Results 141 - 160 of 4232
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
141 | Jesus' Two Natures | Heb 1:3 | kalos | 181448 | ||
Jesus' Two Natures 'Jesus is God in human flesh. He is not half God and half man. He is fully God and fully man. At the incarnation He added to His divine nature the nature of man. Thus He has two natures: divine and human. He is both God and man at the same time. He is not merely a man who "had God within Him" nor is he a man who "manifested the God principle." He is God, second person of the Trinity. "The Son is the radiance of God's glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word" (Heb. 1:3, NIV). Jesus' two natures are not "mixed together," nor are they combined into a new God-man nature. They are separate yet act as a unit. This is called the Hypostatic Union. (...) 'One of the most common errors that non-Christian cults make is not understanding the two natures of Christ. For example, the Jehovah's Witnesses focus on Jesus' humanity and ignore His divinity. The Christian Scientists, on the other hand, focus on the divine nature and ignore the human. 'For a proper understanding of Jesus and, therefore, all other doctrines that relate to Him, His two natures must be properly understood and defined. 'The Bible is about Jesus (John 5:39). The prophets prophesied about Him (Acts 10:43). The Father bore witness of Him (John 5:37; 8:18). The Holy Spirit bore witness of Him (John 15:26). The works Jesus did bore witness of Him (John 5:36; 10:25). The multitudes bore witness of Him (John 12:17). And, Jesus bore witness of Himself (John 14:6; 18:6). 'Other verses to consider when examining His deity are, John 1:1,14; 10:30-33; 20:28; Col. 2:9; Phil. 2:5-8; Heb. 1:6-8; and 2 Pet. 1:1. '1 Tim. 2:5 says, "For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus." Right now, there is a man in heaven on the throne of God. He is our advocate with the Father (1 John 2:1). He is our Savior (Titus 2:13). He is our Lord (Rom. 10:9-10). He is Jesus' (www.carm.org/doctrine/2natures.htm). To read the entire article, go to: www.carm.org/doctrine/2natures.htm john11 |
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142 | Why did Jesus say the Father was greater | John 14:28 | kalos | 181447 | ||
If Jesus is God, then why did He say the Father was greater than He? "You heard that I said to you, ‘I go away, and I will come to you.’ If you loved Me, you would have rejoiced, because I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I" (John 14:28). 'Jesus said the Father was greater than He not because Jesus is not God, but because Jesus was also a man and as a man he was in a lower position. He was ". . . made for a little while lower than the angels . . ." (Heb. 2:9). Also in Phil. 2:5-8, it says that Jesus "emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men . . ." 'Jesus has two natures. Jesus was not denying that He was God. He was merely acknowledging the fact that He was also a man. Jesus is both God and man. As a man, he was in a lesser position than the Father. He had added to Himself human nature (Col. 2:9). He became a man to die for people. 'A comparison can be found in the marriage relationship. Biblically, a husband is greater in position and authority than his wife. But, he is no different in nature and he is not better than she. They share the same nature, being human, and they work together by love. 'So, Jesus was not denying that He was God. He was simply acknowledging that He was also a man and as a man, he was subject to the laws of God so that He might redeem those who were under the law; namely, sinners (Gal. 4:4-5). 'For further reading please see the two natures of Jesus (www.carm.org/doctrine/2natures.htm). 'SCRIPTURES QUOTED: 'Phil. 2:5-8, "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross." 'Col. 2:9, "For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form," 'Gal. 4:4-5, "But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, in order that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons." 'Heb. 2:9, "But we do see Him who has been made for a little while lower than the angels, namely, Jesus, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone."' ____________________ Source: www.carm.org/jw/John14_28.htm |
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143 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | kalos | 181446 | ||
If Jesus is God, then why did He say the Father was greater than He? "You heard that I said to you, ‘I go away, and I will come to you.’ If you loved Me, you would have rejoiced, because I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I" (John 14:28). 'Jesus said the Father was greater than He not because Jesus is not God, but because Jesus was also a man and as a man he was in a lower position. He was ". . . made for a little while lower than the angels . . ." (Heb. 2:9). Also in Phil. 2:5-8, it says that Jesus "emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men . . ." 'Jesus has two natures. Jesus was not denying that He was God. He was merely acknowledging the fact that He was also a man. Jesus is both God and man. As a man, he was in a lesser position than the Father. He had added to Himself human nature (Col. 2:9). He became a man to die for people. 'A comparison can be found in the marriage relationship. Biblically, a husband is greater in position and authority than his wife. But, he is no different in nature and he is not better than she. They share the same nature, being human, and they work together by love. 'So, Jesus was not denying that He was God. He was simply acknowledging that He was also a man and as a man, he was subject to the laws of God so that He might redeem those who were under the law; namely, sinners (Gal. 4:4-5). 'For further reading please see the two natures of Jesus (www.carm.org/doctrine/2natures.htm). 'SCRIPTURES QUOTED: 'Phil. 2:5-8, "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross." 'Col. 2:9, "For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form," 'Gal. 4:4-5, "But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, in order that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons." 'Heb. 2:9, "But we do see Him who has been made for a little while lower than the angels, namely, Jesus, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone."' ____________________ Source: www.carm.org/jw/John14_28.htm |
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144 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | kalos | 181445 | ||
Edwin, Now I am really confused. You define NAME as 'a word or a combination of words by which a person, place, or thing, a body or class, or any object of thought is designated, called, or known.' Then you write: 'My use of the word "Name", is as above, a description of a person...' I would point out that the word 'description' does not appear in your definition. That's what confuses me. Grace to you, John |
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145 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | kalos | 181420 | ||
The Only Proper Name for God '“I am” (Hebrew ’ehyeh) is not a name; “Yahweh” is.' (www.bible.org/netbible/index.htm) '“Yahweh” [YHWH] is not one of God’s names—it is his only name. Other titles, like “El Shadday,” are not strictly names but means of revealing Yahweh.' (At www.bible.org/netbible/index.htm go to Exodus 6. At this chapter read footnotes 5, 9, and especially 10.) * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * The name 'YHWH' appears almost 7,000 times in the OT. However, in the KJV YHWH is usually translated as 'LORD.' 'Yahweh/Yah (or Jehovah). yhwh (or JHVH), the tetragrammaton because of its four letters, is, strictly speaking, the only proper name for God. It is also the most frequent name, occurring in the Old Testament 6,828 times (almost 700 times in the Psalms alone). Yah is a shortened form that appears fifty times in the Old Testament, including forty-three occurrences in the Psalms, often in the admonition "hallelu-jah" (lit. praise Jah). English Bibles represent the name yhwh by the title "LORD" (written in capitals to distinguish it from "lord" [adonai]. The Septuagint rendered yhwh as kyrios (Lord).' ____________________ Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology (http://bible.crosswalk.com/Dictionaries/ BakersEvangelicalDictionary/bed.cgi) When you enter this address, everything between the parentheses must be included. All of it belongs on one line. |
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146 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | kalos | 181415 | ||
"...Yahweh is His name." Ex 15:3" Edwin: You write: 'The Lord our God does not have a name in the sense that we have names, in order to identify/distinguish ourselves from one another. There is only one God, and for this reason no need for Him to have a name, as there is no other god with whom He might be confused...Moses said If they ask me "What is His name" what shall I say to them? The reply he received was not a name...' But God says: "...Yahweh is His name." Ex 15:3b Holman Christian Standard Bible (HCSB) [All of the following Scripture quotations are from the Holman Christian Standard Bible.] Ex 3:15 God also said to Moses, "Say this to the Israelites: Yahweh, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you. This is My name forever; this is how I am to be remembered in every generation." Ex 15:3 The Lord is a warrior; Yahweh is His name. Ex 33:19 He said, "I will cause all My goodness to pass in front of you, and I will proclaim the name Yahweh before you. I will be gracious to whom I will be gracious, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion." Ex 34:5 The Lord came down in a cloud, stood with him there, and proclaimed [His] name Yahweh. De 28:58 "If you are not careful to obey all the words of this law, which are written in this scroll, by fearing this glorious and awesome name -- Yahweh, your God --" 1Ki 18:24 Then you call on the name of your god, and I will call on the name of Yahweh. The God who answers with fire, He is God. All the people answered, "That [sounds] good." 1Ki 18:32 and he built an altar with the stones in the name of Yahweh. Then he made a trench around the altar large enough to hold about four gallons. 2Ki 5:11 But Naaman got angry and left, saying, "I was telling myself: He will surely come out, stand and call on the name of Yahweh his God, and will wave his hand over the spot and cure the skin disease." Grace to you, John |
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147 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | kalos | 181409 | ||
Edwin, Thank you for your reply. I appreciate your interest in the subject. The verses you quoted that "could be used by his (the devil's) servants to undermine a believers faith" in fact are used by the Jehovah's Witnesses (JW) when they attack the deity of Christ. The questions that accompany the verses cited have pretty much been addressed on this forum in the past. You'll find the answers by doing a search for Jehovah's Witnesses or Watchtower. Please understand I am in no way implying or suggesting that you follow or agree with JW doctrine. I merely point out that the verses quoted and the arguments made are virtually identical to JW teaching. Moreover, the quickest way to get answers would be to do a search for what has already (sometimes repeatedly) been posted on this forum. Grace to you, John |
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148 | Who is wisdom in Proverbs 8? | Prov 8:22 | kalos | 181400 | ||
Who is wisdom in Proverbs 8? (Source: Who is wisdom in Proverbs 8? by Leland Ryken www.equip.org/free/DW265.htm) NASB Proverbs 8:22 "The LORD possessed me at the beginning of His way, Before His works of old. 'Who is speaking here? The lead-in to the speech answers the question: “Does not wisdom call?” (v. 1); and in verse 12, we read, “I, wisdom, dwell with prudence.” The repeated first-person references (my lips, my mouth, etc.), therefore, are to wisdom. 'With this context as your guide, you would probably not find the passage difficult, but what would you say if someone rattled off proof texts to support the belief that the speaker of the poem is really Christ...' To read more go to: Who is wisdom in Proverbs 8? by Leland Ryken www.equip.org/free/DW265.htm |
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149 | Could Jesus sin? | Col 2:9 | kalos | 181388 | ||
Could Jesus have sinned? (Source: www.gotquestions.org/could-Jesus-have-sinned.html) 'If He was not capable of sinning, how could He truly be able to "sympathize with our weaknesses (Heb 4:15)? If He could not sin, what was the point of the temptation?" 'No, Jesus could not have sinned. If He could have sinned He would still be able to sin today because He retains the same essence He did while living on earth. He is the God-Man -- and will forever remain so, having full deity and full humanity so included in one person as to be indivisible. To believe that Jesus could sin is to believe that God could sin. Colossians 1:19 For it pleased the Father that in Him all the fullness should dwell. Colossians 2:9 For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily. 'Although Jesus is fully human He was not born with the same sinful nature that we are born with. He certainly was tempted in the same way we are, in that temptations were put before Him by Satan, yet He remained sinless because God is incapable of sinning. It is against His very nature (Matthew 4:1; Hebrews 2:18, 4:15; James 1:13). Sin is by definition a trespass of the Law. God created the Law and the Law is by nature what God would or would not do. Therefore, sin is anything that God would not do by his very nature. 'To be tempted is not in and of itself sinful. A person could tempt you with something you have no desire to do, such as to smoke crack or participate in a homosexual act. You probably have no desire whatsoever to take part in these actions, but you were still tempted because someone placed the possibility before you. There are at least two definitions for tempted: '1) Tempted - To have a sinful proposition suggested to you by someone or something outside yourself or by your own sin nature. '2) Tempted - To consider actually participating in a sinful act and the possible pleasures and consequences of such act to such a degree that the act is already taking place in your mind. 'The first definition does not describe a sinful act/thought, the second does. When you dwell upon a sinful act and consider how you might be able to bring it to pass you have crossed the line of sin. Jesus was tempted in the fashion of definition 1, except that He was never tempted by a sin nature because it did not exist within Him. Satan proposed certain sinful acts to Jesus but He had no inner desire to participate in the sin. Hence He was tempted like we are but remained sinless. 'Jesus knows what it is like to be tempted but He does not know what it is like to sin. This does not prevent Him from assisting us. We are tempted with sins that are common to man (1 Corinthians 10:13). These sins generally can be boiled down to three different types: the lust of the eyes, the lust of the flesh and the pride of life (1 John 2:16). Examine the temptation and sin of Eve as well as the temptation of Jesus and you will find that the temptations for each came from these three categories. Jesus was tempted in every way and in every area that we are, but remained perfectly holy. Although our corrupt natures will have the inner desire to participate in some sins we have the ability to "just say no" to sin because we are no longer slaves to sin but rather slaves of God (Romans 6 especially verses 2 and 16-22).' ____________________ www.gotquestions.org/could-Jesus-have-sinned.html [Note: If anyone reading this has neither the ability to understand nor the faith to believe that Jesus could not have sinned, then I feel sorry for you and will pray for you. "To believe that Jesus could sin is to believe that God could sin." --Kalos] |
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150 | the beast, who is it? | Bible general Archive 3 | kalos | 181379 | ||
The literal translation from Greek into English is "six hundred sixty-six". At Revelation 13:18 in the Greek text are the WORDS "six hundred sixty-six"(hexakosioi hexekonta hex). The Greek text does not contain the NUMBER 666. In Greek and Hebrew there are no numeric characters (0-9). There are only alpha characters (letters of the alphabet). |
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151 | What does 666 mean? | Rev 13:18 | kalos | 181377 | ||
What does 666 mean? "Here is wisdom. Let him who has understanding calculate the number of the beast, for the number is that of a man; and his number is six hundred and sixty-six," (Rev. 13:18). '666 is the number of the antichrist, the end times figure who will arise with the purpose of opposing God and God's people. 666 is the gamatria of the name of the antichrist. 'In Greek and Hebrew there are no numeric characters. There are only alpha characters. For example, the letters a, b, c, d, e, f, etc. are alpha characters. The numbers 0, 1, 2, 3, etc., are numeric characters. They are different -- except for the letter "o" and the number "0". When the Greeks wanted to write a number, they used letters for numbers. The Greek letter "alpha" had the numeric equivalent of 1. The next letter "beta" has the numeric equivalent of 2, and so on. (CARM has a chart of the Hebrew and Greek numeric equivalents if you are interested in more information.) 'Therefore, whenever a word in Greek is written, because the letters are also numbers, every word has a numeric value. This numeric value is called a gematria. The Greek word for Jesus (IhsouV) has a mathematical equivalent of 888. Also, the Greek word for fish is 1224. 'What the Bible is saying is that the future antichrist will have a name that when it is written in Greek, its numeric equivalent will be 666.' ____________________ Source: www.carm.org/questions/666.htm |
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152 | the beast, who is it? | Bible general Archive 3 | kalos | 181376 | ||
What does 666 mean? "Here is wisdom. Let him who has understanding calculate the number of the beast, for the number is that of a man; and his number is six hundred and sixty-six," (Rev. 13:18). '666 is the number of the antichrist, the end times figure who will arise with the purpose of opposing God and God's people. 666 is the gamatria of the name of the antichrist. 'In Greek and Hebrew there are no numeric characters. There are only alpha characters. For example, the letters a, b, c, d, e, f, etc. are alpha characters. The numbers 0, 1, 2, 3, etc., are numeric characters. They are different -- except for the letter "o" and the number "0". When the Greeks wanted to write a number, they used letters for numbers. The Greek letter "alpha" had the numeric equivalent of 1. The next letter "beta" has the numeric equivalent of 2, and so on. (CARM has a chart of the Hebrew and Greek numeric equivalents if you are interested in more information.) 'Therefore, whenever a word in Greek is written, because the letters are also numbers, every word has a numeric value. This numeric value is called a gematria. The Greek word for Jesus (IhsouV) has a mathematical equivalent of 888. Also, the Greek word for fish is 1224. 'What the Bible is saying is that the future antichrist will have a name that when it is written in Greek, its numeric equivalent will be 666.' ____________________ Source: www.carm.org/questions/666.htm |
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153 | Comparing versions to the literal Greek | Bible general Archive 3 | kalos | 181374 | ||
Doc: Glad you're enjoying your NET Bible. I'm sure the friend who gave it to you will be pleased to know that. I myself am reading it more and more. (Tonight I took it to Bible study.) One thing I like about the NET Bible is that in those passages where the literal translation of the Greek or Hebrew is not present in the text, it is in the footnotes. Speaking of books, I have begun reading 'The Word of God in English: Criteria for Excellence in Bible Translation' by Leland Ryken. It's a good read and an excellent treatment of the subject. Grace to you, John |
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154 | I NEED A TRUE FRIEND THAT IS A CHRISTIAN | Bible general Archive 3 | kalos | 181371 | ||
You write: "If you have ever listened to a Sermon that caused the hairs on the back of your neck to raise then it is an indication that the Holy Spirit is bearing witness with your consience that the words you are hearing are true. Right now, read this and feel the hair on your neck raise..." The Word of God needs no hairs on the back of your neck to rise to confirm the truth of the Scriptures. The rising of the hairs on the back of one's neck is neither proof nor evidence of anything. The Word of God stands whether neck hairs do or not. We do not prove the Word of God by emotional experiences. Rather we prove (test) our experiences by the Word of God. By the way, the Bible nowhere says that the Holy Spirit bears witness with our conscience. What it says is: "The Spirit Himself bears witness WITH OUR SPIRIT that we are children of God," Romans 8:16 NKJV (Emphasis added.) If anyone is looking for a touchy feely cuddly forum, this one isn't it. |
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155 | the beast, who is it? | Bible general Archive 3 | kalos | 181358 | ||
"666 is an English number. The Bible was not written in English. The book of Revelation is a Greek document." ____________________ NASB Revelation 13:18 Here is wisdom. Let him who has understanding calculate the number of the beast, for the number is that of a man; and his number is six hundred and sixty-six. "In recent times, speculations about the exact nature of this mark have abounded. Since the exact name of the beast is unknown, speculation as to what the mark is has received the most attention. A computer chip implant, a bar-code, or a physical brand on the skin have led the list of possibilities at one time or another. However, a closer examination is warranted. "Based on Revelation 13:16-17 and 14:9, there will be three lines of identification: a mark, a name or a number. Most attention has been focused on the number of his name, which is 666. Most fail to appreciate the fact that 666 is an English number. The Bible was not written in English. The book of Revelation is a Greek document. This demands a Greek numbering scheme. So whatever John saw was certainly not the English number 666.' ____________________ Source: What is the mark of the Beast? by Rev. Charles Cooper. To read more go to: www.solagroup.org/articles/ faqs/faq_0006.html |
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156 | the beast, who is it? | Bible general Archive 3 | kalos | 181357 | ||
'What is the mark of the beast?' ____________________ "...any of these things are possible, but at the same time they are all speculations, so we will just have to see how it turns out." ____________________ 'The main passage in the Bible that mentions the "mark of the beast" is Revelation 13:15-18. Other references can be found in Revelation 14:9,11; 15:2; 16:2; 19:20; 20:4. The number associated with the beast (antichrist) and his mark is said to be that of "a man" (666). This mark acts as a "seal" for the followers of antichrist and the false prophet (spokesperson for the antichrist) is the one who causes people to take this mark, just as the Holy Spirit is the "Spokesperson" within the Godhead (John 15:26), and seals believers in Christ (Ephesians 1:13;4:30). Satan, the antichrist, and the false prophet then make up some sort of perverse parody of the Trinity (a "satanic trinity" if you will). (...) 'Many good expositors of Revelation have differed widely as to what exactly the mark of the beast is. Besides the "ID card" view, others have speculated that it is a microchip, a barcode that is tattooed into the skin, or simply a mark that identifies someone as being faithful to the antichrist's kingdom. This last view requires the least speculation, since it does not add any more information than what the Bible gives us, but we must remember that John is foreseeing the future (Revelation 1:9-10); he is not simply having a dream, so he is describing something real. Imagine trying to describe a barcode or some kind of chip that slightly shows through the skin if you only have a 1st-century vocabulary. 'In other words, any of these things are possible, but at the same time they are all speculations, so we will just have to see how it turns out.' ____________________ Source: http://gotquestions.org/mark-beast.html |
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157 | Where is the donkey and lamb at nativity | NT general Archive 1 | kalos | 181268 | ||
In Luke 2:7 the Greek word translated "manger" is Strong's Number 5336. Definition of 5336: a crib, a manger. NAS Word Usage - Total: 4. Three times it is translated as "manger" and once as "stall." Source: http://bible.crosswalk.com Grace to you, John |
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158 | Where is the donkey and lamb at nativity | NT general Archive 1 | kalos | 181265 | ||
A manger is "a trough or open box in a stable designed to hold feed or fodder for livestock" (Merriam-Webster Online, http://m-w.com/dictionary/manger) | ||||||
159 | Homosexual are picked on in the church? | Rom 3:23 | kalos | 181264 | ||
You blaspheme the sacred name of Jesus when you include it in your garbage post. | ||||||
160 | How many did Noah bring on the ark ? | Gen 7:2 | kalos | 181225 | ||
JRMGHM: Apparently I misunderstood what you were saying in your earlier post. Please accept my apology. Gratia vobis et pax (Grace to you and peace), John |
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