Results 1641 - 1659 of 1659
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Morant61 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1641 | Who and When? | Rev 17:14 | Morant61 | 46769 | ||
Greetings Mommapbs! I'll leave the 'when' part of the question for someone else, but I will take a stab at the 'who' part of the question. :-) The Greek of Rev. 17:14 seems pretty clear that one group of individuals is mentioned, but described in three ways. The Greek literally says, "...and those with Him called and chosen and faithful." 'Those' is a plural definite article, which is not repeated. Therefore, the three adjectives all are describing one group. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1642 | CAN YOU EXPLAIN 18:23 RE PHARMACIA? | Rev 18:23 | Morant61 | 122451 | ||
Greetings Mwilson38! 'Pharmacia' is a Greek word that refers to the practice of magic, usually involving drugs or potions. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1643 | How many resurrections, and where stated | Rev 20:5 | Morant61 | 7301 | ||
Greetings Isabel! The answer to your question about the number of resurrections is found in Rev. 20:5 and Rev. 20:12-13. Rev. 20:5 clearly states that there will be more than one resurrection. Those who are a part of the first resurrection reign with Christ for a thousand years. Rev. 20:12-13 deals with the "rest of the dead", who do not reign with Christ and are subject to the second death. In actuality, there are several resurrections. The "first" of Rev. 20:5 seems to be in relationship to the last resurrection of Rev. 20:12-13, not 'first' in a chronological sense. I say this because the evidence for the following resurrections. a) The resurrection of Christ and the Old Testament saints - 1 Cor. 15:23 and Mt. 27:52-53. b) The resurrection of dead saints and the translation of living saints at 13-18. c) The resurrection of the two witnesses in Rev. 11:3-11. (This may be a subset of the rapture!) There are probably more references, but this is just a quick list that I threw together. Concerning the relationship of multiple resurrections to John 5:28-29, I think that John 5:28-29 is an example of prophetic telescoping. In prophecy, several distant (in time) events are often telescoped together in such a way that they appear as a single event. Thus, John 5:28-29 is concerned with the reality of resurrection and judgement, not necessarily with giving an indepth description of how it occurs. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1644 | verse besides Rev.20:5 that show two res | Rev 20:5 | Morant61 | 7330 | ||
Greetings Isabel! Off of the top of my head, I am not aware of any other verses that specify the amount of time between the two resurrections! However, we do have a very clear statement in Rev. 20:5. Concerning the telescoping of prophecy, the best example is probably Mt. 24. In Mt. 24, Jesus deals with the fall of Jerusalem and events which still have not yet occurred. However, it is very difficult to tell where Mt. 24 stops talking about past events (for us) and future events. So, John 5:25-29 could be an example of telescoping or of specificity. By that last term I mean some Scriptures simply don't deal with every detail of an issue. Some Scriptures are more general in nature. When this occurs, we must allow Scripture to interpret Scripture by pulling other verses in. So Rev. 20:5, would help clarify or explain in greater detail John 5:25-29. Well, I've got to get to bed! Bye for now! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1645 | Who's in 1st and 2nd resurrection? | Rev 20:5 | Morant61 | 73674 | ||
Greetings Chusarcik! I'm quite sure that no one can give an answer that everyone will agree with, but here is my position on the first and second resurrections. The first resurrection is made up of several stages. a) Christ Himself - 1 Cor. 15:20. b) The Old Testament saints - Mt. 27:52-53. c) The deceased New Testament saints who are raised at the rapture 1 Thess. 4:16. d) Those saints who died after the rapture - Rev. 20:4. According to Rev. 20:6, I believe all believers (regardless of when they are saved) are part of the first resurrection. Therefore, the 'rest of the dead' must refer to those who have died prior to the beginning of the 1,000 year reign, but who did not accept Christ. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1646 | VERSE-5, BUT THE REST O THE DEAD | Rev 20:5 | Morant61 | 86143 | ||
Greetings Swiggy22! Allow me to begin answering your question by re-posting a post I previously made about the words translated as Hell. Then, I will address your specific question. ************************* Allow me to explain my point, but first let me emphasis that I do believe in an eternal punishment in Hell for the wicked. The only problem is that the KJV (along with several other translations) translates four different words as 'hell'. This leads to much confusion over who is in hell, when, why, ect... Here are the four different words: In Hebrew (Sheol) and in Greek (Hades, Tartarus, and Gehenna). Allow me to briefly describe each term. 1) Sheol: Hebrew only uses one word to describe the state of the dead. This word can simply refer to death or the grave in general or it can refer to the spiritual status of all the dead. Prov. 9:18 says of Sheol - "But little do they know that the dead are there, that her guests are in the depths of the grave." Thus, Sheol is a place where all the dead go. Ps. 9:17 says that Sheol is a place where the wicked go - "The wicked return to the grave, all the nations that forget God." However, even godly Jacob expected to go to Sheol according to Gen. 44:29 - " If you take this one from me too and harm comes to him, you will bring my gray head down to the grave in misery.?" And, Ps. 89:48 affirms that all men will go to Sheol - "What man can live and not see death, or save himself from the power of the grave? Selah" Thus, this Old Testament word is best translated as 'Death' or the 'Grave' and simply refers to the state of all men at death. It does not refer to what we think of as 'Hell' in the sense of an eternal place of conscience punisment. 2) Hades: This is the New Testament equivalent of Sheol. It has much the same meaning as did Sheol with one exception. That exception being that the New Testament fills the meaning out with the passage to which you refered. Thus, we discover in Luke 16:20-31 that there are compartments in Sheol/Hades . There is a place of punishment where the wicked go to await final judgement and there is a paradise side, Abraham's bosom, where the righteous go to await salvation. This paradise side is now empty. After the death of Christ, complete atonement was made for sin and all those who died 'in Christ' went to be with Him in Heaven. Notice that Jesus did not tell the thief on the cross that he would be with Him in Heaven today, becase Heaven was not available until after the resurrection of Christ. The wicked dead still go to the punishment side of Sheol/Hades and will remain there until the Great White Throne of Judgement. 3) Tartarus: This word is only found once in the Bible. 2 Peter 2:4 desribes it as a place where certain Angels were placed until judgement. Some believe that it may be a lower part of Sheol/Hades. 4) Gehenna: This word describes what we commonly think of as Hell. It is used 12 times in the New Testament and describes a place of punishment, fire, and condemnation. I believe that Gehenna is also refered to in Rev. 20:11-15, where it is called a 'lake of fire'. However, note that this passage teaches that those in Sheol/Hades will be judged and then place into the 'lake of fire'. Thus, no one is actually in Hell right now! *********************** So, in answer to your question, those who die apart from Christ go the Sheol/Hades to await final judgement after the Millenium. Those who die in Christ go, as Paul said, to be with the Lord immediately upon death. At the Judgement, those who are in Sheol/Hades will be resurrected and judged. They will then be cast into the Lake of Fire (which is what we usually think of when we think of Hell). See Rev. 20 Those who are in Christ, will continue to live on with Him in a new Heaven and New Earth. See Rev. 21 and 22. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1647 | Revelation Christ's Millenial Reign | Rev 20:6 | Morant61 | 32546 | ||
Greetings Johanna! If you combine 1 Thess. 4:13-18 and Rev. 20:1-6, it seems pretty clear that all believers, dead and alive, will be raised and return with Christ to rule with Him during the 1000 years. Those referred to in Rev. 20:5 and 20:6 as not being raised are those who are not believers. They will be subject to the second death - what we think of as Hell. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1648 | Why not allow that to begin with? | Rev 20:7 | Morant61 | 46094 | ||
Greetings Runningfaith! I don't think anyone really knows the answer to your question since Scripture never addresses it. However, if I were to make a reasoned guess, I would say that Satan is loosed to allow those born during the millenial reign of Christ to have the opportunity to accept or reject Him - or to put their 'faith' to the test. The Bible Knowledge Commentary says of this verse: ************************* "John was told what would happen at the conclusion of the thousand years. Satan will be released from the Abyss, his prison, and will make a final attempt to induce nations—called Gog and Magog—to come and battle with him against Christ. Satan’s release will produce a worldwide rebellion against the millennial reign of Christ. The armies will be so vast in numbers that they are said to be like the sand on the seashore. Who are these who will follow Satan? Those who survive the Tribulation will enter the Millennium in their natural bodies, and they will bear children and repopulate the earth (Isa. 65:18-25). Under ideal circumstances in which all know about Jesus Christ (cf. Jer. 31:33-34), many will outwardly profess faith in Christ without actually placing faith in Him for salvation. The shallowness of their professions will become apparent when Satan is released. The multitudes who follow Satan are evidently those who have never been born again in the millennial kingdom." ************************* You asked how anyone could reject Christ after seeing all that will have taken place on the earth during that time. But, we have historical evidence of just this exact situation. The nation of Israel rejected God after all that He did during the exodus. The nation of Israel rejected God after seeing the ministry of Jesus in person. There is no end to man's ability to delude himself if he wants to continue in sin and reject the light. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1649 | Is there evil durning the MR? | Rev 20:7 | Morant61 | 46382 | ||
Greetings Runningbear! I think that Is. 55:3-5 gives us some insight into the purpose and nature of the Millenial Kingdom. "Give ear and come to me; hear me, that your soul may live. I will make an everlasting covenant with you, my faithful love promised to David. 4 See, I have made him a witness to the peoples, a leader and commander of the peoples. 5 Surely you will summon nations you know not, and nations that do not know you will hasten to you, because of the LORD your God, the Holy One of Israel, for he has endowed you with splendor.”" Personally, I believe that the main purpose of the Millenial Kingdom is to fulfill God's covenant with Israel. She will be front and center, so to speak, for the 1,000 years. Now, how does this answer your question? Simply this: the world will be a mix of spiritual and physical. I don't believe that sin will be gone, but only that Christ's physical presence and reign will subdue it. So, when Satan is released again, many will follow their sinful natures and go after him. In the New Heaven and the New Earth, there will not be any more sin. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1650 | Who are the Gog and Magog? | Rev 20:8 | Morant61 | 21236 | ||
Scripture............................................. Greetings Joy! The phrase "Gog and Magog" occurs in only places in the Bible. It is found in Rev. 20:8 and in Ez. 38:2. Both passages refer to battles, but they appear to be different battles. Ez. 38 involves only a few nations, while Rev. 20 involves the entire world. Ez. 38 appears to be fought in the end times, while Rev. 20 is fought after the millenium. The phrase itself is difficult to understand. Gog basically refers to the ruler, while Magog refers to the people ruled by Gog. Most feel that God is to be identified with Gyges, king of Lydia (c. 660 bc) Thus, Rev. 20:8 cannot be refering to the same person, since he died several thousand years ago. Most feel therefore, that the phrase "Gog and Magog" has taken on sort of a symbolic meaning for "distant enemies." I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1651 | Death | Rev 20:14 | Morant61 | 7769 | ||
Greetings Cepas! I was reading this thread, and I noticed that the word "destroyed" suddenly appeared. I was wondering where did you get it from? The text of Rev. 20:13-15 makes it clear that Death and Hades both refer to a state of existence. In vs. 13, these abodes of the dead give up the dead that are in them for judgement. So in verse 14, it is the people who are in Death and Hades that are thrown into the Lake of Fire, not the abodes themselves. This is made clear in verse 15, where we are informed that anyone who is not listed in the Book of Life is thrown into the Lake of Fire. However, none of these verses says that anyone or anything is destroyed. Tim Moran |
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1652 | Did Christ die the "second" death for us | Rev 20:14 | Morant61 | 18448 | ||
Greetings Peter! You are to be commended for a very teachable attitude. We should always examine our beliefs in light of Scripture. To answer your question, your friend at church is correct. The "second death" is mentioned four times in the NIV. 1) Rev. 2:11 - "He who has an ear, let him hear what the Spirit says to the churches. He who overcomes will not be hurt at all by the second death." 2) Rev. 20:6 - "Blessed and holy are those who have part in the first resurrection. The second death has no power over them, but they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with him for a thousand years." 3) Rev. 20:14 - "Then death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. The lake of fire is the second death." 4) Rev. 21:8 - " But the cowardly, the unbelieving, the vile, the murderers, the sexually immoral, those who practice magic arts, the idolaters and all liars—their place will be in the fiery lake of burning sulfur. This is the second death.”" The last two references are the most important concerning your question. The "second death" is a reference to the final judgement of all those who reject Christ. It is literally what we think of when we use the term "Hell." You are correct that Christ died as our substitute. However, He has not been nor will He be consigned to an eternity in hell. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1653 | Hell/Lake of Fire | Rev 20:14 | Morant61 | 171731 | ||
Greetings Winningside! Here is an older post of mine that deals with this question. I hope it is helpful. ********** Allow me to explain my point, but first let me emphasis that I do believe in an eternal punishment in Hell for the wicked. The only problem is that the KJV (along with several other translations) translates four different words as 'hell'. This leads to much confusion over who is in hell, when, why, ect... Here are the four different words: In Hebrew (Sheol) and in Greek (Hades, Tartarus, and Gehenna). Allow me to briefly describe each term. 1) Sheol: Hebrew only uses one word to describe the state of the dead. This word can simply refer to death or the grave in general or it can refer to the spiritual status of all the dead. Prov. 9:18 says of Sheol - "But little do they know that the dead are there, that her guests are in the depths of the grave." Thus, Sheol is a place where all the dead go. Ps. 9:17 says that Sheol is a place where the wicked go - "The wicked return to the grave, all the nations that forget God." However, even godly Jacob expected to go to Sheol according to Gen. 44:29 - " If you take this one from me too and harm comes to him, you will bring my gray head down to the grave in misery.?" And, Ps. 89:48 affirms that all men will go to Sheol - "What man can live and not see death, or save himself from the power of the grave? Selah" Thus, this Old Testament word is best translated as 'Death' or the 'Grave' and simply refers to the state of all men at death. It does not refer to what we think of as 'Hell' in the sense of an eternal place of conscience punisment. 2) Hades: This is the New Testament equivalent of Sheol. It has much the same meaning as did Sheol with one exception. That exception being that the New Testament fills the meaning out with the passage to which you refered. Thus, we discover in Luke 16:20-31 that there are compartments in Sheol/Hades. There is a place of punishment where the wicked go to await final judgement and there is a paradise side, Abraham's bosom, where the righteous go to await salvation. This paradise side is now empty. After the death of Christ, complete atonement was made for sin and all those who died 'in Christ' went to be with Him in Heaven. Notice that Jesus did not tell the thief on the cross that he would be with Him in Heaven today, becase Heaven was not available until after the resurrection of Christ. The wicked dead still go to the punishment side of Sheol/Hades and will remain there until the Great White Throne of Judgement. 3) Tartarus: This word is only found once in the Bible. 2 Peter 2:4 desribes it as a place where certain Angels were placed until judgement. Some believe that it may be a lower part of Sheol/Hades. 4) Gehenna: This word describes what we commonly think of as Hell. It is used 12 times in the New Testament and describes a place of punishment, fire, and condemnation. I believe that Gehenna is also refered to in Rev. 20:11-15, where it is called a 'lake of fire'. However, note that this passage teaches that those in Sheol/Hades will be judged and then place into the 'lake of fire'. Thus, no one is actually in Hell right now! This is part of the reason why it is unBiblical to say that Jesus descended into Hell after His death. He went into Sheol/Hades (or the Grave), where Scripture foretold that God the Father would not leave Him. He went to paradise (possibly the prison of 1 Peter 3:9), but there is not any Scripture which says that He went to Hell. *********** Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1654 | what does second death mean? | Rev 21:8 | Morant61 | 24845 | ||
Scripture................................... Greetings Toto! The phrase "second death" is only used four times in the Bible. All four occurances are in the book of Revelation. Two of the verses define who will not be effected by the second death. Two of the verses define the second death. Here are the two which define who will not be effected by the second death. 1) Rev. 2:11 - "He who has an ear, let him hear what the Spirit says to the churches. He who overcomes will not be hurt at all by the second death." 2) Rev. 20:6 - "Blessed and holy are those who have part in the first resurrection. The second death has no power over them, but they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with him for a thousand years." Here are the two which define the second death. 3) Rev. 20:14 - "Then death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. The lake of fire is the second death." 4) Rev. 21:8 - "But the cowardly, the unbelieving, the vile, the murderers, the sexually immoral, those who practice magic arts, the idolaters and all liars—their place will be in the fiery lake of burning sulfur. This is the second death." Thus, the second death refers to what we would normally think of as hell. It is the final destination of all those who have rejected Christ. Those who have accepted Christ will never experience the second death because it is primarily enteral seperation from God. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1655 | Spritual or Physical ? | Rev 21:8 | Morant61 | 24958 | ||
Greetings Toto! Since the "second death" is speaking of Hell, I would say that it is more spiritual than physical. Most who are thrown into the lake of fire have already died physically, while some may have still been alive. I think the key point is that this will be an eternal seperation from God. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1656 | Who knows? | Rev 21:27 | Morant61 | 7372 | ||
Greetings Charis! I appreciated your comments! There is nothing wrong with being firm in one's beliefs. However, we all too often become dogmatic on things that Scripture is not dogmatic about. The "book of life" occurs six times in the book of Revelation. They are: 1) Rev. 3:5 - "He who overcomes will, like them, be dressed in white. I will never blot out his name from the book of life, but will acknowledge his name before my Father and his angels." 2) Rev. 13:8 - "All inhabitants of the earth will worship the beast—all whose names have not been written in the book of life belonging to the Lamb that was slain from the creation of the world." 3) Rev. 17:8 - "The beast, which you saw, once was, now is not, and will come up out of the Abyss and go to his destruction. The inhabitants of the earth whose names have not been written in the book of life from the creation of the world will be astonished when they see the beast, because he once was, now is not, and yet will come." 4) Rev. 20:12 - "And I saw the dead, great and small, standing before the throne, and books were opened. Another book was opened, which is the book of life. The dead were judged according to what they had done as recorded in the books." 5) Rev. 20:15 - "If anyone’s name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire." 6) Rev. 21:27 - "Nothing impure will ever enter it, nor will anyone who does what is shameful or deceitful, but only those whose names are written in the Lamb’s book of life." There are only a couple of statements of fact that can be made from these references. a) The "book of life" is more than just the "book of the living." I have heard some say that the "book of life" is nothing more than a list of those who are or have been alive. However, the references above make it pretty clear that it refers to a list of believers. (How a believer is listed in the book is not explained!) b) Those who are listed in the book will not worship the Beast. c) Those whoare listed in the book will not be astonished (like the world) when the Beast appears. d) The "book of life" will be instrumental at judgement in some fashion. e) Those who are not listed in the "book of life" will face eternity in hell. f) Only those recorded in the "book of life" will enter the Kingdom of God. This seems to be about all that can dogmatically be said about the "book of life." Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1657 | Arminian view of Called Rm 8:30? | Rev 21:27 | Morant61 | 7432 | ||
Greetings Charis! You have asked some great and indepth questions here. I do not approach the Romans the way that most Arminians do, but I will try to lay out my understanding of Romans in general (Part One) and then address your specific questions (Part Two). I believe that Paul was not writing a compendium of his theology in Romans, but specifically dealing with the issue of why the Jewish people were not accepting Christ, and why Paul was the apostle to the Gentiles. After all, the Messiah was a covenant promise to the nation of Israel. If Christ is the Messiah, why weren't the people of Israel coming to Him in faith? Were God's promises to Israel false? If God's promises did not hold true for Israel, then what assurance could Gentiles have that God would be true to them? Had God rejected Israel in extending the Gospel to the Gentiles? The great scholar F. F. Bruce once said of this situation, "..it was a paradox, not to say a scandal, that the very nation which had been specially prepared by God for this time of fulfillment, the nation which could glory in so many unique privileges of divine grace (including above all the messianic hope), the nation into which in due course the Messiah had been born, should have failed to recognize him when he came, while men and women of other nations, which had never enjoyed such privileges, embraced the gospel eagerly the first time they heard it. How could this be harmonized with God's choice of Israel and his declared purpose of blessing the world through Israel?" (Quoted from Beasley-Murray, G. R. "The Righteousness of God in the History of Israel and the Nation: Romans 9-11". Review and Expositor 73. April 1976, pp. 437-438.) These questions lead to what I believe is the thesis of Romans: "I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God for the salvation of everyone who believes: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile." (Romans 1:16) This phrase or a variation of it is repeated in: Rom. 2:9, 2:10, 3:9, 3:29, and 10:12. I believe Romans 1-11, in particular, is an attempt to answer the question of the relationship between the Gentiles and Israel within God's plan of salvation. With this in mind, I would roughly outline Romans in the following way. I. Introduction and thesis: Romans 1:1-18. II. Gentiles and God's wrath: Romans 1:19-32. III. Jews and God's wrath: Romans 2:1-29. IV. All under God's wrath: Romans 3:1-20. V. The Gift of Salvation: Romans 3:21-31. VI. Salvation through Faith: Romans 4:1-8:39. VII. God's Plan for Israel: Romans 9:1-11:36 VIII. Concluding Remarks to the church: Romans 12:1-16:27. This is only a very broad outline. The main point that I am making is simply this: Election cannot be understood outside of the context of the relationship between Israel and the Gentiles in salvation. Every great "Election" passages deals with this issue in it's context. Cont. in Part II Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1658 | Arminian view of Called Rm 8:30? | Rev 21:27 | Morant61 | 7434 | ||
Part II (Cont.) Greetings Charis: I will now try to address your specific questions, though time and space will limit me from being as specific as I would like. 1) Foreknowledge: I believe that Arminians and Calvinists have both been guilty of reading a lot into words that simply isn't there. This is one of those cases. I do not believe (as many Arminians do) that God elects individuals unconditionally based upon their foreseen faith. The word 'foreknew' is only used by Paul twice (Romans 8:29 and 11:2. The word is only used five times in the entire New Testament (the other three occurances being: Acts 26:5, 1 Peter 1:20, and 2 Peter 3:17. I am a firm believer in allowing the Bible to define terms, not our theology. One should look at how a word is used in all of Scripture. One should look at how a word is used by a particular author in all of his writings. Finally, one should look at how a word is used in the book in question. The last being the most important for interpreting a word in it's context. With this in mind, how does Paul use the word 'forknew'. Romans 11:2 gives us the definiton of the word. Romans 11:1-2a says, "I ask then: Did God reject his people? By no means! I am an Israelite myself, a descendant of Abraham, from the tribe of Benjamin. 2 God did not reject his people, whom he foreknew...." There isn't any doubt in my mind that Paul uses this term as a sort of title for Israel. Therefore, he most likely uses it in the same way in Rom. 8:2. Does the evidence support this? Consider the following: a) Within ten verses of Rom. 8:29, Paul begins his discussion of the status of Israel in Romans 9-11. b) Within seven verses of Rom. 8:29, Pauls quotes a Psalm (44), which deals with God's perceived rejection of Israel. Therefore, my understanding of Rom. 8:28-39 is not that God is teaching the unconditional election (through either Divine fiat or foreknowlede) of individuals to salvation, but that Paul is letting Israel (the people whom God foreknew) know that nothing can seperate them from the love of God. (Of course, the message would also be just as significant for all of those who love God.) 2) Called: Your second word is another good example of where I believe many have added meanings that simply are not there. Arminians did it with 'foreknew', and Calvinists have done it with 'called'. There simply is not a single verse in the entire New Testament where 'called' is used in the sense of an irresistable call to salvation. The word is used in several ways. a) To name someone, as in Mt. 1:21. b) To physically call out to someone. c) And, by implication, to invite as in Mt. 22:3-14. Paul uses the word (# 2564) 7 times in Romans: Romans 4:17, 8:30, 9:7, 11, 24, 25, 26. Romans 4:17 seems to be a different context and usage, but the rest all are in the same context. How then does Paul use this word? Each occurances is used within a context which deals with the Spiritual Israel. Paul make the argument in Romans 9 that Israel is made up of all those who have responded in faith to God's call, not just those who are born of Abraham. Romans 9:7 says, "Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children: but, In Isaac shall thy seed be called." Romans 9:24 includes both Jews and Gentiles in the number. This is a direct answer to God's promise in the Old Testament according to Rom. 9:25-26. This is getting long, so will close with this summary. In my view, the Elect refers primarily to Christ and then secondarily to those who are in Christ. The promises of Rom. 8:29-30, refer primarily to Israel, but secondarily to all those who respond to God's call. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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1659 | Not praying for the end of the world | Rev 22:20 | Morant61 | 77360 | ||
Greetings Jburchel! I don't recall any verse which says that we should not pray for the end. However, I do know of several verses which do pray that Jesus would come. 1 Cor. 16:22 says, "If anyone does not love the Lord?a curse be on him. Come, O Lord!" And, Rev. 22:20 says, "He who testifies to these things says, ??Yes, I am coming soon.? Amen. Come, Lord Jesus." The first verse uses the Aramaic expression 'marana tha' which means 'Our Lord, come'. While the second verse seems to be a Greek equivalent of this same expression. Rev. 6:10 records the prayer of those slain for their faith during the end times. It says, "They called out in a loud voice, ??How long, Sovereign Lord, holy and true, until you judge the inhabitants of the earth and avenge our blood?? 11 Then each of them was given a white robe, and they were told to wait a little longer, until the number of their fellow servants and brothers who were to be killed as they had been was completed." So, I would say that it would be okay to pray for the end to come quickly, as believers long to see their Lord. Of course, He will come when He is ready! ;-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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