Results 101 - 120 of 169
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Results from: Notes Author: Love Fountain Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
101 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 34254 | ||
Dear Jesusman, Thanks for the response, however you did not answer my question, so I'll ask again. Please help me understand, Do you believe that the sons of God are always men in the Bible? Bless you, Love Fountain |
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102 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 33606 | ||
Dear Jesusman, Please help me understand, Do you believe that the sons of God are always men in the Bible? Bless you, Love Fountain |
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103 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 33605 | ||
Dear Jesusman, I want to be clear, do you believe that angels are only in spirit throughout the Bible? Bless you, Love Fountain |
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104 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 33590 | ||
Dear Jesusman, You said,"As for Genesis 4:26, and the "proclaim" meaning "profain". I haven't been able to find any support for that. Enos. (Genesis 4:26.) "Calling on the Name of the Lord. This Is Appendix 21 From The Companion Bible. "Then began men to call upon the name of Jehovah." If this refers to Divine worship it is not true: for Abel and Cain both began, and their descendants doubtless followed their example. What was really begun was the profanation of the Name of Jehovah. They began to call something by the Name of Jehovah. The Authorized Version suggests "themselves", in the margin. But the majority of the ancient Jewish commentators supply the Ellipsis by the words "their gods"; suggesting that they called the stars and idols their gods, and worshipped them. The Targum of Onkelos explains it: "then in his days the sons of men desisted from praying in the Name of the Lord." The Targum of Jonathan says: "That was the generation in whose days they began to err, and to make themselves idols, and surnamed their idols by the Name of the Word of the Lord." Kimchi, Rashi, and other ancient Jewish commentators agree with this. Rashi says: "Then was there profanation in calling on the Name of the Lord." Jerome says that this was the opinion of many Jews in his days. Maimonides, in his Commentary on the Mishna (a constituent part of the Talmud), A.D. 1168, in a long treatise on idolatry, gives the most probable account of the origin of idolatry in the days of Enos. The name Enos agrees with this; for his name means frail, weak, sickly, incurable. The sons of men, as "Enosh", are so called for a similar reason (Job 7:17; 15:14. Psalm 9:20; 103:15. Daniel 2:43). (See Appendix 14) If Jonathan, the grandson of Moses, became the first idolatrous priest in Israel (see notes on Judges 18:30), what wonder that Enos, the grandson of Adam, introduced idolatry among mankind. Moreover, what "ungodliness" did Enoch, "the seventh from Adam" have to prophesy about in Jude 14, 15, if purity of worship was begun in the days of Enos, instead of profanation in calling on the Name of the Lord? Surely this is sufficient evidence that this profanation of the Name of the Lord was the reason why Enoch was raised up to prophesy against it. I hope this is the support you were looking for. Bless you, Love Fountain |
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105 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 32698 | ||
Dear Tim, Thanks for your inquiry. When I said,"being led astray into satan's hands", the intent of this comment was in the context of all deception, not solely directed at Gen 6, sorry if I was not clear. I was trying to make a point that we need to "debate" preferrably according to the rules, to weed out the truth from the lies and Mr. Brown appeared to have no inclination to fight for the Truth, so I am hoping to have a better understanding of what he was trying to say. I have stated in this thread some things I believe regarding the fallen angels, but I don't think it was taken seriously. In Matt 24 Jesus tells us to watch the signs leading up to the end and one of the signs he says we will see is that there will be marrying and giving in marriage like in the days of Noah. Many believe this is merely in reference to men, which is true if you believe the sons of God were men in Gen 6. If you believe the sons of God were angels then Matt 24 would be saying the angels are going to be back doing the same things they did in the time of Noah. You laughed at what I said in referece to Rev 9, but I was serious. I don't think we have seen the last of them. If we had seen the last of them, why the book of Jude? And why in 1Cor 11 does the Bible teach, spiritually,that men are not to have a false spiritual veil(long hair) and women are not to remove their spiritual veil(long hair) because of the angels? The answer to "because of the angels", I feel lies within Rev 9. Articulation is not one of my strengths, thanks for your patience and questions. Bless you, Love Fountain |
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106 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 32695 | ||
Dear Tim, Thanks for your response. It is interesting that the phrases are the exact same yet one say sons and the other says angels. You recently helped me with a definite article, based on the rules of grammar in regard to a definite article should not these phrases be consistent and say the same thing in the translation according to the rules since both are preceeded with a definite article? Also, do you know where I can read the Septuagint in English online? I have found it in Greek, but it is all Greek to me! Bless you, Love Fountain |
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107 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 32694 | ||
Dear Jesusman, The best thing a man or woman could do is put away words and teachings from man and read the Word of our Heavenly Father. This is not an experiment to me but something I do already and have done since I started reading the Bible. To read with an open mind, which is very hard to do for everyone of us, please read Gen 6:2 again very slowly. It says the "sons of God" took daughters of men. If the sons of God were indeed men, I would look for Gen 6:2 to say the "sons of men" took daughters of men. If the Text said "sons of men" I would not have an issue with what you have been saying, but the fact is that it does not say sons of men but sons of God. God is Spirit and we must worship Him in Spirit with all our heart, mind, body and soul. Angels and humans fits best because the angels left their oiketerion(spiritual house). We have a soul and our soul has two houses in which it dwells or habitates within, but only one at a time. The one we are in now is a terrestrial house(earthly flesh body) and when our flesh body dissolves(dies)our soul becomes housed within our celestial house(spiritual body). The usage of "oiketerion" in Jude 6 and 2Cor 5:2 is not in reference to heaven, it is in reference to the fact that the angels left their spiritual bodies and took on the existence of the flesh. Matt 22, where it says angels do not marry or are given in marriage is referring to them in their spiritual bodies or the resurrection bodies, but since they left their spiritual bodies the only other body for them to put on would be one of the flesh. Unless there is another type of body that I have not read about in Scripture. So since they took on the flesh body they did marry the daughters of men. This is very simple to me, I feel it is only us, man, that makes everything so difficult to understand. Whether you believe me or not is up to you, I seek not to be any greater or less than any man or woman, for we are all equal in love and one day we will all know the Truth. Whether it is me or you or both of us that is corrected, I only pray that we can get out of our own way and accept the corrections and chastisements for our beliefs. Bless you, Love Fountain |
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108 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 32684 | ||
Dear Mr. Brown, Please go back to the post you are responding to and see that the words used were not mine but the words were quoted from two different Bible Dictionaries. The person before me quoted words from one view and I quoted words from the other view. Neither one of us used our own words. If you believe you understand the Bible, and your understanding is Truth, why would you allow something you felt to be a lie, to exist? What about your brothers and sisters who are believing a lie and are being led astray into satan's hands? Whether they choose to believe you or not, is not up to you or I, but atleast you could say you did your best and didn't walk away and allow the deception to occur without a fight. But if you don't debate or discuss in a Christ like manner, how could you call yourself one of His children but not stand up for Him? It is one thing to debate to exalt yourself and another to debate to please the Father, by standing up for His Truth. I am a sinner and do not claim anything more, I don't fight for myself, I fight for the Truth. Bless you, Love Fountain |
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109 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 32681 | ||
Dear Mr. Brown, You say,"debates are not important they can cause srife in my experince but the word stands on it own every word or god is right. just think about it . i would that we only speak the word for the purpose of edifying on another and encouraging one another in god that is all good day." I do agree that debates can cause strife, but I do not agree with your statement that debates are not important. I am here in this forum to learn and share what I have learned in all humility and love. For my passion and love is within the words of the Father. His words are Truth, and we as His children need to stand up for the Truth. If debates are not important, then I am concerned for the fact that a lie which is left undebated may lead my brothers and sisters astray and right into the hands of the evil ones. For this fact alone and many more, I will not sit back and allow false teaching to be rampant. If I am wrong in my belief, then correct me, I am open minded and always learning and searching for the truth and love. God is Love. It has been my experience that those who show strife and harshness have issues within themselves they need to workon before trying to help others. Thanks for your thoughts, Bless you, Love Fountain |
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110 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 32559 | ||
(1) "Sons of God" is interpreted as referring to men, (a) to sons of the nobles, who married daughters of the common people. This is the view of many Jewish authorities, who hold that it is justified by the use of 'elohim in the sense of "judges" (Ex 21:6; 22:8 f, etc.). But this cannot be the meaning of 'elohim here, for when 'adham, "men," is used to denote the lower classes, it is contrasted with 'ish, as in Ps 49:2 (3 in Heb), not with 'elohim. When contrasted with 'elohim it signifies the human race. (b) Some commentators hold that by "sons of God" is to be understood the pious race descended from Seth, and by "daughters of men" the daughters of worldly men. These commentators connect the passage with Gen 4:25 f, where the race of Seth is characterized as the worshippers of Yahweh and is designated as a whole, a seed (compare Deut 14:1; 32:5; Hos 1:10 (2:1 in Heb)). They consider the restricted meaning they put upon "men" as warranted by the contrast (compare Jer 32:20; Isa 43:4), and that as the term "daughters" expresses actual descent, it is natural to understand "sons" in a similar sense. The phrase "took wives," they contend also, supports the ethical view, being always used to signify real and lasting marriages, and cannot, therefore, be applied to the higher spirits in their unholy desire after flesh. On this view verses 1-4 are an introduction to the reason for the Flood, the great wickedness of man upon the earth (verse 5). It is held that nothing is said in verse 4 of a race of giants springing from the union of angels with human wives (see paragraph 2, below), and that the violence which is mentioned along with the corruption of the world (verse 11) refers to the sin of the giants. (2) Most scholars now reject this view and interpret "sons of God" as referring to supernatural beings in accordance with the meaning of the expression in the other passages. They hold that Deut 14:1, etc., cannot be regarded as supporting the ethical interpretation of the phrase in a historical narrative. The reference to Jer 32:20, etc., too, is considered irrelevant, the contrast in these passages being between Israel and other nations, not, as here, between men and God. Nor can a narrower signification (daughters of worldly men) be attached to "men" in verse 2 than to "men" in verse 1, where the reference is to the human race in general. This passage (Gen 6:1-4), therefore, which is the only one of its kind, is considered to be out of its place and to have been inserted here by the compiler as an introduction to the story of the Flood (verses 5-8). The intention of the original writer, however, was to account for the rise of the giant race of antiquity by the union of demigods with human wives. This interpretation accords with Enoch chapters 6-7, etc., and with Jude 6 f, where the unnatural sin of the men of Sodom who went after "strange flesh" is compared with that of the angels (compare 2 Peter 2:4 ff). (See Havernick, Introduction to the Pentateuch; Hengstenberg on the Pentateuch, I, 325; Oehler, Old Testament Theology, I, 196 f; Schultz, Old Testament Theology, I, 114 ff; Commentary on Genesis by Delitzsch, Dillmann, and Driver.) But see ANTEDILUVIANS, 3; CHILDREN OF GOD; GIANTS; NEPHILIM; REPHAIM. (from International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia, Electronic Database Copyright (c)1996) NEPHILIM (nef'-i-lim) (nephilim): This word, translated "giants" in the King James Version, but retained in the Revised Version (British and American), is found in two passages of the Old Testament-one in Gen 6:4, relating to the antediluvians; the other in Num 13:33, relating to the sons of Anak in Canaan. In the former place the Nephilim are not necessarily to be identified with the children said to be borne "the daughters of men" to "the sons of God" (verses 2,4); indeed, they seem to be distinguished from the latter as upon the earth before this unholy commingling took place (see SONS OF GOD). But it is not easy to be certain as to the interpretation of this strange passage. In the second case they clearly represent men of gigantic stature, in comparison with whom the Israelites felt as if they were "grasshoppers." This agrees with Gen 6:4, "the mighty men that were of old, the men of renow." Septuagint, therefore, was warranted in translating by gigantes. (from International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia, Copyright (c)1996 NEPH'ILIM (nef'i-lim; Gen 6:4; Num 13:33). See also Giant. The Nephilim are considered by many to be giant demigods, the unnatural offspring of the "daughters of men" (mortal women) in cohabitation with the "sons of God" (angels; cf. Gen 6:1-4). This utterly unnatural union, violating God's created order of being, was such a shocking abnormality as to necessitate the worldwide judgment of the Flood. (From The New Unger's Bible Dictionary. Originally published by Moody Press of Chicago, Illinois. Copyright (c) 1988.) |
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111 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 32555 | ||
Dear Hank, You say," I come not to debate either side of the issue, but to observe," and yet you bring another issue of debate to the table. This thread is about Gen 6:1-4 and I think we should stick to the topic, but to answer your question I have copied something Kalos wrote today and I agree with it as follows, "Consider this. Any doctrine that depends solely on one verse of Scripture -- especially if it depends on only one verse in only one particular translation -- any such doctrine that is so inadequately supported isn't much of a doctrine to begin with." That was by Kalos today and in agreeance with him, not only have I listed that the NIV says in Job, that the sons of God are angels, but also the fact that The Septuagint calls the sons of God, angels in Gen 6:2. Two examples are supplied to his request. Are the translators of the NIV and the Septuagint wrong? Jesusman asked for a verse where it says sons of God are angels, and he was shown. I find that I need to utilize as many versions as I can, especially for a deeper understanding in my search for the love and truth. Bless you, Love Fountain Regarding the Hebrew, SONS OF GOD (Old Testament) (bene ha-'elohim, "sons of God" (Gen 6:2,4; Job 1:6; 2:1); bene 'elohim, "sons of God" (Job 38:7); (from International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia, Electronic Database Copyright (c)1996 SONS OF GOD (2) Most scholars now reject this view and interpret "sons of God" as referring to supernatural beings in accordance with the meaning of the expression in the other passages. They hold that Deut 14:1, etc., cannot be regarded as supporting the ethical interpretation of the phrase in a historical narrative. The reference to Jer 32:20, etc., too, is considered irrelevant, the contrast in these passages being between Israel and other nations, not, as here, between men and God. Nor can a narrower signification (daughters of worldly men) be attached to "men" in verse 2 than to "men" in verse 1, where the reference is to the human race in general. This passage (Gen 6:1-4), therefore, which is the only one of its kind, is considered to be out of its place and to have been inserted here by the compiler as an introduction to the story of the Flood (verses 5-8). The intention of the original writer, however, was to account for the rise of the giant race of antiquity by the union of demigods with human wives. This interpretation accords with Enoch chapters 6-7, etc., and with Jude 6 f, where the unnatural sin of the men of Sodom who went after "strange flesh" is compared with that of the angels (compare 2 Peter 2:4 ff). (See Havernick, Introduction to the Pentateuch; Hengstenberg on the Pentateuch, I, 325; Oehler, Old Testament Theology, I, 196 f; Schultz, Old Testament Theology, I, 114 ff; Commentary on Genesis by Delitzsch, Dillmann, and Driver.) But see ANTEDILUVIANS, 3; CHILDREN OF GOD; GIANTS; NEPHILIM; REPHAIM. (from International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia, Electronic Database Copyright (c)1996 |
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112 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 32453 | ||
Dear Jesusman, You have asked "where in the bible does it say that the sons of God were angels?" Job 1:6 6 One day the angels came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan also came with them. (from New International Version) Job 2:1 2:1 On another day the angels came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan also came with them to present himself before him. (from New International Version) My Zondervan NIV Study Bible has placed angels where other versions have said sons of God. Also, the Septuagint, which is the oldest Greek translation of the Hebrew say "angels" instead of "sons of God" in Gen 6:2. Based on the Zondervan NIV Study Bible and The Septuagint, I would say your proof is not sufficient and it is clear that the angels are indeed the sons of God. This belief goes with Scripture and is supported when we dig into the original languages. I hope we can agree that the angels did fall based on Jude 6. I clearly stated that "they left their own "oiketerion". This Greek word only occurrs in 2Cor 5:2 and in Jude 6 and is used of the spiritual (or resurrection) body, which is the nature of their fall. The nature of their sin has been stated to be "in like manner" to that of Sodom and Gomorrha, Jude 7. The time of their fall has been stated as having taken place "in the days of Noah", 1Pet3:20,2Pet 2:7. And for their sin they are "reserved unto judgement",2Pet 2:4 and in prison, 1Pet 3:19." It is clear for many Biblicaly supported reasons that the sons of God in Gen are indeed angels. If you want to believe otherwise that is up to you, but please consider what is pleasing to God when debating with others. We need to hold ourselves upright in a Christ like manner, exhorting the brethren in all humility and patience. Jesus said in so many words, if they cast out devils in my name and do not follow us, they are still on our side and not against us. In the Name of Jesus, Bless you, Love Fountain |
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113 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 32151 | ||
Dear Jesusman, You said,"The story of the Flood concludes that all life on the earth, except those in the ark, died. So, the Niphillim could not have survived the flood, unless they were on the Ark." Please explain the following existence of Giants in the Bible. Num 13:33 And there we saw the giants, the sons of Anak, which come of the giants: and we were in our own sight as grasshoppers, and so we were in their sight. The giants, the sons of Anak. Some have suggested that the spies imagined there were giants about when they saw great walls, sometimes fifty feet high, and supposed only giants could build them. But the measurements of King Og's iron bedstead given in Deut 3:11 testify to the existence of a race of abnormally large people. Deut 2:10,20 and Gen 14:5 indicate that the "giants" date from as early as patriarchal days, and were given various local designations (Emims, Zamzumims, and Rephaim). In the Hebrew of Deut 2:11 the Anakim are called Rephaim (translated "giants"). Josh 11:22 tells us that Anakim remained in three of the Philistine cities - Gaza, Gath, and Ashdod (Jer 27:5, LXX). The family of Goliath in Gath may have been descendants of these earlier people, for in 2 Sam 21:16-22 and 1 Chron 20:4-8 these Philistine giants are called sons of the Rapa'. The fifteenth century texts from Ugarit mention the Rephaim (C. H. Gordon, Ugaritic Literature, pp. 101-103), who probably were not "shades of the dead" but actually these same mighty people (cf. Ugaritic ilnym and Hebrew ('elim); Job 41:17, Heb. Bible; 41:25, Eng.) from the north, whence came iron processing (cf. Og's bedstead). (from The Wycliffe Bible Commentary, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1962 by Moody Press) GIANT GIANT. An abnormally tall and powerful human being of ancient Bible lands; the rendering of several Heb. words. Nephilim (nef'i-lim; Heb. nepilim; Num 13:13). The form of the Heb. word denotes a plural verbal adjective or noun of passive signification, certainly from napal, "to fall," so that the connotation is "the fallen ones," clearly meaning the unnatural offspring that were on the earth in the years before the Flood, "and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of men, and they bore children to them" (Gen 6:4). The mention of the great stature of the Nephilim, the sons of Anak, in the evil report that the ten spies brought of the land of Canaan (Num 13:33) together with the LXX rendering, gigantes, suggested the translation giants. They were exceedingly wicked and violent so that "every intent" of the thoughts of men's hearts "was only evil continually" (Gen 6:5). See Merrill F. Unger, Biblical Demonology, pp. 45-52. Rephaim (ref'a-im; Heb. repa'im, "shades, ghosts"). The aboriginal giants who inhabited Canaan, Edom, Moab, and Ammon. In Abraham's time, c. 1950 BC, Chedorlaomer defeated them. At the period of the conquest, c. 1440 BC, Og, king of Bashan, is said to have alone remained of this race (Deut 3:11; Josh 12:4; 13:12). His huge bedstead of iron is mentioned in particular. Anakim (an'a-kim; Heb. anaqim, "sons of Anak"). In Num 13:33 the Anakim are classified with the Nephilim on account of their gigantic size. Emim (em'im), a race that inhabited the country of the Moabites (Gen 14:5) and that is pictured as "great, numerous, and tall as the Anakim" (Deut 2:10). Zamzummim (zam'zum-im), a giant race inhabiting the land of Ammon (Deut 2:20). Other References. From a remnant of the Anakim in Philistine Gath came the famous Goliath (1 Sam 17:4). Two of the Philistine giants are mentioned in 2 Sam 21:16-22. The tradition of a giant race persisted in the ancient Near East and goes back in the Genesis account to intercourse between fallen angels and mortal women. Although this so-called angel hypothesis of Gen 6:1-4 is disclaimed by many Bible students, it is a clear implication of the original. Says W. F. Albright, "Yahweh was believed to have created astral as well as terrestrial beings and the former were popularly called, 'the host of heaven' or 'the sons of God'. In Gen 6:1 ff., for example, . . . the (astral) gods had intercourse with mortal women who gave birth to heroes (literally, meteors, nephilim), an idea that may often be illustrated from Babylonian and Greek mythology. But the Israelite who had this section recited, unquestionably thought of intercourse between angels and women (like later Jews and Christians)" (From the Stone Age to Christianity [1940], p. 226). (From The New Unger's Bible Dictionary. Originally published by Moody Press of Chicago, Illinois. Copyright (c) 1988.) Bless you, Love Fountain |
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114 | Help! | Bible general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 32141 | ||
Dear Indy, Thanks for taking me to 1Cor 13, love is definitely the greatest gift. I see 1Cor 13 as stating the characteristics of love but not a method. My Webster's Dictionary says method implies an orderly logical effective arrangement usually in steps. Am I understanding you if I sayyou think love is a decision obtained through method, according to Webster's thought on method, are you saying love has an orderly logical effective arrangement found in steps? I believe God is love, and He has given us love freely by allowing us to have freewill. Freewill to make a choice to love Him and others as ourself or not to love Him. He tells us His will in the Bible and how He wants us to be and what He wants us to do, but I haven't seen Scripture that says start here. Just like I have never found love in the same manner twice. I don't believe love is "warm fuzzies", I believe love is something we find when we give our full mind, heart, body and soul to understanding the gifts our Father has bestowed upon us through the Son within His Word. I am always happy to hear from you. Bless you, Love Fountain LOVE LOVE (Heb. 'ahaba; Grk. 'agape). Chiefly represented in the Scriptures as an attribute of God and as a Christian virtue. Its consideration, therefore, belongs to both theology and ethics. An Attribute of God. According to the Scriptures, God has feeling, affection, although rationalistic theologians (e.g., Schleiermacher, Bruch) have asserted the contrary. We must derive our conceptions of God from the special revelation that He has given of Himself, and this declares His love as strongly as His existence. It is held by some to be inadequate to speak of love as a divine attribute. "God is love" (1 John 4:8,16). The Scriptures contain no equivalent statements with respect to other qualities of the divine nature. Love is the highest characteristic of God, the one attribute in which all others harmoniously blend. The love of God is more than kindness or benevolence. The latter may be exercised toward irrational creatures, but love is directed toward rational, personal beings. The eternal love of God has never been without its object, a fact upon which we receive some light from the Scripture revelation of the threefold personality of God (see Trinity; see also Matt 3:17; John 15:9; 17:23-26). The gracious love of God to men, even to sinful men, is most strongly declared in both the OT and NT (e.g., Ex 34:6; Isa 63:9; Jer 31:3; John 3:16; 1 John 4:10). The love of God underlies all that He has done and is doing, although many facts exist that we cannot reconcile with His love on account of our limited understanding. The highest disclosure and most complete proof of divine love is in redemption (see Rom 5:8; 8:32-39; 1 John 4:9-10). The reality and power of this love are properly apprehended only under the influence of the Holy Spirit. "The love of God has been poured out within our hearts through the Holy Spirit who was given to us" (Rom 5:5). (From The New Unger's Bible Dictionary. Originally published by Moody Press of Chicago, Illinois. Copyright (c) 1988.) |
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115 | Help! | Bible general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 32128 | ||
Dear Hank, I do agree that we should have a concordance and that we should read through a whole chapter without looking at side notes and then go back to see and compare what we read with someone elses point of view. But you have stated we should use an,"inductive method of Bible study." This "method" is confusing to me, I hope you can help me understand. I have always believed God is love and love is the greatest gift of all, I know no method to love. Love is from within not something of method. There is not a method to which I love anyone, I love because I love to love. Is there a method to love a wife or husband or your children or any other relatives or friends? Bless you, Love Fountain |
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116 | Help! | Bible general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 32124 | ||
Dear Mother, While it is good to hear what others have to say, it is important to understand that any book written by a man or woman is merely their interpretations or suggestions of what they believe. In the Bible we are told to study the Word of God with each other and help each other grow in the love of Christ through the Word but we must always go back to the Word to check what we have heard and if it is true. Please read the following verse from Isaiah 55:2, Isa 55:2 Wherefore do ye spend money for that which is not bread? and your labour for that which satisfieth not? hearken diligently unto me, and eat ye that which is good, and let your soul delight itself in fatness. In the above verse, I would apply this to all books we read that are not the Word of God. God says you spend money and read what I have not written and you will not be satisfied within your soul. The Word of God is the only bread that fills our souls, not bread or words from men or women. Please read the following from Jeremiah, Jer 17:5-7 5 Thus saith the LORD; Cursed be the man that trusteth in man, and maketh flesh his arm, and whose heart departeth from the LORD. 6 For he shall be like the heath in the desert, and shall not see when good cometh; but shall inhabit the parched places in the wilderness, in a salt land and not inhabited. 7 Blessed is the man that trusteth in the LORD, and whose hope the LORD is. KJV The Hebrew word for heart in Jer 17:5 is leb and is being figuratively used for the intellect which is in your mind, as follows, leb (labe); a form of OT:3824; the heart; also used (figuratively) very widely for the feelings, the will and even the intellect; likewise for the centre of anything: Put all your trust and burdens in this life, into the Word of God, the Bible, and you will be healed. Put away mans teaching and focus on the Word. Ask the Father for wisdom before you read and thank Him after you read. He knows your heart and your thoughts and knows everything you need, even before you know it yourself. God says ask and you shall receive. If you want to enter into His will and find what He has for you start with repentance and study diligently in His Word not mans and you will be cleansed from the inside out. He will heal your comprehension disorder if you stick to His Word and not give up. My hope and prayers go out to you and search. Also, as others have said, there are concordance dictionaries which tell you where each word in the Bible is used and what the word was in the original language which every student should have. You say you do not know what He has for you, but I think you are already on the right path if you are searching His will and that is exactly what He wants from us all. God is love and there are no methods to love, but to read the love letter He wrote to you with a open and ready mind and you will be cleansed of ailments, blemishes and spots. When cleansed from within you will comprehend and shine on the outside and give love to all you meet. Please read chapter by chapter and verse by verse and the Old Testament and New Testament, for man lives by every Word that proceeds from the mouth of God. Bless you, Love Fountain |
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117 | Call those things that are not | Bible general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 32119 | ||
Dear EdB, Thanks again for you response. In regards to the challenge, I do in depth Bible study and every time I do I learn something new, but perhaps something I said has led you to the conlusion that I do not. So I went back through your postings to me on this thread and found the following statement by you, "I think just the opposite is true. I think much of the problem today is because men have put away what the bible has told them and rely on their "sincere heart". I think you have said this because of what I said, in reference to Matt 13:15, that people need to search and understand with a sincere heart. To say one must understand with his heart is figurative. We see that figuratively speaking, the Greek word for heart kardia, is in reference to the mind. Greek 2588 in the Strongs is the word for heart in Matt 13 as follows, kardia (kar-dee-ah); prolonged from a primary kar (Latin, cor, "heart"); the heart, i.e. (figuratively) the thoughts or feelings (mind); also (by analogy) the middle: KJV - (broken-) heart (-ed). Bless you, Love Fountain |
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118 | Definite article in Hebrew and Greek? | Bible general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 31701 | ||
Dear Tim, Thank you for your response. I believe I have a better understanding now. An example of a definite article would be in Rev 12:10 when satan is called "the accuser". Since "the" is used, we have a definte article which leaves us no misunderstanding of who the accuser is. This is not really a good example, since this is the only time in the KJV "the accuser" is stated in this way but if it was elsewhere also then we would have understanding of who is being referred to because of the rule of the definite article. So,if my understanding of your reply regarding a definite article is right, when a definite article is used in Scripture, it always refers to same person, place, thing, idea or event, not allowed to change its meaning or referrence, according to the rules of grammar? Is this accurate? Bless you, Love Fountain |
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119 | The Sons of God in Genesis 6:1-4 | Genesis | Love Fountain | 31696 | ||
Dear Jesusman, Thanks for the response and for repeating yourself. I agree God is not the author of confusion nor does His word ever conflict with itself, and this is why I do my best to get out of the way and allow Scripture to interpret Scripture. When ever I forget to do this I try to remember the following verse, John 4:23-24 24 God is spirit, and his worshipers must worship in spirit and in truth." (from New International Version) With the above verse in mind at all times, I was reading what you wrote and a particular sentence stood out to me, You said,"Also, all that Peter says is that the angels left their natural domain. He says nothing that even hints to idea that angels had relations with humans.", on the contrary, 2 Cor 5:2 2 For in this we groan, earnestly desiring to be clothed upon with our house which is from heaven: KJV In the above verse it says,"in this we groan" in reference to the mortal flesh body and, "our house which is from heaven" refers to our immortal spiritual body. The word,"house", in the Greek is oiketerion. The Greek word "oiketerion" is only used twice in the New Testament, the other is in the following verse, Jude 6 6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day. KJV The above verse says that the angels "left their own habitation". The Greek word for "habitation" is "oiketerion". In the Strongs the Greek number is 3613 and these are the only two times it is used and in both instances oiketerion is preceeded with a definite article. In the simplicity which is in Christ, this means that the angels left their spiritual existence to take on an existence in the flesh and I would conclude that once in the form of the flesh proceeded to takes wives of the daughters of men and procreate, giving birth to the nephilim, giants, mighty men of old, men of renown. We could ask ourselves how does a spirit take on the form of a man, but think about the man filled with a legion when this question arises, yes the Bible gives plenty example of spirits entering into the flesh. I hope this helps with your understanding of why I believe that the sons of God in Gen 6 are indeed fallen angels. Bless you, Love Fountain |
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120 | Call those things that are not | Bible general Archive 1 | Love Fountain | 31499 | ||
Dear EdB, Thanks for your response. You state, "Think about it, if we both agree God wrote the Bible to be plainly understood, and we have major divisions today what could be the problem? I am sorry to say but we do not both agree. The bible is not written to be plainly understood. Jesus spoke in parables because it was not for "them" to understand. "Them" are the ones who do not read the Bible with the sincerity of their heart to understand and if they did, then Jesus promises to heal them. Matt 13:10-15 10 And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables? 11 He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given. 12 For whosoever hath, to him shall be given, and he shall have more abundance: but whosoever hath not, from him shall be taken away even that he hath. 13 Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand. 14 And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive: 15 For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should UNDERSTAND WITH THEIR HEART, and should be converted, and I should heal them. KJV It is plainly stated in the above verse that we will not be healed until we seek to understand with all our heart. Perhaps we could sum it up with a choice, wisdom or reason? I will choose wisdom every time. Bless you, Love Fountain Jer 29:13-14 13 And ye shall seek me, and find me, when ye shall search for me with all your HEART. 14 And I will be found of you, saith the LORD: and I will turn away your captivity, and I will gather you from all the nations, and from all the places whither I have driven you, saith the LORD; and I will bring you again into the place whence I caused you to be carried away captive. KJV I believe the significance of the heart would be better understood if all 830 times it is used in the KJV were read with a sincerity of heart. |
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