Results 161 - 180 of 332
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Results from: Notes Author: retxar Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
161 | Joe, | Luke 23:43 | retxar | 64276 | ||
Ed, What about the teaching that Jesus, not wanting to be detained by Mary Magdalene (John 20:17), was on His way to present the blood sacrifice to the Father in heaven? If this be true, it would have occurred outside the 3 days. But as you have said, the blood presented upon the altar in heaven would have logically occurred before the captives were set free, so that would mean it would have occurred outside the 3 days also. Also, did Jesus not also preach to the wicked over on the "hot side" of Hades (1Pe 3:19)? thanks, retxar |
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162 | Joe, | Luke 23:43 | retxar | 64312 | ||
Thanks Ed, One claification tho. I asked "Also, did Jesus not also preach to the wicked over on the "hot side" of Hades (1Pe 3:19)?" I quess that may have been worded funny, but what I meant to say was that 1Pe 3:19 seems to say to me that Jesus did indeed preach to those in the hot dry side of Hades. Maybe you thought I meant something different because your response was "Your exactly right Jesus did not preach to those on the hot dry side of Hades." Was that what you meant to say (which is actually disagreeing with what I meant to say), or did you indeed agree with what I said? retxar |
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163 | Joe, | Luke 23:43 | retxar | 64372 | ||
I thought you might have misunderstood what I said. I guess I was just looking down to vs20 which seems to describe the disobedient ones that missed the boat, not the eight who made it. I am in total agreement with what you said about no second chance after death, as the bible no where suggest this is possible. If Jesus did preach a message there (pre-hell), I don’t think it was one of salvation, but rather one to declare His victory and Lordship to those “under the earth” (Phi_2:10). retxar |
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164 | Are Christians under the Mosaic law? | John 1:17 | retxar | 19879 | ||
NO! Gal 4:7 Therefore you are no longer a slave but a son, and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ. Thank you Jesus! retxar |
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165 | is selling in a church building fine? | John 2:13 | retxar | 59691 | ||
EdB, I have a lot of respect for the things you have to say, bro, but for lack of better judgment, I felt I needed to air out my thoughts here. I have a really hard time thinking of the Temple of Jesus's day as being the same thing as the Church building we have today. What we call the "Church", is a building constructed by men to offer a place for believers to come together to worship God. It is not what people often times refer to as "Gods house". Gods house and presence is no longer behind the veil of the Temple, but in the heart of believers, who are now His temple. To give a Church building that same glory today seems to violate Jesus’s prophesy in John 4:20-24 and seems to be an attempt to sew the veil back up. To me, it seems to accommodate people’s view of the building, not God’s view of His people. I understand what you are saying about things being done in church today that take away from worshiping God in spirit and truth, as He requires, and that cannot be compromised, but when we can approve of something for the simple reason that it is not done on church property, that somehow seems wrong and hypocritical to me. If I felt it was wrong for a musician to offer CDs after a service to support his ministry, I would also feel it was wrong for him to offer them at any other time or place. If I thought it was wrong for a church to offer tapes of there services to cover their expenses in the church library, I would also have to say it was wrong for them to mail them out. If I thought it was wrong for the women’s group to have a fund raiser to help with a mission project on the church’s property, I would also have to say it was wrong for them to have the same thing somewhere else. If I thought it was wrong for the youth to have a hot-dog supper in the Church’s fellowship hall, I would also have to be against them renting the local community center and doing the same thing. I know from reading most of the post, that maybe most people here have a different view of this matter than I do. Maybe even a lot of people I go to church with have a different view too. I also know that even unbelievers have been lead to believe that the Church building is “God’s house”, and that if anything happens there other that a normal church service, that it somehow dishonors God. I know that we are to not cause others to stumble, so sometimes, I guess, we have to do things for appearances sake. But I cannot help but believe that God is after our hearts, not our appearance. Anyway, I would be very willing to change my view. I will listen to anyone who knows of any coming together of NT believers that God honored more because of the building they met in. Or perhaps if God was dishonored in someway by any of the other day to day things that might had taken place there in the place where they were meeting. Worship Him in spirit and truth! retxar |
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166 | is selling in a church building fine? | John 2:13 | retxar | 59755 | ||
Ed, I agree with your resolve that “where God guides, He provides". But I am not sure offering items for sell means a person is selling out their talents and cancels out any hope that their talents will be used for the Lord. Anything can be abused and manipulated, but it seems to me that if God blesses you spiritually thru someone’s ministry, that it would not be wrong for God to continue to bless you thru an item they might offer for purchase or donation and that the money they receive being considered as God’s provision, not money extorted from innocent victims. According to the law, the Jews were required to “pay for their seat” with the Jewish coin “half a shekel” (Exo 30:13). Since Roman currency was what was in current use, the money changers existed because of the required money exchange so the people would be paying their tribute with the proper coin as required by the law. There are several reasons why Jesus drove out the buyers, sellers, and money changers. In Mat 21:13 Jesus quotes the last part of Isa 56:7 which refers to the Temple as “a house of prayer for all nations.” He adds “you have made it a den of thieves” from Jer 7:11. The “all nations” part included the Gentiles. The outer court, where the buying and selling was taking place, was the only place that the Gentiles were allowed. This is where they met to pray. The buying and selling that was going on there was interfering with their worship. The “den of thieves” comes from the fact that the money changers and those selling the “acceptable” sacrifices were extorting money from the people, and at this time of Passover it was very intense. The Temple of Jesus’s day was also a place that God had placed a special glory upon (Hag 2:9 ). This is much different than any church building we have today. So the 3 reasons I see for Jesus clearing the Temple: 1. What was going on was interfering with worship. 2. What was going on was crooked and dishonest. 3. What was going on was violating rules that God had established for the Temple. Of these 3, I think we are still bound by 1 and 2 in the church of today. If we insist that the church building of today has the same rules and regulations as the Temple of Jesus’s day, you would have found me in the parking lot praying today, because I could not even have gone inside. God bless you bro, retxar |
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167 | is selling in a church building fine? | John 2:13 | retxar | 59756 | ||
No problem here bro. I understood exactly what you meant and no further explanation was needed for me. The point you brought up is something we (me) all need to examine as to whether we are pulling our own weight and not making others carry us. retxar |
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168 | THE CROSS | John 3:16 | retxar | 87689 | ||
No, radioman, that should read "if the elect shall not perish, they believe" | ||||||
169 | Why was the samarian woman right? | John 4:16 | retxar | 20067 | ||
The answer is in verse 18 you quoted "he whom thou now hast is NOT thy husband" Having a man is not the same thing as having a husband. retxar |
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170 | Why was the samarian woman right? | John 4:16 | retxar | 20125 | ||
1Co 4:6b ...."Do not go beyond what is written." Then you will not take pride in one man over against another. |
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171 | Why was the samarian woman right? | John 4:16 | retxar | 20160 | ||
You said, and I quote: "Yes, I agree with Rextar. Her answer was correct, because she had been married five times, and the man she was currently living with was not her husband." Thanks for agreeing with me Tim! However, I am not a her, I have been married only once, and the "man" I am living with now just happens to be my lovely wife, so you better get new glasses buddy! Love you bro! retxar |
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172 | Why was the samarian woman right? | John 4:16 | retxar | 20213 | ||
Yea, I knew what you meant. I wus jus a mess'n wi'jah bro! retxar |
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173 | When did disciples receive the Spirit? | John 20:22 | retxar | 16010 | ||
Hi Ray, I don't think you understand my post. Go back and read again. You believe that the Spirit was not given before Pentecost. You added the word "either" as if that was my posistion also.If you go back and read and understand what I was saying, according to the Word, you will know that is not what I was saying. God Bless, bro! retxar |
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174 | When did disciples receive the Spirit? | John 20:22 | retxar | 16040 | ||
Hi Ray, No problem with the misunderstanding. I just wanted to be clear that I believed the disciples first received the Holy Spirit at John 20:22, and Pentecost was “when the Holy Spirit came upon them” as Jesus described in Acts 1:8. 1) My understanding of John 7:38b in regard to the Spirit. John 7 is about Jesus during the Feast of Tabernacles where each year the Jews would dwell in tents in remembrance of how God took care of them after be delivered them from Egyptian bondage. Part of the festival involved thankfulness to God of how He miraculously provided them with water in the wilderness. John 7:37-38 is an invitation Jesus gives for those who thirst to let them come to Him and drink. Isa 12:3 says “Therefore with joy you will draw water from the wells of salvation.” This means to me, as does John 7:38, that salvation is not only a blessing, but also enables us to be a blessing. This is only possible with the Holy Spirit living in us. If the Holy Spirit lives in us then the love of the Holy Spirit will also flow out of us. 2) My view of the word "now" in John 17:5. I believe Jesus was looking at the cross in John 17:5 when He said “And now, O Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.” Jesus had stepped down from His position of glory to a position of submission. With the cross that glory would be restored. The “now” here did not mean “right now” but that the time was at hand; the hour had come, as Jesus put it in verse 1. Look at what Jesus said in John 13:31-32. "NOW the Son of Man is glorified, and God is glorified in Him. If God is glorified in Him, God will also glorify Him in Himself, and glorify Him immediately.” This was after Judas had gone out to betray Him. We know “now” in John 13:31 here could not mean “right now” because Jesus says “now” again in John 17:5, which occurred later. Notice in verse 32 Jesus said “will glorify”, something to happen in the future, not “right now”. Verse 32 even says “immediately”. This is a stronger word than “now”, but John 17:5 proves “immediately” here does not mean “right now” either. Immediately here has to mean Jesus would be glorified at the cross and He would not have to wait for His ascension to be glorified. 3) My understanding of John 14:18,19 and verse 28. This is Jesus’s promise of the Holy Spirit to indwell in all believers. Jesus was God among us, the Holy Spirit is God in us. God Bless You, Bro retxar |
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175 | When did disciples receive the Spirit? | John 20:22 | retxar | 16041 | ||
Hi Ray, No problem with the misunderstanding. I just wanted to be clear that I believed the disciples first received the Holy Spirit at John 20:22, and Pentecost was “when the Holy Spirit came upon them” as Jesus described in Acts 1:8. 1) My understanding of John 7:38b in regard to the Spirit. John 7 is about Jesus during the Feast of Tabernacles where each year the Jews would dwell in tents in remembrance of how God took care of them after be delivered them from Egyptian bondage. Part of the festival involved thankfulness to God of how He miraculously provided them with water in the wilderness. John 7:37-38 is an invitation Jesus gives for those who thirst to let them come to Him and drink. Isa 12:3 says “Therefore with joy you will draw water from the wells of salvation.” This means to me, as does John 7:38, that salvation is not only a blessing, but also enables us to be a blessing. This is only possible with the Holy Spirit living in us. If the Holy Spirit lives in us then the love of the Holy Spirit will also flow out of us. 2) My view of the word "now" in John 17:5. I believe Jesus was looking at the cross in John 17:5 when He said “And now, O Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.” Jesus had stepped down from His position of glory to a position of submission. With the cross that glory would be restored. The “now” here did not mean “right now” but that the time was at hand; the hour had come, as Jesus put it in verse 1. Look at what Jesus said in John 13:31-32. "NOW the Son of Man is glorified, and God is glorified in Him. If God is glorified in Him, God will also glorify Him in Himself, and glorify Him immediately.” This was after Judas had gone out to betray Him. We know “now” in John 13:31 here could not mean “right now” because Jesus says “now” again in John 17:5, which occurred later. Notice in verse 32 Jesus said “will glorify”, something to happen in the future, not “right now”. Verse 32 even says “immediately”. This is a stronger word than “now”, but John 17:5 proves “immediately” here does not mean “right now” either. Immediately here has to mean Jesus would be glorified at the cross and He would not have to wait for His ascension to be glorified. 3) My understanding of John 14:18,19 and verse 28. This is Jesus’s promise of the Holy Spirit to indwell in all believers. Jesus was God among us, the Holy Spirit is God in us. God Bless You, Bro retxar |
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176 | When did disciples receive the Spirit? | John 20:22 | retxar | 16149 | ||
Hi Ray, John 7:38-39 is pretty clear to me. Jesus's Words are quoted in verse 38 and John gives his Holy Spirit inspired commentary in verse 39. The Holy Spirit within Christians is the person of God the Holy Spirit. John 14:16 "And I will pray the Father, and He will give you another Helper, that He may abide with you forever; (another here means "another" but not another in the sense of being different, but another in the sense of being the same kind) John 14:17 "the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees Him nor knows Him; but you know Him, for He dwells with you and will BE IN YOU. thanks! retxar |
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177 | hoyy spirit bap. evidence tounges? | Acts | retxar | 9889 | ||
Jesus said in Acts 1:5 "for John truly baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now." Was Jesus's words here not fulfilled in Acts 2:4 which says "And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance?" Notice Jesus said "baptized with the Holy Spirit" but the actual occurrence was called "filled with the Holy Spirit." How can someone really be that far off base by saying exactly what Jesus said? How can one be that wrong if they call “baptized with the Holy Spirit” and “filled the Holy Spirit” the same thing? Are they not only repeating what Jesus said? I have posted this before and no one can seem to answer that. I am in agreement that all who are born again receive the Holy Spirit as the disciples did in John 20:22. At salvation we are “baptized” into the body of Christ as in 1Cor 12:13, but to me that is not the same as what happened to the disciples in Acts 2:4, the Samaritans in Acts 8:17, Paul in Acts 9:17, or the disciples at Ephesus in Acts 19:6. As I have said before, I can say “filled” with the Holy Spirit instead of “baptized” with the Holy Spirit till Jesus returns, but when someone says “baptized with the Holy Spirit”, I can’t help but think of it as Jesus spoke of it in Acts 1:5 and was fulfilled in Acts 2:4. Please consider, in Christ Jesus, retxar |
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178 | hoyy spirit bap. evidence tounges? | Acts | retxar | 9895 | ||
I understand and respect how you feel about this. I had already looked over the thread, and was not asking for anything to be repeated. I did not see the Acts 1:5 and Acts 2:4 issue I brought up addressed. I may have missed something tho, so I will look back over. Thanks bro, Jesus Lives! |
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179 | the best Manuscripts? | Acts | retxar | 48925 | ||
Greetings justme! The early church fathers usually quoted the longer or additional verses in question as the KJV/NKJV typically reads, rather than the shorter or omitted verses as most modern translations typically read. This would indicate, to me anyway, that the verses in question were from omissions rather than from additions. Check out http://www.geocities.com/lasttrumpet_2000/theo/kjv2.html (I’m not endorsing this site, only pointing you to a source of info). In the beginning was the Word! retxar |
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180 | the best Manuscripts? | Acts | retxar | 49039 | ||
Thanks justme! You said "Therefore if some verse or writing entry show up after the earliest manuscripts it would be a reasonable conclusion that writing entry, or verse was added later." I understand what you are saying, however, what were the early church fathers reading from in the 2nd and 3rd century that seems to be quotes from what is supposable only found in later manuscripts and not the earliest known manuscripts? Example: Cyprian in Treatise XII, Book III, 43 is quoted as saying "Lo, here is water; what is there which hinders me from being baptized? Then said Philip, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest." Cyprian became a Christian in A.D.246 and was martyred in A.D.258, so this quote occurred during this time. This date precedes all known manuscripts of Acts. What he quoted was as Acts 8:36-37 reads in the later manuscripts that the KJV and NKJV are based on, not the earlier manuscripts that the NIV and NASB are based on. If you care to dig into it, I think you will find that most of the early church father’s from the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th, century, quoted scripture that consisted of the longer/additional verses as found in the later Antioch manuscripts instead of scripture that consisted of the shorter/missing verses as found in the earlier Egyptian manuscripts. Study to show thyself approved! retxar retxar |
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