Results 141 - 160 of 332
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Results from: Notes Author: retxar Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
141 | the best Manuscripts? | Acts | retxar | 49075 | ||
Thanks Tim, Keep me honest bro and see if the quote I posted checks out or not! To me (if it checks out) this would assure those who might wonder if Acts 8:37 is authentic or not, to believe that it is. I admit it’s not iron clad evidence that Acts 8:37 was dropped from the earlier known manuscripts, but I’m sure anyone would have to admit it is at least a possibility. God bless! retxar |
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142 | the best Manuscripts? | Acts | retxar | 49059 | ||
What's you take on the early church father's quote of Acts 8:37 that preceeded the earlest known manuscripts? What could they have been reading? thanks, retxar |
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143 | the best Manuscripts? | Acts | retxar | 49039 | ||
Thanks justme! You said "Therefore if some verse or writing entry show up after the earliest manuscripts it would be a reasonable conclusion that writing entry, or verse was added later." I understand what you are saying, however, what were the early church fathers reading from in the 2nd and 3rd century that seems to be quotes from what is supposable only found in later manuscripts and not the earliest known manuscripts? Example: Cyprian in Treatise XII, Book III, 43 is quoted as saying "Lo, here is water; what is there which hinders me from being baptized? Then said Philip, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest." Cyprian became a Christian in A.D.246 and was martyred in A.D.258, so this quote occurred during this time. This date precedes all known manuscripts of Acts. What he quoted was as Acts 8:36-37 reads in the later manuscripts that the KJV and NKJV are based on, not the earlier manuscripts that the NIV and NASB are based on. If you care to dig into it, I think you will find that most of the early church father’s from the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th, century, quoted scripture that consisted of the longer/additional verses as found in the later Antioch manuscripts instead of scripture that consisted of the shorter/missing verses as found in the earlier Egyptian manuscripts. Study to show thyself approved! retxar retxar |
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144 | the best Manuscripts? | Acts | retxar | 48925 | ||
Greetings justme! The early church fathers usually quoted the longer or additional verses in question as the KJV/NKJV typically reads, rather than the shorter or omitted verses as most modern translations typically read. This would indicate, to me anyway, that the verses in question were from omissions rather than from additions. Check out http://www.geocities.com/lasttrumpet_2000/theo/kjv2.html (I’m not endorsing this site, only pointing you to a source of info). In the beginning was the Word! retxar |
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145 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | retxar | 47948 | ||
Greetings Biynah I’m still at a loss of when and where I responded to any of your post other than those I answered as a direct response to what seemed to be an attempt to stir things up a bit. I know how easy it is to get confused to who you might be talking to here, so maybe you thought I was someone else, as your original response to me had no hint of addressing anything I had said in the post you were responding to. If you check the tree, I’m sure you will see that I am correct. If not, please show me where I have erred. Anyway, if you are a true seeker, I would be happy to show you what the Word revealed to me concerning the relevance of tongues being a valid spiritual gift today. Actually, since the Word does not say that any of the spiritual gifts given the church were temporary, the burden of proof would be on you to scripturally prove otherwise. The 1Co 13:8 reference you gave is a good reference that, when taken in context, is strong scriptural evidence that tongues WILL exist until Jesus’s kingdom is complete (1Co 13:10), and will not cease before that. If one insists that 1Co 13:8 is saying that tongues have already ceased, we must also say that knowledge has ceased. Are we living in the last days? The Word says that in the last days that knowledge would increase, not cease (Dan 12:4). The Word says the same thing about prophesies (Acts 2:17). If you wish to defend a “tongues have ceased position” by saying that “when that which is perfect has come”, found in 1Co 13:10, is referring to the completion of the NT, show me anywhere in the Word that the term “face to face”, as found in 1Co 13:12, ever means written words and someone’s face. Also, do you know everything completely, just as God knows you now? (1Co 13:12 ) I sure don’t! In 1Co 1:7 Paul said to the church at Corinth “Now you have every spiritual gift you need as you eagerly wait for the return of our Lord Jesus Christ.” This scripture is clear that they NEEDED all the spiritual gifts they had until Jesus returned. We know for a fact that one of the gifts that Paul said they had and needed was tongues, so it does not make since that Jesus’s church today would not also need that gift, along with the others, until His return. Regardless of whether we ever agree of not, please remember what 1Co 13 is all about. Let’s not get so caught up in ourselves that we forget how we are to act toward one another. Love never fails! retxar |
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146 | did the wine from the water make you dr | Bible general Archive 1 | retxar | 47177 | ||
Hi Tim, I did not do a search as you advised Biynah to do, so forgive me if you have answered this question before. My question is, would there be ANY possibility that the wine Jesus created in John 2 was alcoholic at all. Since it was new wine that Jesus created, and wine only becomes alcoholic from fermentation and decay, how could new wine ever be alcoholic? thanks, retxar |
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147 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | retxar | 47171 | ||
I'm not really interested in a flame throwing exchange with you here, bro. That is defiantly not my intent and I don't think that is the intent of this forum either. I think I’m a little confused tho. You keep referring to me asking the question of whether the spiritual gift of tongues is a valid spiritual gift for today. I can not remember or find that I ever asked that question anywhere on this forum. If I have overlooked something, please let me know. The relevance of the spiritual gift of tongues, along with all spiritual gifts, to remain until Jesus’s return was clearly and undoubtable answered for me thru the Word alone. This question was answered for me with no hint of any other conclusion. I read and believed what the Word revealed to me many years before I had anything I could feel, see, hear, smell, or taste to base it on. The Word always confirms or disqualifies our experiences and observations, not the other way around. retxar |
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148 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | retxar | 47136 | ||
I am glad the truth of God's Word is not established by my experience, my lack of experience, my observations, or the way I try to live it. If it was, we would all be in trouble! retxar |
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149 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | retxar | 47128 | ||
I guess I need to better clarify what I was saying. With no interpretation, the uninformed or the unbeliever could bring judgement on themselves because they might treat the manifestation of the Holy Spirit with scoff and ridicule (1Co 14:23) and the Holy Spirit would be mocked (Act_2:13). This is the only interpretation that makes since because, as you pointed out, words of understanding would be the only ones those who are uninformed or unbelieving would recognize as from the Lord (1Co 14:24-25). retxar |
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150 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | retxar | 47056 | ||
1Co_14:22 says tongues are a sign to unbelievers, but to understand what that means, one must also look at verses before and after. Tongues spoken to the congregation must be interpreted for the benefit and protection of the uninformed and the unbelievers (1Co_14:23). Uninterpreted, the sign to the uninformed or the unbelievers would NOT be a sign of edification, as would occur with interpretation (1Co_14:5). The manifestation of the Holy Spirit would become a sign of judgement to them because they would scoff and the Holy Spirit would be mocked (Act_2:13). The Isaiah quote in 1Co_14:21 bears this out. retxar |
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151 | Where does Jesus say He is God? | Bible general Archive 1 | retxar | 46358 | ||
Thanks Nolan! It was an easy question to answer by just using Jesus’s own words when He at various times un-mistakenly proclaimed Himself to be the self-existing, ever-existing, great I AM! However, I hesitated to answer anyway, since Jesus did not always give an answer to those who already had their mind made up. We are not obligated to answer those who are just out to shut us down and promote themselves, as seems to be the case here. Jesus showed us that by example in Mark 11:27-33. Jesus always answered true seekers tho, as He demonstrated in John 20:24-29 with Thomas. Hopefully I.U. will become a true seeker like Thomas, and Jesus can show them the truth and proof they are looking for and they can be set free! I hope and pray so! Jesus is Lord! retxar P.S. I like you new screen name! |
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152 | what is speaking in tongues? | 1 Corinthians | retxar | 45714 | ||
I would also endorse Jack Hayford's book, "The Beauty of Spiritual Language". I know of no better resourse that would give a more biblical view of speaking in tongues and how it applies to us today. retxar |
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153 | Explanation on 1 John 5:7-8 please? | 1 John | retxar | 29809 | ||
Hi Ray, That's an astute observation Ray! I was not aware that the 77 NASB read so much different here, until I checked out what you told me. I think the 95 probably has the correct reading, or I guess I should say has the proper text in the proper verse. God did not inspire John to put in the verse and chapter numbers anyway, so I guess it would be hard to prove either right or wrong! I would really like to defend the NKJV here, but I don't I could do it honestly. Even Jay P. Green's LITV (Literal Translation) and MKJV (Modern KJV) have 7b and 8a in italics, and he is a hard nosed RT man. The 95 NASB matches up with the WEB, which is a Majority Text translation. That in itself does not prove anything, but the MT usually agrees with the Received Text that the KJV and NKJV were translated from, but here it agrees with the Critical Text that the NASB was translated from. retxar |
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154 | Explanation on 1 John 5:7-8 please? | 1 John | retxar | 29716 | ||
We're go'na have to pray u up a day job, bro! retxar |
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155 | Explanation on 1 John 5:7-8 please? | 1 John | retxar | 29658 | ||
Thanks Tim, I thought that was what you meant, but I was not sure. Thanks for clearing up. retxar |
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156 | Explanation on 1 John 5:7-8 please? | 1 John | retxar | 29643 | ||
Hi Tim, Did you mean to say that NONE of 1John 5:7-8 were in any early manuscripts, or did you mean the longer ending of verse 7 and start of verse 8 was what was added? thanks, retxar |
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157 | Jesus' name baptism? | Acts 2:38 | retxar | 29511 | ||
If Jesus is also the Father and the Holy Spirit, that was a neat trick He pulled on us in Luke 3:22, huh? Why you reckon He did that? Are you the former RevC that was here a while back? Just curious. retxar |
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158 | Jesus' name baptism? | Acts 2:38 | retxar | 29503 | ||
The name common to the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit is GOD. retxar |
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159 | Do holy people have to speak in tongues? | 1 Cor 12:30 | retxar | 29464 | ||
Right on, bro! We need to use the gifts He gives us and let others use the gifts He gives them and realize that all the gifts He gives are good gifts (Mat 7:11). retxar |
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160 | Do holy people have to speak in tongues? | 1 Cor 12:30 | retxar | 29460 | ||
Good day my friend! 1Co 14:2 For he who speaks in another language speaks not to men, but to God; for no one understands; but in the Spirit he speaks mysteries. (WEB) I have read the WEB (World English Bible) and I like it! It translates tongues exactly as you have suggested. However, it still says that at least in some instances, if not in every single instance, that the language spoken is a mystery, only understood by God, and no one else. retxar |
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