Results 101 - 120 of 787
|
||||||
Results from: Notes Author: Radioman2 Ordered by Verse |
||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
101 | Disease or Bad Personal Choice?? | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 86955 | ||
angellightboy: You have rendered us a service by your many posts. Each time you submit a post defending homosexuality with lame and unscriptural arguments, you provide an opportunity for others to reply with opposing arguments that are sound and scriptural. Maybe it's time for you to invoke your right to remain silent. At this point that may be the best thing you could do to cut your losses. |
||||||
102 | Does anyone have a good way to explain t | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 87533 | ||
A shocking mistranslation - NWT John 1:1 The following quotes are taken from language scholars who study the Greek language of the New Testament and are offering their opinions as to the validity of John 1:1. "...the Word was a god." John 1:1 (New World Translation) Dr. Paul L. Kaufman of Portland, Oregon: "The Jehovah's Witnesses people evidence an abysmal ignorance of the basic tenets of Greek grammar in their mistranslation of John 1:1." Dr. Charles L. Feinberg of La Mirada, California: "I can assure you that the rendering which the Jehovah's Witnesses give John 1:1 is not held by any reputable Greek scholar." Dr. James L. Boyer of Winona Lake, Indiana: "I have never heard of, or read of any Greek Scholar who would have agreed to the interpretation of this verse insisted upon by the Jehovah's Witnesses...I have never encountered one of them who had any knowledge of the Greek language." Dr. Walter R. Martin (who does not teach Greek but has studied the language): "The translation...'a god' instead of 'God' is erroneous and unsupported by any good Greek scholarship, ancient or contemporary and is a translation rejected by all recognized scholars of the Greek language may of whom are not even Christians, and cannot fairly be said to be biased in favor of the orthodox contention." Dr. J. R. Mantey (who is quoted on pages 1158-1159 of the Witnesses own Kingdom interlinear Translation): "A shocking mistranslation." "Obsolete and incorrect." "It is neither scholarly nor reasonable to translate John 1:1 'The Word was a god.'" Dr. Bruce M. Metzger of Princeton (Professor of New Testament Language and Literature): "A frightful mistranslation." "Erroneous" and "pernicious" "reprehensible" "If the Jehovah's Witnesses take this translation seriously, they are polytheists." Dr. Samuel J. Mikolaski of Zurich, Switzerland: "This anarthrous (used without the article) construction does not mean what the indefinite article 'a' means in English. It is monstrous to translate the phrase 'the Word was a god.'" Dr. William Barclay of the University of Glasgow, Scotland: "The deliberate distortion of truth by this sect is seen in their New testament translations. John 1:1 is translated: '...the Word was a god, ' a translation which is grammatically impossible...It is abundantly clear that a sect which can translate the New Testament like that is intellectually dishonest." Dr. F. F. Bruce of the University of Manchester, England: "Much is made by Arian amateur grammarians of the omission of the definite article with 'God' in the phrase 'And the Word was God.' Such an omission is common with nouns in a predicative construction...'a god' would be totally indefensible." [Barclay and Bruce are generally regarded as Great Britain's leading Greek scholars. Both have New Testament translations in print!] Dr. Ernest C. Colwell of the University of Chicago: "A definite predicate nominative has the article when it follows the verb; it does not have the article when it precedes the verb...this statement cannot be regarded as strange in the prologue of the gospel which reaches its climax in the confession of Thomas. 'My Lord and my God.' - John 20:28" Dr. Phillip B. Harner of Heidelberg College: "The verb preceding an anarthrous predicate, would probably mean that the LOGOS was 'a god' or a divine being of some kind, belonging to the general category of THEOS but as a distinct being from HO THEOS. In the form that John actually uses, the word "THEOS" is places at the beginning for emphasis." Dr. J. Johnson of California State University, Long Beach: "No justification whatsoever for translating THEOS EN HO LOGOS as 'the Word was a god.' There is no syntactical parallel to Acts 28:6 where there is a statement in indirect discourse; John 1:1 is direct....I am neither a Christian nor a Trinitarian." (http://www.soulright.com/nwt.html) |
||||||
103 | Does anyone have a good way to explain t | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 87534 | ||
John 17:3 and the Only True God "And this is eternal life, that they may know Thee, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom Thou hast sent," (John 17:3, NASB). 'The Jehovah's Witnesses, among others, cite John 17:3 as a proof text to deny the Trinity and claim that Jesus Christ is not God. They reason is that if Jesus were God, then He would not have called the Father, "the only true God." If the Father is the only true God, then it must require that Jesus cannot be God. 'First of all, it is not proper to make a theological doctrine out of one verse. Of this the Jehovah's Witnesses are sometimes guilty. Nevertheless, they do tend to take one or two verses on a subject and use them to interpret all the others. Instead of getting a balanced position, they arrive at an interpretation that is in agreement with their theological position. This is called "proof-texting" and is something the Jehovah's Witnesses do frequently. 'Second, the context of Jesus' comment was that He was speaking as a man to His God. Remember, Jesus is both God and man, second person of the Trinity, the word made flesh (John 1:1,14). Since He was both divine and man, as a man He would naturally, and properly say that His Father was the only True God. He was not denying His own divinity, but affirming the Trueness of God as was done in the OT: “And now, O Lord our God, deliver us from his hand that all the kingdoms of the earth may know that Thou alone, Lord, art God,” (Isaiah 37:20). The truth is that Jesus was a man made under the Law (Gal. 4:4) and as a man He would be subject to God. Only in this case, Jesus was subject to the Father. That is why Jesus called the Father the only true God. But it is not a phrase that excludes Christ for Christ Himself said "Before Abraham was, I am" (John 8:58) and did not deny being called God by Thomas in John 20:28. 'Third, John 17:3 must be examined in the light of the totality of scripture. We see that Jesus is called God in John 1:1,14; 8:58; 20:28; Col. 2:9; Heb. 1:8. Therefore, John 17:3 cannot be interpreted in a way that disagrees with other scriptures. Of course, some people simply state that John 17:3 cannot allow for Jesus being God. But the simple fact is that Jesus is called God by God and others. Therefore, the whole of scripture must be harmonized. 'Fourth, this verse reflects the sonship of Jesus. The Father and the Son have a unique relationship. Jesus is the eternal Son. The terms Father and Son denote a relationship which is why God is called the God of the Son in 2 Cor. 11:31. 'Fifth, if we are to be consistent using the Jehovah's Witness logic that the Father is the only true God, then the following verses present a problem -- if we use their logic. '"For certain persons have crept in unnoticed, those who were long beforehand marked out for this condemnation, ungodly persons who turn the grace of our God into licentiousness and deny our only Master and Lord, Jesus Christ," (Jude 4, NASB). 'Does this mean that the Father is not our Master and Lord? Of course not. Yet, Jesus is called our only Master and Lord. '"There was the true light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man. 10He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him," (John 1:9-10). 'Here we see Jesus being called the true light. Does this mean that the Father is not the true light? If not, then we have both the Son and the Father being the true light. '"And Jesus said to him, "Why do you call Me good? No one is good except God alone," (Mark 10:18, NASB). 'Does this verse mean that Jesus is not good? Jesus said only God was good. Then, if we use the Jehovah's Witness logic, Jesus is not good. Of course, that doesn't make any sense. '“I, even I, am the Lord [YHW]; And there is no savior besides Me," (Isaiah 43:11). 'We know that Jesus is the Savior. Again, according to Witness logic, Jesus could not be the Savior since the Bible tells us that YHWH is the only Savior. '"Thus says the Lord, your Redeemer, and the one who formed you from the womb, “I, the Lord [YHWH], am the maker of all things, Stretching out the heavens by Myself, And spreading out the earth all alone,'" (Isaiah 44:24, NASB). 'According to John 1:3 and Col. 1:16-17 Jesus made all things. With JW logic would have a problem. 'Col. 1:16-17 says, "For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things have been created by Him and for Him. 17And He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together," (NASB). 'As we can see, we cannot simply make a doctrine out of one verse. To do so is to invite error and it only serves to use the Bible to validate preconceived ideas about doctrine.' (http://www.carm.org/jw/John17_3.htm) |
||||||
104 | how to start reading the bible? | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 87718 | ||
Annihilation and resurrection? "The Bible teaches us that we have an existence away from our bodies once we die. The Jehovah's Witnesses are incorrect. We continue on after death." - - - - - - - - - - - - - 'Does Annihilation and resurrection make sense? 'According to the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society, when you die, you cease to exist: Let God be True, p. 59, 60, 67. On Judgment Day, only faithful Jehovah's Witnesses will be resurrected to life eternal on Paradise Earth. The rest of all mankind will be annihilated, wiped out, made to not exist with no eternal punishment in a fiery hell. 'There is a logical problem with this view. If a Jehovah's Witnesses believes that he ceases to exist when he dies and that he will be resurrected at the Judgment Day, then is he really being resurrected? In other words, if he was alive and then has ceased to exist, he is in the same state he was before he was created. That is, he isn't. He has no existence. He is gone. The only remnant of this person would be in the memory of God (not counting family and friends, etc.). Only God would know if this Jehovah's Witness was good enough for Paradise Earth. If he was, then the reward would be a new creation of someone in the exact image of the Jehovah's Witness who previously lived and did all the works mandated by the Watchtower Organization. But, it wouldn't be the exact same person, because that person ceased to exist and there is no continuity, no continuance of the person since he has ceased to be. 'Therefore, on Judgment day, how can he be resurrected? That is, how is he, as the same person, resurrected when he doesn't exist anymore? Is he the exact same person or has God make an exact copy of the person upon which to shower the blessings of Paradise Earth? 'It would seem that simple logic would contradict the idea of existence, non-existence, and then existence all being the same person. It also contradicts scripture which says, '"We are of good courage, I say, and prefer rather to be absent from the body and to be at home with the Lord," (2 Cor. 5:8). I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago—whether in the body I do not know, or out of the body I do not know, God knows—such a man was caught up to the third heaven," (2 Cor. 12:2). 'The Bible teaches us that we have an existence away from our bodies once we die. The Jehovah's Witnesses are incorrect. We continue on after death." (www.carm.org/jw/annihilation.htm) |
||||||
105 | Does anyone have a good way to explain t | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 87858 | ||
'JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES AND PROVERBS 8:22 'IS JESUS WISDOM? 'According to Jehovah's Witnesses Jesus is wisdom in Proverbs 8:22. Is Proverbs 8:22 speaking about Jesus? Jehovah's Witnesses teach that Jesus is being spoken of in Proverbs 8:22 and was created by God before all other things were created. What is going to be shown here is what Jehovah's Witnesses believe, and teach others concerning Proverbs 8:22, and look at the context of Proverbs 8:22 to see what exactly this passage is saying. 'In the Jehovah's Witnesses brochure called "Should You Believe In The Trinity page 14" they say the following: "Notice how closely those references to the origin of Jesus correlate with expressions uttered by the figurative "Wisdom" in the Bible book of Proverbs: "Yahweh created me, first-fruits of his fashioning, before the oldest of his works. Before the mountains were settled, before the hills, I came to birth; before he had made the earth, the countryside, and the first elements of the world." (Proverbs 8:12, 22, 25, 26, NJB) While the term "Wisdom" is used to personify the one whom God created, most scholars agree that it is actually a figure of speech for Jesus as a spirit creature prior to his human existence." (Should You Believe In The Trinity page 14) Jehovah's Witnesses teach that Jesus is being spoken of in Proverbs 8:22 and that it teaches Wisdom (Jesus) was created. One point that needs to made right at the start. There is no reference to Jesus in Proverbs 8:22 at all. This passage is speaking of Wisdom, and for those who teach this is Jesus the evidence is not there. Another point is that the Jehovah's Witnesses believe that Jesus was God's first creation and therefore believe this to be speaking of Jesus and like to use different Bible Versions that would indicate that this Wisdom was created. There are Bible Versions that have Proverbs 8:22 with the words 'created, producted or made', however there are many Bible Versions that do not. 'BIBLE VERSIONS OF PROVERBS 8:22 THAT SUPPORT JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES '"Jehovah himself produced me as the beginning of his way, the earliest of his achievements of long ago." (New World Translation/ Official Jehovah's Witnesses Bible) '"The Lord created me first of all, the first of his works, long ago." (Todays English Bible) '"The Lord made me as the start of his way, the first of his works in the past." (The Bible In Basic English) 'BIBLE VERSIONS OF PROVERBS 8:22 THAT DO NOT SUPPORT JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES '"The LORD possessed me at the beginning of His way, Before His works of old." (New American Standard Bible) '"Jehovah possessed me in the beginning of his way, Before his works of old." (American Standard Version) '"Jehovah possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old." (Darby Bible) '"Jehovah possessed me--the beginning of His way, Before His works since then." (Youngs Literal Translation) '"The LORD already possessed me long ago, when his way began, before any of his works." (Gods Word Bible) '"Yahweh possessed me in the beginning of his work, Before his deeds of old." (World English Bible) '"The LORD possessed me at the beginning of His way, before His works of old." (Third Millennium Bible) 'Showing the comparison of different Bible Versions shows this is not an easy solution to Proverbs 8:22 and with it reading 'possessed' or 'create, made, produced'. What is the Hebrew word and what does it mean? The Hebrew word here is 'QANAH' and it means: "to own, to attain, buy-er, create possess(-or), purchase, c, recover, redeem, provoke to jealously." The Hebrew word 'qanah' has many different definitions and can be used differently depending on the context. The question is how should 'qanah' be used in Proverbs 8:22? In order to rightly interpret the Scriptures the context is the key to understanding what the word means or implies. If someone said they love cats would you think they had a personal relationship with them as human beings do with other human beings? The word love can be used in many different ways and it is understood by the context of how it is used. The standard for rightly interpreting the Scriptures is reading carefully and looking at what is being said, who is sayiing it, and examining it in light of what the Scriptures teach.' ____________________ To read more, including 'EXAMINING PROVERBS 8 IN CONTEXT', go to: (http://www.apologeticsforchristians.homestead.com/JehovahsWitnessesProverbs8.html) |
||||||
106 | Does anyone have a good way to explain t | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 87905 | ||
Hey, CurtMan, ["Let's get real about Proverbs 8:22." Amen! This posting is about as real as it gets. :-) This Note and my previous one DISAGREE with JWs on their interpretation of Proverbs 8.] 'IS JESUS WISDOM? 'One point that needs to made right at the start. There is no reference to Jesus in Proverbs 8:22 at all. This passage is speaking of Wisdom, and for those who teach this is Jesus the evidence is not there. (...) 'EXAMINING PROVERBS 8 IN CONTEXT' '...[See Proverbs 8:1-11 in ASV.] Looking at the beginning of the Chapter Wisdom is said to be crying out to those who will seek her. Wisdom is said to be a she speaking forth instruction, and those who receive her find understanding, and better than gold, silver, and rubies, for nothing compares to getting wisdom. Wisdom here is not Jesus, but as King Solomon is putting it, get wisdom from God, understanding, knowledge, and live by them for they are better than all desired things. (...) '[See Proverbs 8:12-21 ASV.] Wisdom is said to be understanding, knowledge, and Counsel of which kings, princes, and nobles decree justice. Wisdom is knowing what is right and wrong, and having understanding on how to apply things to life. Wisdom here is not a person at all of which Jehovah's Witnesses teach. Wisdom is that which people seek for walking in the way of righteousness, and receiving understanding, and nothing compares to having true wisdom in life. (...) '[See Proverbs 8:22-29 ASV.] Solomon continues stating wisdom was eternally with Jehovah God from everlasting. Jehovah God had wisdom from the beginning of His way, that is from everlasting wisdom was with Jehovah God. There was never a time when Jehovah God did not have wisdom. Jehovah God used wisdom in creating all things, and wisdom was before all things, for wisdom is knowledge, understanding, and Jehovah had this before the creation of the world, and all things. Wisdom here is not Jesus at all, but in fact speaking about the knowledge and understanding of Jehovah God, and that wisdom was there from the beginning. 'It is clear that the word 'qanah' means "possessed" in context of what King Solomon wrote in Proverbs 8. Jehovah God is Eternal, from everlasting, and Wisdom is said to be from everlasting, in the beginning of Jehovah's way. If Wisdom is Eternal, and Jehovah is Eternal, than Wisdom can not be created or made, for that would mean that Jehovah at one time did not have wisdom, and somehow created wisdom when He did not have any. That does not go with what the Bible teaches or with what the context of Proverbs 8 is teaching. Another thing is that Wisdom is not Jesus here because according to the Jehovah's Witnesses Jesus is a created angel known as Michael the archangel, and this wisdom is said to be with Jehovah from the beginning of His way, from everlasting. 'Many Jehovah's Witnesses point to Commentaries in support of their views in reference to Proverbs 8:22. Commentaries are good to use, but Commentaries are not 100 percent accurate. In reference to Christian Commentaries, Jehovah's Witnesses like to point out that some have stated Proverbs 8:22 is speaking about Jesus; however in those Commentaries they in no way state that Jesus was created by the Father, and in those Christian Commentaries throughout the Scriptures they clearly state that Jesus is God come in the flesh, the Second person of the Trinity. Jehovah's Witnesses work very hard to try to prove their views, but the bottom line is what is the context of Proverbs 8. What has been shared is that Proverbs 8 is not speaking of Jesus, but in fact about 'wisdom' in reference to getting understanding, knowledge, and direction. 'Another important point that needs to be addressed concerning what Jehovah's Witnesses teach on this subject. Looking at the book of Proverbs King Solomon wrote many things on Wisdom, and if Wisdom in Proverbs 8:22 is Jesus then what about the other references King Solomon wrote about? What is the purpose of the proverbs King Solomon wrote? [See Proverbs 1:1-6; 2:1-9; 4:1-9; 7:1-4 ASV] (...) '[See Proverbs 7:1-4 ASV] According to King Solomon, the one who wrote Proverbs, Wisdom is not Jesus at all. Wisdom is getting understanding in life, knowledge, and through wisdom we learn how to live lives according to righteousness, and to turn from evil. Wisdom is used in Hebrew poetry as a figure of speech as King Solomon spoke of wisdom many times as being a her, she, sister, kinswoman, worth more than gold and silver, and worth more than earthly goods. King Solomon did not write that Wisdom was a real person, but was to be sought out by those who seek the Lord and want true understanding and knowledge that comes from Jehovah God.' ____________________ This article has been edited solely due to space limitations. To read more go to: (http://www.apologeticsforchristians.homestead.com/JehovahsWitnessesProverbs8.html) |
||||||
107 | Knowing God's will under short notice | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 88288 | ||
How does God speak to us? 'I have to make clear what my point of view is so that it's not misunderstood. Let me capsulize it for you very quickly. My point of view is basically four quick points: 'First of all, learning to hear the voice of God is not taught as a Christian discipline that we must learn in order to live the optimal Christian life. This is the "hotline to God" view in which we get specialized and tailor-made instructions for our personal lives. That is not taught in Scripture. 'Secondly, God sometimes does give specialized instructions, so I'm not saying that God can't do that and I'm not putting God in a box. He does sometimes give specialized instructions. He did in Biblical times and He does in the present. But when we read in the Bible especially in the New Testament, which is what our discussion is about today when He has done it, such specialized instructions are clear first of all. They are not mumbled. They are not whispered. They are not nudged. And they are, almost without exception in the New Testament, a sovereign intrusion by God into the circumstances rather than something that is first sought by a Christian. 'Thirdly, God's intrusion in these cases is sometimes through special gifts in the body that I believe are in full operation today, but are by very nature individual. In other words, every person has his own gift and each person does not have every gift. So this working through gifts can't be a means of every Christian hearing from God. In other words, sometimes God intervenes with a prophetic word, but since prophetic words only come through those people who have the gift of prophecy, it's not the kind of thing we all have to cultivate, to learn to do. 'Finally, there are clearly workings of the Spirit in the area of teaching, conviction of sin and comforting of individual Christians. I admit that those workings are private, individual and tailored to individual people. Those kinds of things are not in question here. ____________________ Acts and the Voice of God by Gregory Koukl To read more go to: (www.str.org/free/commentaries/theology/actsvoic.htm) |
||||||
108 | IGNORANCE OF CHRIST BY HEATHENS. | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 90319 | ||
"This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all the nations, and then the end will come." (NASB Matthew 24:14) | ||||||
109 | IGNORANCE OF CHRIST BY HEATHENS. | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 90321 | ||
As to the how. NASB Revelation 14:6 And I saw another angel flying in midheaven, having an eternal gospel to preach to those who live on the earth, and to every nation and tribe and tongue and people; |
||||||
110 | Did Christ take back the keys? | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 90953 | ||
Elijah: Thanks for your reply. It's good to see you on the forum again. Welcome back. Grace and peace, Radioman2 |
||||||
111 | justme is still my pen name ! | Bible general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 92713 | ||
Hank: You and Emmaus need to be more serious and stop these name games. Sincerely, namoidaR |
||||||
112 | hope this helps | OT general | Radioman2 | 78881 | ||
I agree. | ||||||
113 | OUR PRIORITY TO EVANGELIZE. | OT general | Radioman2 | 96327 | ||
Darcy: My typing fingers are hard of hearing. I didn't realize I was yelling. Besides, I know how to turn Caps Lock on. But I've never figured out how to turn it off. As someone recently said, "I'm too busy on the forum to take time to think." --Radioman2 :-) |
||||||
114 | Identifying the born again moment | NT general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 77863 | ||
A time of decision doesn't necessarily prove or disprove the existence of saving faith. 'A Time of Decision 'So often people say things like: "Well, I know I'm a Christian, because I remember when I signed the card," or "I remember when I prayed a prayer," or "I remember when I walked the aisle" or "went forward in church." A person may remember exactly when it happened and where they were when "it" happened, but that doesn't necessarily mean anything. Our salvation is not verified by a past moment. Many people have prayed prayers, gone forward in church services, signed cards, gone into prayer rooms, BEEN BAPTIZED, and joined churches without ever experiencing genuine saving faith.' (emphasis mine) (www.gty.org/IssuesandAnswers/archive/genuinefaith.htm) |
||||||
115 | Saved by belief or belief and baptism? | NT general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 79181 | ||
"VI. THE CONDITION FOR SALVATION "A. The Condition. Salvation is conditioned solely on faith in Jesus Christ. Nearly 200 times faith, or belief, is stated as the single condition in the N.T. (John 1:12; Acts 16:31). That faith must be placed in Christ as one's substitute for and Saviour from sin. (...) "B. The False Additions to Faith. Through the ages other requirements in addition to faith have been wrongly added." One of these is: (...) "2. Baptism. Baptism is the visible testimony to one's salvation, but not a condition for it. Acts 2:38 should be translated, 'Repent and be baptized on the basis of the remission of sins.' Acts 22:16 teaches that baptism followed the arising, just as forgiveness followed the calling on the name of the Lord. The two parts of the verse should be kept distinct. Mark 16:16 is probably not a genuine part of Mark's Gospel" (p. 1950, Ryrie Study Bible, Charles Caldwell Ryrie, Moody Press, 1978). |
||||||
116 | What exactly must a person to be saved? | NT general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 79458 | ||
If there is something we can or must do, something we must add to our faith, to gain salvation, what would that be? Over a period of time on this forum we have ruled out surrender to the lordship of Christ (this is not a condition for salvation); baptism (this has been discussed here ad nauseum); and repentance (a false addition to faith when understood as a prerequisite, requiring the cleansing of the life FIRST in order to be saved. (See page 1950, MacArthur Study Bible.) We have said hundreds of times: Good works are the result, not the cause of salvation. Remaining faithful is the result, not the cause of genuine saving faith. So what must we DO to be saved? Keep the commandments? Obey the law? AMPLIFIED Acts 13:39 And that through Him everyone who believes [who acknowledges Jesus as his Savior and devotes himself to Him] is absolved (cleared and freed) from every charge from which he could not be justified and freed by the Law of Moses and given right standing with God. AMPLIFIED Romans 3:20 For no person will be justified (made righteous, acquitted, and judged acceptable) in His sight by observing the works prescribed by the Law. For [the real function of] the Law is to make men recognize and be conscious of sin [not mere perception, but an acquaintance with sin which works toward repentance, faith, and holy character]. AMPLIFIED Romans 3:28 For we hold that a man is justified and made upright by faith independent of and distinctly apart from good deeds (works of the Law). [The observance of the Law has nothing to do with justification.] AMPLIFIED Galatians 2:16 Yet we know that a man is justified or reckoned righteous and in right standing with God not by works of the Law, but [only] through faith and [absolute] reliance on and adherence to and trust in Jesus Christ (the Messiah, the Anointed One). [Therefore] even we [ourselves] have believed on Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ and not by works of the Law [for we cannot be justified by any observance of the ritual of the Law given by Moses], because by keeping legal rituals and by works no human being can ever be justified (declared righteous and put in right standing with God). [Ps. 143:2.] AMPLIFIED Galatians 3:11 Now it is evident that no person is justified (declared righteous and brought into right standing with God) through the Law, for the Scripture says, The man in right standing with God [the just, the righteous] shall live by and out of faith and he who through and by faith is declared righteous and in right standing with God shall live. [Hab. 2:4.] So whatever it is that we must do to be saved, keep our salvation or add to our salvation, it is not surrender, baptism, repentance, keeping the law, good works or holding on and holding out. If one finally is saved and makes it into the kingdom of God it will be because God held on to that person, not the other way around. GOD DOES THE SAVING. GOD DOES THE KEEPING. SALVATION IS OF THE LORD. |
||||||
117 | What exactly must a person to be saved? | NT general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 79587 | ||
Good point. No one needs to consult any history books to answer the question, "What must I do to be saved?" The Bible is the only -- repeat ONLY -- inspired and, thus, authoritative book we need to answer that question. | ||||||
118 | Is Easter mentioned in the Bible? | NT general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 80883 | ||
The word translated "Easter" in the KJV is the Greek word that literally means "the Passover." The word "Easter" is not mentioned in many places in the Bible. In fact, it's mentioned only once and only in one translation that I've seen. And even there it is the word that literally means "the Passover." |
||||||
119 | Hold fast the Scriptures- then memorize? | NT general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 80937 | ||
I, too, have a book I'd like to point out. I do not recommend it; I merely point it out. New Age Bible Versions G. A. Riplinger (A. V. Publications, 1993) 'Riplinger's book 'goes beyond previous works, however, by developing a conspiracy theory for the KJV-only view. Author G. A. Riplinger believes that lying behind modern versions (especially the NASB and NIV, apparently) is New Age influence.' (...) 'Riplinger rejects [the] earlier manuscripts and urges us to return to the Bible of the precritical era. 'If there is anything good to say about Riplinger’s New Age Bible Versions (hereafter NABV), it is that the book is not any longer than it is and that the foolishness of its various claims are transparent when one takes the time to study them... 'NABV is replete with logical, philosophical, theological, biblical, and technical errors. Riplinger lacks the proper training to write this book (her MA. and M.F.A. in “Home Economics” notwithstanding). Many of her errors arise from a lack of understanding of Old and New Testament textual criticism as well as biblical and theological studies...She hesitatingly admitted that she really could not read Greek. '...Simply comparing the KJV with the NIV and NASB through endless charts does not prove a thing. She needs to demonstrate that the specific translations she accepts are really better textual renditions than the alternatives she rejects, rather than merely assuming the superiority of the majority text type or the KJV. (...) 'The bottom line in Riplinger’s mind is that the King James Version of 1611 is alone the Word of God. Anything prior to or after that specific translation is in some measure not really the Word of God. We are back to the absurd view that the KJV is the Bible of Paul and the apostles. 'A volume the size of NABV would be required to point out Riplinger’s misunderstanding of theology, translation technique, and her fascination with New Age conspiracy and its association with modern versions. This book will cause a temporary stir. Hopefully, however, most Christians will recognize NABV as an ill-begotten book and will turn back to a study of the Word of God in the language of the people today. In so doing they will fulfill the prayers of godly translators of centuries past, including the very ones who translated the King James Version of the Bible.' [This article has been edited to fit here. To read the entire article, see (www.equip.org/free/DB015.htm)] |
||||||
120 | Hold fast the Scriptures- then memorize? | NT general Archive 1 | Radioman2 | 80950 | ||
Sayonara! | ||||||
Result pages: << First < Prev [ 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 ] Next > Last [40] >> |