi Norton, Your Question can be divided into three parts, I will do my best off the cuff and then we can discuss finer details as others join in. First you said, "If grace is a free gift..." Well, let us first define grace: Grace is enabling power sufficient for progression. Grace divine is an indispensable gift from God for development, improvement, and character expansion. Without God's grace, there are certain limitations, weaknesses, flaws, impurities, and faults (i.e. carnality) humankind cannot overcome. Therefore, it is necessary to increase in God's grace for added perfection, completeness, and flawlessness. (from: wikipedia.org) Then going to God's Word, "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: [it is] the gift of God" (Eph 2:8) This tells us that God empowers us to do what we are unable to do ourselves, and His motivation would be Love. I have also heard 'grace' described as getting what we do not deserve, and 'mercy' as not getting what we do deserve. (at least until we are judged by Him) As far as doing anything to earn this gift, Isaiah 64:6 tells us that all our works of righteousness are nothing but filthy rags. -So what can we sinners actually offer to a holy God, who is all powerful, and has already given to us anything that we might choose to offer Him? Second you said, "knowing that God put us here for a purpose in his plan..." I agree, so not really a question, but what is the purpose of His plan? Why did He place us here, and create the air, and food, and water here solely for our benefit? If I may suggest to you sir, it is not for our benefit but His. In the end we will be giving God the Glory. That is our final destination So, The third part, and the gajillion dollar question has to do with "his decision on who of us he gives to His Son" Well for Him to decide whom to give, means that there is ones that must be withheld. I have often pondered the answer in a parrallel question: Why DID God put that tree in the center of the garden if He knew what would happen? Or, taken a step further, why did He create satan? Why was Judas put in that place at that particular time? The answer has to be that God is sovereign. It is His plan, formulated with His wisdom. There is nothing anywhere to compare on earth, that we can squeeze into our limited consciousness. It is His design and to question His reasons is to put our wisdom against His. I tend to go on a bit, so I will stop, I have to leave for an hour. But, as an off the cuff answer, I will ask others on the Forum to chime in and invest 2 shillings for your edification. God Bless you. keliy |
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211 | Question about Fasting | Matt 15:32 | keliy | 213091 | ||
Hi Loyal357, Basically, fasting means "not having eaten" The above verse in the NASB uses hungry, where the KJV uses fasting. No, it is not impossible to do this at work. There are legitimate fasts however, and not so legitimate ones. If I am unable to get something to eat because I have no money, is it appropriate for me to decide to fast at that point? You could lengthen the fast by not eating before work, or even after. But I have heard there are shorter fasts, such as one meal. Or there is the 'Daniel fast' where he didn't eat food from the king. There is a reason for fasting that is only known within ourselves. That is what makes it so personal and builds our relationship with God, who knows our heart. It is ok to fast at work if your heart is in the right place, and the environment does not hinder you. Sometimes I get so busy at work that I forget to eat. That is a type of fast that I can not offer to God. But If I had a particular reason to make a request before the Lord, and wanted to skip meals and pray along with it during work, that could be considered legitimate. If I were given an hour at work to go for lunch, and I chose to replace physical nourishment with prayer in a quiet spot I would think that the Lord would honor that as me denying myself, and living in the spirit, not my flesh. There are so many aspects to fasting, and many various interpretations. Pray about this and seek the Lord. He will give you the answer that you seek Lord Bless keliy |
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212 | Faith a gift? | Eph 2:8 | keliy | 213085 | ||
Thanks Brad, Excellent post. No apology necessary, we all are torn from what we wish we could do, in order to comply with the demands placed upon us through this life. May the Lord bless you keliy |
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213 | Faith a gift? | Eph 2:8 | keliy | 213076 | ||
Hi Brad, I am sorry to disagree with your answer, but I feel it is difficult to prove a point by plucking out a verse without looking at the verses that precede, or follow the thoughts we are trying to interpret. Romans 10:17 is offered as the prooftext, but looking a little closer, verse 17 is a continuation of a passage that begins in verse 13, "For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." Although there are many that do hear the Word yet do not believe. So,this thought goes much deeper than the simple statement so it is continued, for clarification in v. 14. "How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher?" Verse 15 continues with the connecting word "But" (I am in the KJV) and again, v.16 begins with "But" and verse 17 begins with "So then" -meaning the author is going to sum up the words that came beforehand. Paul is saying that the word preached is the ordinary way of gaining faith and those that believe have first heard the Word. Yes, Faith cometh by hearing. So what does Jesus have to say, since not all those who hear do actually believe? The different responses to God's Word are not dependent upon grace, for we all receive grace. So as Jesus declares "no one can come to Me unless it is granted him by the Father." (John 6:65) He further relates in the same passage: " all that the Father gives to Me will come to Me." (John 6:37) Now, both phrases have in common the words, "Come to Me" -which simply mean to believe in Him. So taken together we can learn that no one can believe in Him unless God grants it, and also everyone that God grants to believe, will believe. I am of the mind that this interpretation lines up closer to your second verse, that of Rom 12:3 According to these verses then, God grants faith, a faith that will with no doubt arise in the hearts of those to whom He has given His Son. Lord Bless, and grant us faith keliy |
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214 | What about the violence in the home? | Phil 3:21 | keliy | 213067 | ||
Hello humility. Have you tried calling the authorities? I would say you should get a temporary separation, living outside the home, or if that doesn't work, a restraining order would be in order for your own protection. Please consider, that I have no way of knowing your circumstance, just speaking from the Word of God. Lord Bless, keliy |
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215 | Ananias and Sapphira paid for their sin | Acts 5:9 | keliy | 213061 | ||
Hi Val, It is always a pleasure to discuss topics with you. This is the definition from Webster's, explaining what I meant about apologetics. 1 : systematic argumentative discourse in defense (as of a doctrine) 2 : a branch of theology devoted to the defense of the divine origin and authority of Christianity On the judging note, I said in my post that I was not being judgemental. - I did know these workers on a personal level for a long time, and when the conversation continued, I told him that going to church for an hour a week is not what gets you to heaven, if you are not going to give it another thought for the rest of the week. And, his response was, No. That is not the way it works. So, he is standing upon a works based doctrine, thinking that church attendance will gain him admission into heaven. And, if you saw the pictures posted above his desk, and the material in the drawers, you would agree. What I meant by the forgiveness reference was to get back to the original question. Why were Annanias and Sapphira not forgiven their sin? Was not the Blood of Christ sufficient to save them? Is that how our Father chastens the children He loves? By stopping their heart on the spot, the very instant of an infraction? I am not pretending to know the spiritual level of Annanias and Sapphira, so I suppose it is another possibility that the Lord cut them down to prevent them from committing the unpardonable sin. But, again. We will know the answer to this biblical difficulty when the perfect comes and all that is imperfect disappears. Thank you, Val. May God Bless you and yours. keliy |
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216 | Ananias and Sapphira paid for their sin | Acts 5:9 | keliy | 213059 | ||
Hi Val, thank you for your response. I have looked for the answer for some time now, then I felt the Forum could be of help. My Big Book of Bible Difficulties (Geisler, Howe; Baker Books) does not even touch this verse.) Annanias and Sapphira were actually wrong on many different levels. One, they were trying to exalt themselves as far as their standing among church members. Yet, the path to greatness is always that of humility. "He that exalteth himself shall be abased. He that humbles himself shall be exalted"(Luke 14:11). While you say since they were in the church, you presume them to be Christians, I might ask you if all who attend church are Christians? I have co-workers who say they are Christians because they go to church every Sunday, and my response was "does going to a garage make you an automobile? (I knew them personally, and that they did not discipline themselves for the other six and one half days every week) I was not judgemental, just trying to shed some light in the darkness. This brings us to the parable of the wheat and the tares which I show partially here: "The slaves of the landowner came and said to him, 'Sir, did you not sow good seed in your field? How then does it have tares?' "And he said to them, 'An enemy has done this!' The slaves said to him, 'Do you want us, then, to go and gather them up?' "But he said, 'No; for while you are gathering up the tares, you may uproot the wheat with them. (Mat 13:27-29) The salvation of the pair is not mentioned in the Bible, so we should not fill in the blanks on our own. Their sins are numerous, but I will begin with pride, and greed. Yet, the sin for which they gave their lives was not the sin of holding back, because God did not require, or even ask them to give everything. The sin that likely caused their death was the sin of hypocrisy--they pretended to give all to God while they were holding back from God. Christ was building His church through His Holy Spirit and it was expanding very fast. Our Lord's exposed wisdom likely deemed that the hypocrites could not remain. He showed us that He was sovereign, and the church was quickly purged from their hypocrisy. As Jesus said, "Beware of the leaven of the Pharisees which is hypocrisy." And Paul told the Corinthian church years later to "purge out the leaven therefore." I basically was looking for an apologetic answer to the brother who was belittling the wisdom of the Bible, which says all are made righteous in the eyes of God through the Blood of Christ. As Jesus said, we must forgive not seven times, but seventy times seven, there must be a reason why the Holy Spirit felt it necessary to include this story that seems to conflict with what we have been taught in other verses, such as Acts 5:31 "He is the one whom God exalted to His right hand as a Prince and a Savior, to grant repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins. All of this Val, and there is no answer to the question, and I expect I might not find the answer in this life. Lord Bless, keliy |
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217 | Ananias and Sapphira paid for their sin | Acts 5:9 | keliy | 213056 | ||
Thank You, Cheri, I appreciate that you took time out of your schedule at work to send your thoughts. (that was very thoughtful of you :o) I also want to thank you for the link for the Torah Class mp3 studies, I listen everyday, and enjoy it very much. Praise God. I do believe this couple's sin goes back, as all sin does, to the beginning, concerning lust and pride. They were covetous of worldly wealth, and distrustful of God's providence. So in their attempt to serve God and mammon, they attempted to deceive the apostles. Trying to shortchange God, they shortchanged their very souls. My question, Cheri, had to do with why did the Blood of Christ not cover their sin? This was proposed to me by a brother who has been saved about 30 years before I. And though we were acquaintances, he (still) belongs to a church that does not accept the Word of God as the final authority for his life. So, his question, in trying to belittle the inspired Word of God deserves the best answer that the Spirit will lead me to. The convo was actually about how there is no remission of sin w/out the shedding of blood. In the OT, it was the blood of animals. In the NT, the blood of Christ put an end to the necessity of animals blood. I believe that Jesus had the final 3 words to say towards the salvation of mankind when He said, "It is finished." and the temple veil proved it. Thank you once more, in listening to the Torah Class just today, I heard the explanation of the difference between the New Testament and the New Covenant. As Tom Bradford puts it, the New Covenant was explained in the OT, and it is testified of in the New Testament. Shalom, keliy |
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218 | Why did they oppose Jesus and how? | John 11:46 | keliy | 213053 | ||
Hi Rose, That question could call for a very long answer, but I will keep it short. The Pharisees opposed Jesus for selfish reasons. They were particularly disturbed over his acts of healing people during the Sabbath as well as His claims of divinity. The Pharisees followed Jesus and his disciples trying to catch them breaking the law (Matthew 12:1,2). Some verbally attacked Jesus and his disciples for violating established Jewish tradition (Matthew 15:1,2). Some accused Jesus of violating the Sabbath doing work on that day (Matthew 12:9-14). Some accused Jesus of obtained his power from Satan (Matthew 12:24). They also tried to trap Jesus in his teachings (Matthew 22:15), and supported the plan to kill Jesus "for the good of the nation" (John 11:46-50). But, not all Pharisees were "bad Pharisees " Nicodemus was a Pharisee (John 3:1) Also, “the Jews” seems to apply to all Jews, as if all Jews were opposed to Jesus. This is one way of reading it. The Scribes were in opposition because they "knew the Scripture so well", that they believed it was someone other than Jesus who was to be the Messiah. Saul, of Tarsus opposed Jesus, through the persecution of His Church. Also, satan opposes Jesus, just stating the obvious to get this enemy on the list. The list goes on, -do atheists actually 'hate' Jesus? blessings, keliy |
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219 | Proverbs 8:13 | Prov 8:13 | keliy | 213048 | ||
Hello haalo, The King James has it froward, rather than perverse. The AKJV uses the word 'fraudulent, and Darby uses froward. Anyway, the Hebrew word in the Bible is Strong's H2015 "tahpukah" which is a feminine noun that is said to mean, perverseness, or foolishness. Strong's Hebrew Dictionary defines it: a perversity or fraud:--(very) froward(-ness, thing), perverse thing. Blessings to you, keliy |
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220 | What is this from? | Ps 139:13 | keliy | 213046 | ||
Hello bethany151, Welcome to the Forum. I am not used to seeing a question remain unanswered for one and a half days, so I thought I would just take a stab at it. Not knowing what level you are at presently, I put down the first verses that came to my mind. If there is something else, maybe others might join in. Or, if I am on the wrong track, please repost your question. Blessings to you, keliy Psa 139:13-16 You made all the delicate, inner parts of my body and knit me together in my mother's womb. Thank you for making me so wonderfully complex! Your workmanship is marvelous-and how well I know it. You watched me as I was being formed in utter seclusion, as I was woven together in the dark of the womb. You saw me before I was born. Every day of my life was recorded in your book. Every moment was laid out before a single day had passed. 1Cr 12:14-18 Now the body is not made up of one part but of many. If the foot should say, “Because I am not a hand, I do not belong to the body,” it would not for that reason cease to be part of the body. And if the ear should say, “Because I am not an eye, I do not belong to the body,” it would not for that reason cease to be part of the body. If the whole body were an eye, where would the sense of hearing be? If the whole body were an ear, where would the sense of smell be? But in fact God has arranged the parts in the body, every one of them, just as he wanted them to be. |
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