Results 121 - 140 of 217
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Jesusman Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
121 | what did god give a man? | Bible general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 46381 | ||
huh? Please clarify. | ||||||
122 | What is the proper NT church government? | NT general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 46379 | ||
Hello, According to 1 Peter 5:2, Acts 20:28, and John 21:17, Pastors are the shepherds of the Congregation. They are also called "Overseers". It is the Pastor who was the head of the Church body. According to Acts 6, where it talks about the first Deacons, they were to be the personal aids and ministers to the Pastor, and weren't originally to have governing power over the congregation. In 1 Timothy 5:17, Elders were to also shepherd the flock. Also, if you look carefully, Pastors were viewed as Elders. Jesusman |
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123 | ? is the difference of soul and spirit | NT general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 42178 | ||
Hello, That's rather a difficult question to answer. The best way I've come to understand it is in reference to the Trinity. According to Genesis 1:27, Man was created in the image of God. According to a former religion professor of mine, that image includes everything that separates Man from Beast. In a personal opinion, I think that image includes a three-fold nature, similar to that of God. The Spirit would be similar in function to the Holy Spirit. As God communes with Man through the Holy Spirit, so does man commune with God through his own Spirit. According to Jesus in John 3, Salvation is when this Spirit is made alive. The Soul would be similar in function to the Father. According to Jesus in John 8, sin is not only death, but it is also slavery. I have come to think of the Soul as being in Slavery prior to salvation. When we are saved, not only is the Spirit born, but the Soul is released from it's slavery. I believe it is the Soul that Paul is referring to when he talks about the Old Man and New Man. To finish this, I have come to view the Body as being infected. Upon salvation, the birth of the Spirit, and the release of the Soul, the Body is then cleansed. ON top of that, I view the Body in a similar way as the Son. As Jesus, being God the Son, was God's physical presence among men, so are our bodies a representation of our inner-selves. Notice that Jesus and Paul both place emphasis upon the actions of true believers. "By their fruits, you shall know them ..." Sometimes, "Soul" is used in reference to the combination of the Spirit and the Body, as in Genesis 2. However, when you study the context carefully, you find that the verse is using "soul" in reference to being alive. As if to say, to quote Dr. Frankenstein, "IT"S ALIVE!" :-) This was possibly more than what you were looking for, but I hope it answers your question. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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124 | the shortest verse of the bible? | OT general | Jesusman | 42170 | ||
I'm not sure, but the shortest one of the Old Testament might be Exodus 20:13 or 20:15. One of the ten commandments. Jesusman |
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125 | Can a man know God without a Bible? | Rom 10:17 | Jesusman | 41995 | ||
Hello, I'd have to say yes to this question. In Romans 2:12-16, Paul deals with a similar question. In this case, He is dealing with the Law. Up until Paul's time, the Jews kept the Law all to themselves. The gentiles were excluded from knowing it. That wasn't God's intentions. As a result, Paul says this in verse 14, Those who do not have the Law, yet instinctively do that which is in the Law, their actions become a law unto themselves. Now, while this is dealing with God's judgement in sin rather than the application of Grace, I think the same principle applies. Romans 1:18-32 teaches that God has revealed himself to all of mankind. As a result, man has no excuse before God. This is basically referring to general revelation or God's revelation through natural means. It also is believed that such revelation is non saving. However, God is still revealing himself. Besides, with his power, he can make himself known to any he choses, saving or otherwise. Jesusman |
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126 | please provide information on John 19:28 | John 19:28 | Jesusman | 40963 | ||
This question has already been asked and answered. In fact, they are on the same page as this one. | ||||||
127 | Highway vs. strait and narrow | Is 35:8 | Jesusman | 40915 | ||
Hello, This could be interpreted two primary ways. First historically. Isaiah may be talking about the Roman highways, specifically the King's highway that traveled near Israel. The second is in reference to Jesus. I don't think this is talking about the straight and narrow path which Jesus Describes. I think it is the path that Jesus walked. Nearer to his death, Jesus tells Peter that Peter will not be able to walk in his steps and not be able to go where Jesus goes. That maybe what Isaiah is referring to. Because this is a Holy Highway, only the Holy may travel on it. Since Jesus is the only true "Holy One", then this highway maybe his. Jesusman |
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128 | regarding immortal souls | Ezek 18:4 | Jesusman | 40914 | ||
Hello, Actually, No. It is saying that God has control over the human soul. Later on, in the New Testament, Spiritual death is classified as separation from the Father. Since the Father is the source of Life, then eternal separation from Him is the same as death. In fact, if you read the next few verses, Ezekiel practically provides the Plan of Salvation. Jesusman |
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129 | having vs. being a soul | Gen 2:7 | Jesusman | 40913 | ||
Hello, the context of "became a living soul" in this passage is merely confirming that at this time man became alive. To quote Dr. Frankenstine, "IT'S ALIVE!!!!" The person is composed of the Body, Spirit, and Soul. Jesus, Moses, Paul, and others confirm this. These three parts together form the person. Jesusman |
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130 | Doesn't John 14:28 disprove the Trinity? | Phil 2:6 | Jesusman | 40912 | ||
Hello, Actually, John 14:28 confirms the Trinity. Jesus never claimed to be the Father. He claimed to be the Son and God. God is comprised of three things (offices, aspects, incarnations, beings, and so on). Pick one. These three are the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Now, in this verse and other verses, Jesus makes the claim that the Father is supreme with in the Trinity. Meaning, that while they share the same powers, attributes, and ability (co-equal), there is a heirarchy with in the God-head. It is the Will of the Father that the Son and Holy Spirit obey. Jesus makes this abundantly clear when he says, "Not my will, Father, but thine be done." That is what John 14:28 is refering to when it says that the Father is greater than Jesus. That the Father has authority over the Son and the Holy Spirit. Now, as for Jesus dying on the cross, Jesus says that he has been given power over his own body and existance. He says that no man can take His life. However, Jesus continues to say that He gives His own life up freely. When Jesus died on the Cross, he did so willingly. They didn't force him. So, when He died, he died physically. Now, this doesn't mean that Jesus died permanently. His spirit remained alive. In fact, the Bible teaches that the spirit is immortal. Jesus, being God, had control over his own spirit, body, and existance. He died on the cross willingly, he paid the price of sin, and took his life up again willingly. No other person has that authority and power. Only God. Jesusman |
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131 | what dis Jesus mean "I thirst" | John 19:28 | Jesusman | 40911 | ||
Hello, Over all, I agree with the others who have already posted. However, there is something to concider about this statement, "I thirst." A while back, the Cathedral Quartet released a song about this statement made by Jesus. It is such that it causes you to wonder. Jesus, being God in Flesh, is the creator of all in existance. Not only did he create the universe, but the water as well. About 75 percent of the Earth's surface is covered with Water. The Human body is about 80 percent water. During the Flood, it rained for forty days and nights, and covered the Globe. The most abundant resource on Earth is Water, and Jesus is thirsty. The man who can control the winds and waves, multiply food, control the body, and even holds the power of life and death in his hands is thirsty. The man who offered "living Water" is now thirsty. It makes you think. Jesusman |
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132 | How can I be certain God speaks to me? | 1 John | Jesusman | 40454 | ||
Hello, In 1 John 4:1-6, John pretty much covers this subject. Basically, if God is speaking to you, then what he says will coincide with His expressed word with in the Bible. If what is told to you does not coincide or is contradictory to the Bible's teachings, then ignore it. Jesusman |
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133 | Jesus or Paul refering to virgin birth | NT general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 40181 | ||
Hello, The best place to look is in the Messianic prophecies of the Old Testament. Isaiah chapter 7 I think is a place that talks about it. Jesus himself doesn't refer to it, but the Gospel writers do in the passages recording his birth. Paul doesn't refer to the virgin birth, to my knowledge at least. Paul primarily focuses around the Resurrection, as does the majority of the New Testament. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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134 | Which point? | Bible general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 40180 | ||
Hello Charis, To add to your point, Paul in 1 Corinthians 13:10 says that "when that which is perfect has come that which partial shall be done away." If this is in reference to his comments in 13:8, then the questions must be asked, "Has the 'perfect' come?" and "What is 'perfect'?" While the Bible maybe considered perfect by many, I doubt that is what Paul is referring to. The only one which is identified as perfect is Jesus. Especially considering that Paul has been speaking about being members of Christ's body for about two to three chapters prior to this verse, and continues to speak about Christ until the end of the epistle of 1 Corinthians. Our relationship to Christ is the whole focus behind the last six chapters of 1 corinthians. Why change that for one small verse, speak about the Bible's completion, and return back to talking about Christ's body? It doesn't fit. What does fit is that the spiritual gifts will still be in use when the Church is reunited with the Savior, hence that which is perfect. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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135 | age of Samuel? | Bible general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 40179 | ||
when? | ||||||
136 | age of Samuel? | Bible general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 40178 | ||
when? | ||||||
137 | age of Samuel? | Bible general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 40177 | ||
when? | ||||||
138 | Is the wedding feast symbloic or literal | John | Jesusman | 40053 | ||
Hello, While there may be a symbolic meaning behind the first miracle, it is equally important to view it literally. It is through the literal meaning that we gain insight into the symbolic meaning. There are three primary lessons that can be learned from this passage. 1) Obedience to God enables you to do amazing things. Notice that the servants did exactly as Jesus commanded. They thought that they were filling the Water pots. However, through their obedient actions, a miracle occured. 2) With God, all things are possible. Notice that Jesus suspends the natural process of making wine. Instead of going through the natural process of growing grapes, collecting them, squishing the juice out of them, collecting the juice, and firmenting it, Jesus goes from water to wine, and takes out the middle man, as it were. 3) What God can provide is better than anything that Man can provide or God's provisions are more than sufficient. Notice in verse 10 that the wine Jesus provided was better than the wine the bridegroom originally had. While your analysis is interesting, it can be a dangerous area to explore. It's too easy to read into the text what it really doesn't say. Therefore, it is better to rely upon the literal meaning to determine the symbolic. Jesus Loves You! Jesusman |
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139 | need to know the order the bible was wri | OT general | Jesusman | 40051 | ||
Hello, I wasn't entirely sure of what you were looking for. So, here is a link that gives a chart about the Books of the Bible, the authors, and the dates written. I hope this helps. Jesusman http://www.carm.org/bible/biblewhen.htm |
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140 | The letter "J" didn't exist until 500ad | Bible general Archive 1 | Jesusman | 39916 | ||
Hello, I can answer this question. In the Hebrew, the closest equivilent is the "yod" or "y" sound. That's why most of the transliterations of Hebrew use "y". When translating into greek, The "yod" was replaced with the Greek "Iota" or "I". When the Bible was translated into Latin, they used the Latin "I" as well. When Luther came along and translated the Bible into German, he used the German "J" instead. When the bible was translated into English, they used the German usage of "J" istead of "I" or "Y". Another little change used by Luther was using the German "V" in place of the Hebrew, greek, Latin "W". That's how you get from the Hebrew "YHWH" to the English "Jehovah". Jesusman |
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