Results 121 - 140 of 233
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: There Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
121 | Please tell me about the goddess Diana | Gen 1:1 | There | 23741 | ||
I only have a little to add to what's already been said about Diana. She was also known as the "queen archer", "moon goddess", "protector of the young", "goddess of the hunt", "goddess of chastity", "virgin goddess". She considered animals to be sacred, and she could punish and kill in agreement with her father's will. |
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122 | "queen of heaven"? | Gen 1:1 | There | 23744 | ||
Does anyone know which false goddess was called the "queen of heaven" in Jeremiah 7:8 and chapter 44? I assume it was an Egyptian goddess?? | ||||||
123 | "queen of heaven"? | Gen 1:1 | There | 23767 | ||
Thanks to both you Nolan and Jlpangilinan. I wondered about her since Ishtar/Inanna was known as the "queen of heaven and earth". (Inanna was the name the Sumerians used for this goddess.) | ||||||
124 | Are they the same spirit? | Gen 1:1 | There | 23808 | ||
Do you think the appartition (spirit) that claims to be the "queen of heaven" today, is the same false god as mentioned in Jeremiah? Hope you had a wonderful Thanksgiving too! :) |
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125 | Are they the same spirit? | Gen 1:1 | There | 23834 | ||
Hello Johnny, I was raised Catholic. And as an adult, one of the things I began wondering about after reading the Bible was this "queen of heaven" mentioned in Jeremiah. I know that Ishtar evolved from a moon goddess to a goddess that had many other attributes over the centuries. And I wondered if she (demonic spirit) had continued to evolve (change her modus operandi or goddess image) as was needed to infiltrate the church. I do NOT think the apparition is the real Mary who gave birth to the true Messiah. But this appartition does claim to be her -- even though she is very different than the real Mary. The apparition claims to be sinless (her claim to her Immaculate Conception Feb. 11, 1858), but the real Mary knew she was a sinner and in need of a Savior. Luke 1:46-47 "And Mary said: 'My soul magnifies the Lord, and my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior...". She (apparition) also makes claims of having a son who she refers to as Jesus, except that her Jesus is not the only means to salvation. She said on May 13, 1917 "...my Immaculate Heart which will be your refuge and the way that will lead you to God." And on December 26, 1957 "God's last means of salvation is through me. And if you despise and repulse this means, there won't be any forgiveness of sin which the Gospel calls the sin against the Holy Spirit." And on October 13, 1973 she stated "Those who place their confidence in me will be saved." And in 1984 "Even in the Second Coming, the son will come to you through his mother." And in 1986 "God has sent me to earth to save you." In August 1987 her son said "He who honors her honors me. He who denies her denies me." In 1958 he said "Everyone should have a picture of Jesus as Divine Mercy. I promise that the soul that will venerate this image will not perish." And in 1991 when he again "appeared" with his mother, he said, "Fortunate is he who lives in the brilliance of the image of Jesus of Mercy, for the just hand of God will never reach him. For I am your Jesus of Mercy." I cannot name the book that those quotes came from, because I read it years ago. I do remember the book was authorized for Catholics though, and I was given it by a Catholic friend. At the time I copied many of the quotes and also the scriptures that contradicted the appartitions' statements. And I think they (both apparitions) are satanic beings, attempting to lead people away from the salvation that only comes through God's real Son. http://www.fatima.org/plan.html: "Our Lady's Peace Plan is founded on three simple, but powerful requests. The first is a request for prayer, most particularly the Holy Rosary and the devotion of the Brown Scapular. The second calls for us to make reparation for the sins and outrages perpetrated against God's Grace and blasphemies against the Holy Hearts of Jesus and Mary. The third request is for consecration to the Immaculate Heart of Mary, both on a personal basis and, publicly, that of Russia by the Pope and all the world's bishops." The apparition waited until the 1300's before she made the claim to her listeners to be the "queen of heaven", and it was later incorporated into church teaching. Oh by the way, something else both Ishtar and the appartition have in common is their claim that they were virgins at the time of the conception of their offspring, and were perpetual virgins thereafter. And below is something from a Catholic website http://www.udayton.edu/maryslash. Below is a partial "answer" to the question "What is the meaning of the crescent moon that Mary is sometimes pictured standing upon?" "A: The so called Luna, half moon, ...is a sign of fertility, related to life and death, and thus a popular symbol in many religions. It pinpoints changing seasons, ebb and tide (and related inundations as harbingers of fertility), and the feminine menstrual cycle. The half moon was the attribute of Luna and more specifically of Selene. It was later transferred to Diana (Artemis), offspring of the earth mother, and known not only as virgin but also as protectress of the newborn and symbol of fertility in her own right. ... There exists, beginning around 1348, a type of Marian sculpture called Madonna standing on the crescent moon ... It sometimes opposes -- in representations of the Platytera -- the sun born from Mary and the human race in need of salvation (moon) (1312). The crescent moon is used in representations of Mary's miraculous conception and birth. The crescent appears under Mary's feet in paintings of the Assumption (Meister of the Luzien-Legende, 1485) and signifies her glory and victory over time and space. The most important application of the moon symbol occurred in representations of the Immaculate Conception." I think there are many similarities between the two. God bless. |
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126 | Are they the same spirit? | Gen 1:1 | There | 23887 | ||
Hi Johnny, I too have much respect for Mary, the mother of God's real Son. I think she was correct when she said that "all generations shall call me blessed". She is "blessed among women." But in my opinion, she is not the same person as the apparition. She (the Mary in the apparitions) is considered to still be a virgin because she identified herself as such. Almost every ounce of Catholic doctrine about "Mary" has come from the apparition herself. If her words disagreed with the Bible, then they go with her words and discard the Biblical truth. I was very upset years ago after finding out the many "differences" between what I was taught and what the Bible says. I had trouble believing that a Church that originally based it's beliefs on the truth of God's Word had moved so far as to include in its doctrine -- teaching that totally contradicted His Word. I have family members still in that denomination, and most are a loving group of people. Most have been encouraged to read the Bible for themselves, so they can sort out the truth from the lie. And yes, it is very hard to change. Not just because many things have become "habits" or "traditional", but also because it is very hard to digest the fact that people we thought cared about us... had taught us non-truths. It's very hard to accept. For me, I had to come to the realization that they too had been duped... |
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127 | Did Moses have a second wife? | Exodus | There | 19818 | ||
Exodus 2 tells of Moses marriage to Zipporah. Does Numbers 12:1 speak of a second wife? Please provide scripture proofs if possible (I haven't been able to find any to confirm that the Ethiopian could be Zipporah), and any other references or information that could add light to this question. | ||||||
128 | Why? | Exodus | There | 19902 | ||
Why do you guess that Zipporah was not living when Moses married the Egyptian woman? The opposite assumption could also be made since it does not say that Zipporah had died. One assumption would be as valid as the other. I'm not trying to contend with you, but only trying to gain insight. |
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129 | Does the Bible teach that it is sin? | Exodus | There | 19944 | ||
This is a subject I hadn't thought about until recently when someone brought it up to me. Since God did not condemn David or Solomon nor any other Old Testament man for having more than one wife, where did the teaching come from that a man should only have one wife? And since God didn't condemn it then, is it actually wrong? Personally I'm a bit repulsed by the idea, but that may be because I have been taught that it IS wrong. I was told that a man in a muliple marriage can easily accept the NT verses where it says: "let the husband render to his wife..." "let each man have his own wife..." "the husband is head of the wife..." and even "the two shall become one flesh..." because it is talking about the relationship between TWO people, and the husband should be that to each of his wives individually. Further comments by all would be appreciated. |
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130 | Sorry to keep asking the same question. | Exodus | There | 20011 | ||
I'm glad Steve that it convinces you... but it gives very little with which to impress others one way or the other. 1Corinthians 7:2 is basically saying that if you can't control yourself... get married. Both men and women. But that in itself is not teaching marriage to only one wife per say. Paul states also that it is even better to remain single if one can practice self-control. After reading your last post concerning monogamy being the "rule", and polygamy being the exception to the "rule", I did some checking in the OT and found that MANY, MANY men either had multiple wives and/or concubines. So it is very possible that polygamy was not the "exception", but rather, an option. My question still stands though. If polygamy is wrong, why didn't God condemn the practice, and/or at least speak out against it to those who practiced it? Such as Abraham, Jacob/Israel, many of his descendants including David, Solomon, etc. |
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131 | Sorry to keep asking the same question. | Exodus | There | 20034 | ||
Thanks Steve. You gave me something more to dig into. |
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132 | Why? | Exodus | There | 23727 | ||
That was always my assumption too and for the same reasons... until someone pointed out to me that it doesn't say that Zipporah died. I mean, when Sarah died, we were told she died, and later Abraham married Keturah. We know that Isaac also was of faith, but had more than one wife at the same time, and others too. But anyway, it doesn't say that Zipporah died before Moses married the Egyptian woman, and by the way Zipporah was not Egyptian (Cushite). She was a Midianite (a descendant of Midian (Midyan) who was a son of Abraham and Keturah). Something that never made sense though since I used to think Zipporah was the Egyptian woman, was why it took Aaron and Miriam so long to get peeved at Moses for marrying her. I thought that by the time two years had passed, they should have figured out how to get along with one another. Something else you brought up though. Have you noticed that in Leviticus 18 where it talks about the laws of sexual morality, that verse 18 states: (18) Nor shall you take a woman as a rival to her sister, to uncover her nakedness while the other is alive. The KJV states it this way: (18) Neither shall thou take a wife to her sister, to vex her, to uncover her nakedness, beside the other in her life time. Would one sister be a rival to the other if the first was divorced from the husband?? I'm not so sure that is what it's talking about. I think it's saying that a man shouldn't marry his wife's sister while his wife is still alive. But it doesn't say that the man cannot have a second wife as long as she isn't a close relative nor his wife's sister. Reminds me of the rivalry between Leah and Rachel. A reference for "uncover their nakedness" as a reference to marriage is Leviticus 20:14 "If a man marries a woman and her mother... They shall be burned with fire." which is the penalty for breaking the Lord's command in Leviticus 18:17 "You shall not uncover the nakedness of a woman and her daughter...". Just some thoughts. |
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133 | Will we know our loved ones in heaven? | 2 Sam 12:23 | There | 26179 | ||
Hello Daniel, In 1Cor. 15:35-58 Paul explains that the it is our physical, flesh bodies that will be changed and resurrected at Christ's return if we are saved, not our consciousness. It would seem that since our minds/soul/spirit have already been renewed to a state of communion with God, there is no need for them to remain separated from Him. I believe the scripture you've mentioned from Ecclesiates 9 explains that after physical death, no one will have part in anything "under the sun". So the dead will not participate in any way with those still physically alive, and eventually memory of them will be forgotten by those who are physically alive. And Psalms 146... I believe is a good reference for Ecclesiates, and is saying the same thing. At death, man will no longer give any thought to what is going on here on the earth, i.e. thoughts of things happening "under the sun" will perish at a person's death. Hope this helps. God bless. |
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134 | Will we know our loved ones in heaven? | 2 Sam 12:23 | There | 26183 | ||
One group of verses that I think says something like that is Matthew 22:23-32. Jesus was asked by the Sadducees about marriage in heaven. Jesus response was that there would be no marriage in heaven, but that man would become like the angels. I guess in this case I read what wasn't said in a way. :) Jesus didn't say that the husbands and wife (wives) wouldn't know one another in heaven, but simply that there would be no marriage in heaven. And another small reference is 1Thess. 4:13-15, 18 when Paul was asked by the church at Thessalonia about their loved ones who had died. Paul comforted them by saying "But I do not want you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning those who have fallen asleep (died), lest you sorrow as others who have no hope. For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so God will bring with Him those who sleep in Jesus. For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will by no means precede those who are asleep (dead). For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. Then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And thus we shall always be with the Lord. Therefore comfort one another with these words." It seems to me that Paul was reassuring them that they would be reunited with their loved ones again at the resurrection. Which to me says that we will recognize one another or we wouldn't know the difference whether they were there or not. And another thought that some may disagree with is that our new spiritual bodies will probably look very similar to our physical bodies... for two reasons. If they wouldn't, then there would be no point in my opinion to "raise" up a new spiritual body from our old physical bodies. And my second reason is that Jesus' resurrected body looked like his physical body. God bless. |
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135 | Explain "slept with his fathers" | 1 Kin 2:10 | There | 12919 | ||
In the KJV it is stated "So David rested with his fathers (died and joined his ancestors), and was buried in the City of David." | ||||||
136 | Explain dinosaurs | Job 40:15 | There | 13290 | ||
Nolan gave a good site for this information. But possibly: Job 40:15-24 "behemoth" Job 41:1-34 "leviathan" Job 41:12-22 spec. "fire breathing leviathan" Psalms 68:30 "beast of the reeds" Psalms 74:13 "sea serpent" Psalms 74:14 "leviathan" Psalms 104:26 "leviathan" Isaiah 27:1 "leviathan" Isaiah 30:6 "fiery flying serpent" Lam. 4:3 "sea monster" (tanniyn) Some meanings as pertains to "dinosaurs": Dinoaur (Websters Dictionary) from the Greek meaning "terrible lizard". Any of a large group of extinct 4 limbed retiles of the Mesozoic Era, including some almost 100' long. [This is a fairly NEW word.] Behemoth, water ox or hippopotamus. Leviathan "levyathan", a wreathed animal, i.e. a serpent (especially the crocodile or some other large sea monster). Dragon "tanniyn" means a marine or land monster, i.e. sea serpent or hideous land animal; dragon, sea montster etc. [used in 21 OT verses, sometimes figuratively) |
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137 | Explain dinosaurs | Job 40:15 | There | 13297 | ||
Hi Steve, I agree with you. I don't think the behemoth is a hippo or an elephant either. Not as we know it today anyway. Animals would have lived much longer pre-Flood just like humans did. And scientifically it has been found that crockodiles (or was it alligators) never stop growing from the time they're born until they die. And their average growth rate would put them at about 100 feet long if they lived to be 500-600 years old. I don't remember where I read about that. So "monsters" would seem fairly probable Pre-Flood and since God didn't say he'd destroy everything in the sea, then some of the large sea creatures surely would have survived the great Flood. On top of that, if Noah had any of the "little ones" in the ark, they may have lived for a few hundred years AFTER the Flood just like men did. So certain land creatures could have become quite large too. And something that comes to mind concerning Job is that it would make no sense for God to use a behemoth or leviathan to explain to Job about HIS power and strength if He was simply talking about something that was not fearsome, nor much bigger than man, nor something "pre-Flood" that Job could not truly comprehend. And Job had to have lived AFTER the Flood because in verse 1 it says "a man in the land of Uz". Uz is from the Hebrew "Uwts" meaning Uts, a son of Abram, also a Seirite, and the regions settled by them. So if God wanted to impress Job with His own power and might, then He surely would have used something that Job recognized. And Job apparently knew what a behemoth and a leviathan (fire-breathing leviathan) were. There is one type of insect that "breathes" fire even today. It has to do with pouches that contain certain chemicals, which when combined in the throat forms fire which shoots out it's mouth. (Sorry, a poor description.) It uses this for protection. Again, I don't remember the name of the "bug". But at least even in today's world it isn't impossible to believe or understand that an animal or sea creature could have "breathed fire". |
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138 | God shaved with a borrowed razor? | Is 7:20 | There | 15681 | ||
God did that several times in the OT. The hired razor represents the nations that the Lord used to come against disobedient Israel/Judah. Shave in that context means to strip away, uncover, or make waste of. I better look it up in the concordance. :) SHAVE - "galach" a prim. root; prop. to be bald, i.e. (caus) to shave; fig. to lay waste: -- poll, shave (off). RAZOR/RASOR - "taar" from 6168; a knife or razor (as making bare); also a scabbard (as being bare, i.e. empty):-- [pen] knife, rasor, scabbard, shave, sheath. 6168 "arah, a prim. root; to be (caus. make) bare; hence to empty, pour out, demolish: leave destitute, discover, empty, make naked, pour (out), rase, spread self, uncover. Isaiah 7:20 In that day the Lord will shave with a razor, hired from regions beyond the Euphrates (that is, with the king of Assyria), the head and the hair of the legs; and it will also remove the beard. I believe that verse is saying that "in that day" (when the Lord will bring the king of Assyria upon the people of Judah) God will use the Assyrians (hired razor) as the means to 'uncover their sins and lay waste' (shave) the house of Judah. A reference to what God means by "hired" is in Isaiah 10:5-15 where the Lord makes it clear that He will use Assryia as the "rod of His anger" against "the people of My wrath" (Jerusalem and her idols, v. 11). |
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139 | Rubbing a baby in salt? | Ezek 16:4 | There | 15686 | ||
Salt draws out poison and kills bacteria. Salt is an old "medicinal" compound used for throat gargles, healing wounds, cuts, abrasions, salt baths for aches and pains, etc. |
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140 | matthew chapter 24 what does is mean | Matthew | There | 16847 | ||
The apostles asked Jesus what the "sign of His coming and the end of the age" would be. His answer to them is in chapter 24. First will be the beginning of sorrows (vs. 5-8) leading up to Daniel's 70th week (the 7 year tribulation period). Then there will be tribulation (vs. 9-14). Verse 15 depicts the middle of the tribulation period (3 1/2 years into it), when the Jews will recognize the Antichrist, and flee into the wilderness. Christ goes on to explain that the last 3 1/2 years will be such "great tribulation... as has not been since the beginning of the world until this time". Then states that at the end of the period of tribulation (v. 29), the sign of his coming will appear (v. 30) and the rapture will take place (v.31). Verses 32-35. Jesus explains that the people alive when these things begin to happen, will see them unfolding, and recognize that He will be returning soon. Verses 36-44, Here Jesus explains that no one knows exactly when that day will occur, except for the Father in heaven. People will generally will be doing all the normal things just as they did up to the time of the great Flood. We're warned to be ready at all times. Verses 45-51. He's telling us to behave as a Christian... in season and out, or He will leave us behind when He comes for His own. The tribulation period and Christ's return is told in more detail in Daniel, Isaiah, Ezekiel, and Revelation (along with others mentioned by Steve and CDBJ). |
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