Results 101 - 120 of 464
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Results from: Notes Author: Sir Pent Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
101 | knowledge of sin needed for salvation? | Rom 6:23 | Sir Pent | 116329 | ||
Personal Note............................................. Nolan, I am very happy for you and Katie as you approach the next stage of your journey together. I will pray for you both, and hope to get to see you soon and meet this woman who has captured the heart of my forever friend :) |
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102 | ALL Scripture Inspired by God? | OT general | Sir Pent | 116324 | ||
Referral to another thread........................................... The position that Ischus is taking is different from what most of the people on this forum believe. The "accuracy of the Bible" issue has been discussed before, and I would recommend that anyone who would like to read more, to type the number 15780 into the "Quick Search" box at the top right corner of the screen. |
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103 | Does the Holy Spirit work differently? | Bible general Archive 2 | Sir Pent | 115002 | ||
One possible difference………………………….. Another forum member previously directed me to the passage in Galations 4:1-7. It speaks of how we who have accepted Christ are “sons” instead of merely “servants”. It also says that because of this God sends the Holy Spirit “into our hearts”. There is no passage in the Old Testament that contains the specific phrase “into our hearts” when referring to the Holy Spirit. So perhaps this is a difference between how the Holy Spirit worked in the Old and New Testaments. Perhaps entering “into our hearts” is the new method that the Holy Spirit uses. What do you think? |
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104 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 114986 | ||
Personal Note................................................. Hi Steve, You are another person who I am glad is still around here at the forum. Thanks for your note, but I really think that Hank was in the wrong on this one. My post that he responded to was making the point that the specific phrase "into our hearts" is not found in any verse of the Old Testament in reference to the Holy Spirit. I can't quote a verse to support the idea that there aren't any verses :) I also understand that it does take more effort to read an entire thread as opposed to any single post. However, this forum is designed to be organized by threads. There are size limits on posts, and it is impossible to contain all the thoughts on some subjects in a single post. Therefore, it is necessary to split them up into different parts. In addition to that, simply repeating the same verses in every post of a thread is extremely redundant (although I now find myself having to do this more in order to appease my brothers). ....................... Jesus wept. John 11:35 |
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105 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 114952 | ||
My answer................................................... Hi again Ray, I have read your post that you asked me to respond to, but I regret that I continue to be somewhat lost by the whole capitalization thing. I understand that it is very important to you however. The one thought that did occur to me is whether there is any difference between God's "spirit" and the Holy "Spirit"? It seems to me that you can't have one without the other, and I can't even really think of anything that distinguishes them. |
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106 | How are pre-Christians made perfect? | Heb 11:40 | Sir Pent | 114835 | ||
Referral to another thread..................................... Hello Rowdy, In your post you spoke of whether a passage of scripture was meant to be literal or figurative. I would recommend that you type the number 19828 into the "Quick Search" box at the top right of the screen to read my thoughts on this question. Applying the method in that thread to the specific ideas of Heaven and Hell, I would say that since there are many verses that say that there is fire in Hell, and no verses that contradict that. Therefore, we can assume that it is literal. Similarly, there is a verse that speaks of the golden streets in Heaven and there are no verses that say the streets are not golden. Therefore, we can assume that the streets really are golden. Now if we get to Heaven, and they are not, I won't be entirely surprised. This isn't a critical issue, and we won't care anyway, because we'll be so happy being in Heaven with God. Nevertheless, I think it is better to believe "literal until proven figurative". |
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107 | God refers to himself as "The great I Am | Ex 3:14 | Sir Pent | 114708 | ||
Identification of cults............................................. Hello Aniset, I understand that if you are a Jehovah's Witness that you probably feel that Kalos and possibly others on this forum are attacking your beliefs. Please do not take this personally. This forum is designed to be a Christian perspective on Biblical truth. And historically, the vast majority of the Christian church has considered the Jehovah's Witness religion to be a cult. Therefore, it is entirely understandable that Kalos would post information that would point out why the doctrines that are taught by that group are contrary to orthodox interpretation of scripture. |
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108 | Can anyone else answer this question? | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 114707 | ||
I need clarification............................................. Hello Mommapbs, Thanks for your answer. I have been away as well. In your last post you said that in the Old Testament (OT) the Holy Spirit rested "upon" people, but in the New Testament (NT) it dwells "in" people. However, Gen 41:38, Num 27:18, Dan 4:8, 5:11-14, Ex 31:3, and Ex 35:31 all talk about the Holy Spirit being "in" people of the OT. Similarly, Rom 8:9-11, 1 Cor 3:16, Eph 2:22, Eph 3:16-17, 2 Tim 1:14, and James 4:5 all refer to the Holy Spirit dwelling "in" believers after Christ. And we know that the Holy Spirit came "on" the prophets of the OT, and also "on" the NT believers at Pentecost among other places. However, there is only one place in scripture that the Holy Spirit's method is referred to as "into our hearts". That place is Galations 4:6. So is the difference between the OT and NT method of the Holy Spirit acting in people lives really "on" and "in"? Or instead is it a difference of being "in" AND "on" in both the OT AND the NT, and being "into our hearts" only in the NT? What do you think? |
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109 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 114165 | ||
Tieing up loose ends......................................... Hi Makarios and Ray, I think the only loose end left in this thread is to figure out whether the Holy Spirit's methods changed from the Old Testament to now. It seems that most people think that there is a differnce, which is supported by the Galations 4:1-7 passage. However, you both seem to think that the Holy Spirit's methods are the same and that the only change is one of quantity, in that He fills ALL true believers (Christians) now. Do I understand you correctly, and if so, could you back up that belief? |
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110 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 114159 | ||
Continued Disagreement............................... Hello again Hank, I am disappointed again by your last post. It seems to be wrong on 3 different levels. 1. You said that I made a statement "contrary to biblical fact". That is not true. I said that the Old Testament does not contain any verses that say the Holy Spirit comes "into our heart" (although it is in the New Testament in Gal 4:6). Can you find any Old Testament verse that contains that exact phrase? 2. You said that I personally attacked you, and implied that I held grudges, and called you names. That is not true. My response to your post intended to critique your post not your person. I meant that your post ignored the context of the entire thread of the discussion. I meant that your post characterized me falsely. I have no grudges against you (notice I didn't refer to anything in my response to you except in regards to the most recent post). And the only "name" I called you was a "forum leader", which I meant as a term of respect (which is why I had high expectations). 3. It is also curious to me why you would respond to my post directed towards Ray on the grounds that it was unbiblical (which it wasn't). There have been many posts recently that have truly been unbiblical (denying the orthodox belief in the Trinity, debating the neccessity of baptism, etc.). Yet you have not responded to almost any of them. Why pick on me? |
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111 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 114133 | ||
Vehement Disagreement.................................... Hi Hank, I'm disappointed by your last post. I made two posts in response to Ray within 1 minute of each other. They were right on top of each other on the webpage, and I have to assume you read them both. In the first one I pointed out no less than 6 passages in the Old Testament that spoke of the Holy Spirit being "in" people there. In fact, I have stated throughout this entire thread that I believe the Holy Spirit was active in the Old Testament. Then you ignore all of that and instead focus on one phrase from my second response to Ray that the Holy Spirit does not come "into the heart" of anyone in the Old Testament. You take that one phrase out of it's context and then make it sound like I don't believe the Holy Spirit came on people in the Old Testament. You characterize me falsely, and in an irresponsible manner. As a forum leader, I expect more of you. |
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112 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 114129 | ||
Agreement................................................... Hi again Jcsav, I agree that in God there is neither Jew or Gentile. I also agree that as humans there is still a definition of "Jew" and "Gentile". I also agree that the Church today has some people who would be classified as "Jews" and others who would be classified as "Gentiles". For instance, my wife has some Jewish ancestry, and I do not think that I have any myself. And we are both believers and a part of the Church today :) |
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113 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 114123 | ||
I need clarification............................................. Hi Ray, You said that you believe the Holy Spirit came the same way to people in the Old Testament as He does to us. I think that Makarios brought up a similar view, that the only difference was just the increased number of people who the Holy Spirit comes to now. If that is the case, then how do you explain the Galations chapter 4 passage that jcsav brought up. It seems to say that the Holy Spirit now comes "into our heart" becuase we are "sons" of God after Christ and no longer "servants" of God like in the Old Testament. That passage seems to indicate a new kind of relationship with God leading to a new kind of filling with the Holy Spirit. There aren't any passages in the Old Testament that say the Holy Spirit comes into someone's heart. What do you think? |
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114 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 114122 | ||
Here's the verses you asked for................................. Hello again Ray, I am aware of your personal study on capitaliztion, although I must admit that I most of your posts on the subject are beyond me. Your dedication to your study is quite impressive though. As for the current topic, you mentioned a need for verses where the Holy Spirit dwells "in us". I would point you towards some that Makarios pointed me to. Gen 41:38, Num 27:18, Dan 4:8, 5:11-14, Ex 31:3, and Ex 35:31 all talk about the Holy Spirit being "in" people of the Old Testament. Rom 8:9-11, 1 Cor 3:16, Eph 2:22, Eph 3:16-17, 2 Tim 1:14, and James 4:5 all refer to the Holy Spirit dwelling "in" believers after Christ. |
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115 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 114094 | ||
Disagreement............................................ Hi Jcsav, I want to thank you again for pointing me to the Galations 4 passage. It has been helpful for my thinking and also assisted coming to consensus with EdB on this issue. However, I think that I disagree with your interpretation of the passage. You seem to be saying that the passage is comparing Jews and Gentiles. I think that instead he is comparing God's people in the Old and New Testament. In the Old Testament, God's people were the Jews and they were under bondage to the law (Gal 4:1-3). Then the critical change happened when Jesus came (Gal 4:4) and God's people were all those who believed, whether Jew or Gentile. Furthermore, the relationship of God to His people changed from a master/servant relationship to a father/son relationship (Gal 4:5-7). What do you think? |
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116 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 114016 | ||
So we agree after all............................ Hi EdB, So it seems that we are in agreement here that the critical change between the Old and New Testaments (relating to the Holy Spirit's methods) is our relationship with God. This transition to becoming sons of God is what enabled the Holy Spirit to come in a new way. |
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117 | Version vs Version - Again | Gen 6:1 | Sir Pent | 114014 | ||
Disagreement............................ Hi Ikeepoo68, I disagree that God put people on other planets. I also disagree that these non-existent people came to Earth. I also disagree that these non-existent people were giants and mistaken for Gods. Do you have any places in scripture that lead you to believe any of these things? |
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118 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 113994 | ||
My clarification 2........................................ Hi EdB, Here you seem to be saying that the Holy Spirit comes differently in the New Testament becuase we are permanently holy now after Jesus sacrifice. Yet in the Old Testament, the Holy Spirit could only come on people temporarily because their holiness was temporary and always had to be renewed by animal sacrifices. I disagree. It seems that there are many places in the New Testament where it speaks of the need for even Christians to cleanse our hearts and confess our sins etc. This would indicate that although our cleansing comes repeatedly from the one sacrifice of Jesus instead of multiple sacrifice of animals, that we are not constantly holy, any more than they were in the Old Testament. Galations 4:1-10 seems to say that the difference between our relationship with God before and after Jesus is that we were servants and are now sons. So perhaps your answer of Jesus sacrifice is correct, but the affect of it is to make us sons, not to make us permanently holy. What do you think? |
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119 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 113993 | ||
My clarification 1........................................ Hi EdB, I disagree that the words "in" and "filled" don't really mean "in" and "filled" in the Old Testament. I also don't see in any of the passages that I quoted (Gen 41:38, Num 27:18, Dan 4:8, 5:11-14, Ex 31:3, Ex 35:31) that the Holy Spirit left those people. It seems to me that the difference between the Holy Spirit in the Old and New Testaments is not whether He was "in" or "on", and not whether He was there "temporarily" or "permanently". Galations 4:4-6 seems to say that the difference is that in the New Testament, the Holy Spirit now comes "into our hearts". What do you think? |
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120 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 113980 | ||
Problem number 2............................ Hi EdB, The second problem that I have with your answer is that you said the Holy Spirit could not come "in" people who were not holy, and therefore, salvation through Christ had to come before the Holy Spirit could come "in". Doesn't that imply that the Holy Spirit has no problem coming "on" someone who is not holy. And also aren't you implying that no one was holy before Christ's sacrifice? Yet we know that there were people who were holy before Christ's sacrifice (2 Kings 4:9, Mark 6:20). Another post in this thread referred to Gal 4:1-10, which uses the categories of "sons" versus "servants". Perhaps instead of "holy people" you mean that the Holy Spirit can only come on "sons". |
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