Results 1241 - 1251 of 1251
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Results from: Notes Author: mark d seyler Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1241 | Ignoring a Decision to Capitalize | Rev 14:16 | mark d seyler | 149478 | ||
Hi Tim, Aren't Rev 14:15 And another angel came out of the temple, crying out with a loud voice to Him who sat on the cloud, "Put in your sickle and reap, for the hour to reap has come, because the harvest of the earth is ripe." Rev 14:16 Then He who sat on the cloud swung His sickle over the earth, and the earth was reaped. Would an angel be giving instructions or orders to God? Love in Christ, Mark |
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1242 | How do you come to your conclusion of pe | Rev 17:10 | mark d seyler | 182024 | ||
Hi Brian, I do not have a copy of Seiss, although I am familiar with the teaching of empires. I would be interested in knowing what Bible passages he cites to support this teaching that these are kingdoms and not kings themselves. I do not know who these kings or kingdoms, if that is correct, are. I have read a number of commentators, and heard many teachers on the subject, although there isn't one who stands out in my mind as having a special insight on this. For me, there just doesn't seem to be any additional information in the Bible that directs us to read "kings" as "kingdoms", therefore, I think John wrote of specific rulers, and I only have my guess of who they were. The final one should be clear for those who will be here to see him. Sorry I couldn't help more than this. Love in Christ, Mark |
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1243 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | mark d seyler | 158660 | ||
Hi Doc, Please do not misunderstand me, let nothing I am about to say be construed to mean that the Bible is anything less than supreme and authoritative. Do you by your post mean to say that God does not, nor will not, speak to us in other ways than through the reading of His Word? Love in Christ, Mark |
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1244 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | mark d seyler | 158662 | ||
Hi Doc, In regard to Joel's prophecy: Joel 2:28 And it shall come to pass afterward, [that] I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions: 29 And also upon the servants and upon the handmaids in those days will I pour out my spirit. 30 And I will shew wonders in the heavens and in the earth, blood, and fire, and pillars of smoke. 31 The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and the terrible day of the LORD come. 32 And it shall come to pass, [that] whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call. It seems you are splitting this prophecy into two parts, either between vs. 28 and 29, or between 29 and thirty. If I understand you correctly, you are saying that the part about dreams and visions has already been fulfilled, and no longer occurs. We know that the part about blood and fire and pillars of smoke, and the sun becoming black and the moon to blood has not been fulfilled, at least not as history records. What is your basis in saying that the part about dreams and vision does not apply to today? Are these not the same last days as spoken of then? Would not Peter quoting this passage from Joel in its entirety indicate that it is to be taken as a unit, and not to be split? We know of no time in the "apostolic" era that would fulfill the latter portion of the prophecy. Would not this time spoken of last at least until the complete fulfillment of the prophecy? I just do not see any textual evidence to split the prophecy that way, and Peter's full quotation is a strong reason not to. I think what Bows has said is that: 1. All scripture is to be believed and used. 2. God does not change. 3. Every good thing comes from God. 4. God spoke in the days of Job in dreams, with personal words to turn men to Him. 5. God said that "afterword", the Spirit would be poured out, and people would prophesy, dream dreams, and see visions. 6. The promise of the Spirit is to all called by the LORD, even those "afar off". I think she answers the question very well, although you may or may not agree with her answer. I think the only real challenge to the idea that God speaks to us in dreams in the modern day is from Hebrew 1: Hebrews 1:1 "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, 2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds; According to what I have read (although I admit I truly do not know as a certainty) this was not the last book of the Bible penned, and so even as the writer of Hebrews says that "in these last days God has spoken to us by His Son", God continued to speak through the agency of others as well (again, not that I put dreams in the same position as scripture). Personally, I think that what Kalos posted addresses this whole dream thing very well. Our dreams, when we believe them to be from God, are really between us and God. I see absolutely no reason from scripture that God could not, or would not, speak to someone through a dream. He may even use another to reveal the interpretation of the dream. I do not believe that dreams rate higher than scripture, and strictly pragmatically speaking, I don't think that the discussion or interpretation of dreams is appropriate for this forum, as it would distract from the actual study of God's written Word, which is what this forum is here for. But as far as examining scripturally whether or not we should discount any possiblility of God speaking to us in a dream, and what should be our scriptural response if we dream a dream that seems to be from God, I think Bows answered with a correct scriptural response, not "mis-handling" scripture, that Yes, God can and does, and Kalos, equally well, added that we must examine such according the the written Word, prayfully, remembering that everything is subordinate to scripture. Love in Christ, Mark |
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1245 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | mark d seyler | 158801 | ||
Hi Doc, I know that sometimes prophecies can have fulfillment separated by centuries and more, but I always look for the Bible to provide that information before I separate something from another. In Ezekiel 26, as the destruction of Tyre is prophesied, the pronoun changes from "he" in verse 11 to "they" in verse 12, as the aggressor that fulfills the prophecy changes from Nebuchadnezzer to Alexander. Daniel records the prophecy of the 70 weeks. There is a parenthetical passage inserted into the text between the 69th and the 70th weeks (Dan 9:26 describes events that happen after the 69th week, and before the 70th week), that tells us that these weeks are not contiguous. In Isaiah 61, Jesus, as He quotes this, stops in the middle of verse 2, and tells us that this has been fulfilled, but He leaves out the latter part of verse 2, the part about vengeance. Ezekiel describes people differently, Daniel inserts events in the middle, Jesus quotes a specific portion and tells us that has been fulfilled. Each of these have a textual foundation for us to separate them into different fulfillments. I do not see any such textual foundation to separate Joel's prophecy. Can you show me a scriptural basis? I would be interest to know if there is something I am missing. When Peter quotes this prophecy in Acts 2, he quotes the entire passage from the pouring out of God's Spirit, to the signs that will be seen during the openning of the sixth seal in the Revelation, and includes the part about "prophecy, dreams, and visions". Peter is not giving the prophecy, he is citing the fulfillment in response to what had just happened, the pouring out of God's Spirit. But that is not all Peter is talking about. This is not just about how the disciples spoke in foreign languages, but it is about a work that Joel prophesied that God would do in these last days, beginning as the "church" is born on that Pentacost, and concluding as the "church" is concluded, as the sixth seal is openned, and characturized by these things he said, prophecy, dreams, and visions. Joel didn't even mention tongues, but that was the question Peter was answering, as the crowd gathered, each hearing their own language, and asking "what is this?" "This," Peter said, "is what Joel prophesied." Not a series of actions, some now, some later, but a work that is done, which begins with this, and ends with that, and is characturized thus and so. That is how I understand this passage, but like I said, I am always open to learning, and I am interested if there is a texual basis for interpreting it otherwise. Love in Christ, Mark |
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1246 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | mark d seyler | 158803 | ||
Hi Doc, I would like to address the other part of your post, about whether or not God does, or would, speak to us in any other way than what we read from the pages of the Bible. You ask "what more do we need than scripture?" Truly, as Peter wrote, " According as his divine power hath given unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of him that hath called us to glory and virtue:" we have all we need. We know that not everything God has said, or has revealled to mankind, is recorded in scripture. There are the prophecies of Iddo, and of Saul. There are the words of Jesus as He taught for three years, then over the course of another 40 days. Not everything was recorded. Luke writes in Acts how everywhere they went, the Holy Spirit was warning Paul that chains awaited him in Jerusalem, but these individual words were not recorded. We know that God, in the past, spoke to people with words, dreams, prophecies, visions, not all of which were recorded, yet they were still from God. You mention the closing of the canon. I think (correct me if I am wrong) that you are alluding to the question "Does God have a private word for me that is not a public word for everyone?" Does God speak only though His Word, or does He also speak in other ways? I anm not, of course, suggesting that the Bible is not complete. But let me ask you, why does Paul write in Col 3 "And let the peace of God rule (arbitrate/decide) in your hearts"? If God's intend were for me to read the Bible, and that is the sum total of His revelation to me, why would I be told to look to my heart, to be ruled by God's peace? This is a revelation that God gives which is outside of the pages of scripture. Should it be in disagreement with what the Bible says, I can know it to be wrong, but when I am praying whether to do this or that (scripturally neutral), and my peace lies in this, not that, how can you say that this is not God leading me, He only speaks through the pages of scripture? Romans 2:15 speaks of "the law written in men's hearts" - our conscience. This is a revelation from God that is outside of the pages of scripture. It will agree with scripture - when it doesn't, that's when we know that what we think is God's law in our hearts actually isn't. We test according to the scripture. The Bible doesn't tell me whether to stay in my job or to apply for another. It doesn't tell me if I should be teacher or usher. Do you think that God doesn't care? Or that we have to guess? Or does our Father have ways of speaking to us personally, as He has since the first man was created? Love in Christ, Mark |
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1247 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | mark d seyler | 158804 | ||
Hi Doc, I have just one other thing I would like to respond to you regarding your post. When you wrote: "Mishandling of Scripture can take place when one strings unrelated passages together in order to make it say something it does not say. This is called eisegesis. We are commanded to rightly divide the word of Truth. That Greek word means to cut a straight line." is this to imply that is what I had done? If yes, would you please substantiate your claim? It would be much more beneficial to me if you were able to show me what scriptures I mishandled, and in what way, and what the correct treatment of them would be. If no, then may I ask the relevence of this comment? Thank you! Love in Christ, Mark |
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1248 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | mark d seyler | 158807 | ||
Hi Doc, Thank you for your clarification! :-) Although, just for the record, I agree with her analysis. Love in Christ, Mark |
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1249 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | mark d seyler | 158815 | ||
Hi Doc, I am sorry, but again I have to disagree with your characturizations. To my mind, I am not "assuming" extra-Biblical revelation. :-( This is what the Bible teaches me. I have presented a textually based foundation for why I believe that. I have not seen a textually based refutation showing me where I am wrong, simply the assertion that I am wrong. I have not seen a textually based exposition of what the Bible actually teaches, were it to teach something different. Is there then no voice of God, heard anywhere, by anyone, by any means, but what is from the printed page of the Bible? Paul, in 1 Cor 14, gave us rules on how to go about sharing what the Lord had given to us by prophecy, His direct revelation to individuals. Would not Paul have simply said, "If you think God is speaking to you, shut up, because He's not. You're not an apostle, your words are not the Bible, so forget it." Is this actually a discussion of cessationism? These are just some more of my thoughts. We needn't neccissarily continue this, as I think of it from a cessationinst point of view, both camps are widely represented in the archives. Love in Christ, Mark |
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1250 | Does God speak to us in dreams today? | Rev 22:18 | mark d seyler | 158868 | ||
Hi Doc, I appreciate your concern for my emotional state - please allow me to assure you that it is not in jeopardy! :-) I believe that I know you well enough from our many discourses that you, as do I, do not allow differences of opinion to stand between our fellowship. :-) I do not have a difficuly with the concept of cessationism. As we are discussing whether or not God speaks to man in ways other than through the pages of scripture, cessationism as it applies to spiritual gifts, and to the fulfillment of Joel's prophecy, has a direct bearing. If you are a "cessationist", this simply describes the conclusions you have reached. I obviously am not a "cessationist", as I believe that God works through the spiritual gifts, as well as prophecy, dreams, and visions. There is more scripture I could present, but as I said, this topic has been thoroughly discussed on this forum previously. I understand you to be approaching this from a "cessationist" stance because of the fact that the only scripture you have referenced in answering this question, does God still speak to us in dreams, is Revelation 22:18 "I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues which are written in this book;" You have presented this response saying that if God were to speak to us today, we would have to collect all of His communications, and add them to the Bible. I do not believe that any of the contributors to this thread have any intent to add to the book of the Revelation, or to any other parts of the Bible. Using commonly accepted translations, quoting verbatim, and examining entire passages in context, comparing several passages that directly relate to the matter, casting aside all preconceptions, I have let the scripture speak for itself. This has led me to conclusions that are commonly held by believers today, and that are widely supported in commentaries from yesterday and today. Many churches teach as I believe, and many teach as you believe. I am happy to let this rest here. Love in Christ, Mark |
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1251 | Conjecture or opening scripture? | Rev 22:19 | mark d seyler | 160409 | ||
Hi Loobylight, I feel just as strongly as CDBJ about re-wording scripture, and I have had occasion as you to want to really "bring it home" to the people I am speaking to. I have sometimes done, for lack of a better term, "amplified reading", where I will read a passage, interspersing thoughts in my own words. I make plain when I am reading from the Scriptures by voice and body language (raising the Bible, to read directly from it, and reading in a formal voice, then lowering it, looking at my audience, becoming less formal to add comments). "If anyone" - you, or me, we are all responsible before God - "If anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy" - even one word. God considers His word so important, well, hear His warning: "If anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take his part..." Read the passage to them. Teach upon it. Read back through it, adding thoughts for emphasis. Something like this, anyway. Pray about it. The Holy Spirit wants the people whom you will be teaching to know these things, and to act upon them. He will guide you in what to say, how to say it. Your desire to be used by God to touch the hearts of the ones in your care is what God is looking for. He will use you. It is His own work that He will do. Love in Christ, Mark |
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