Results 1 - 20 of 29
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: yokefellow Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Can you lose your salvation? | Bible general Archive 1 | yokefellow | 29926 | ||
Dear BF Kratz, Thank you for your question concerning your salvation. A Bible answer is of utmost importance since our eternal souls are at stake. 1) "Is salvation something that must be earned each day?" - The answer is: NO! a. Eternal salvation cannot be "earned" by man - not by works of the Jewish law of Moses, or by any works of man's invention or device (Eph. 2:9; 2 Tim. 1:9) because sin has separated him from God (Isaiah 59:1-2). However, because of God's eternal love for man, salvation is extended to man by God's grace (unmerited favor) (Eph. 2:8; John 3:16-17; Rom. 5:6-10). Without God's grace, man would be eternally lost! This is God's part in man's salvation process. b. Man's part in his salvation process is accepting God's grace "through faith" (Eph. 2:8; Rom. 10:17). God puts no difference between Jew and Gentile, saving both by grace through faith in Jesus Christ (Rom. 10:12; Gal. 3:26-28). Faith is the medium through which all accept His salvation. On the part of God salvation is by grace; on the part of man it is his acceptance of God's grace through an obedient faith (Rom. 6:17; 10:17; 2 Tim. 1:13). God gives man the capacity to believe (Rom. 10:17), reveals to him the things to believe, and ample testimony to produce the faith required (John 20:30-31; Mark 16:15-16; Rom. 1:16; Gal. 3:26-29). 2) "If you sin (which we do each day) and die before asking for forgiveness, will you go to heaven or hell?" The answer is: Any sin that is unrepented of will cause a child of God to be lost eternally. In the New Testament, any sin that is unrepented of is referred to as "a sin unto death" (1 John 1:16). This "death" is referring to spiritual "death" or eternal separation from God (Isaiah 59:2). Anyone whose heart is hardened to the point of not ever wanting to repent of his sins, the Bible says, "it is impossible" (Heb. 6:4) "to renew them again unto repentance" (Heb. 6:6). We must, therefore, be willing to "continually confess" our sins before God. In 1 John 1:9, the verb "confess" is translated from a "present active" subjunctive and literally translated means "If we keep on confessing our sins" indicative of a continuous process. Notice in 1 John 1:7 the little word "if". Our salvation is "conditioned" on our "walking in the light" and "confessing our sins" (vs. 9). The word "light" is a figurative word used in the Bible representing God's Word (Psa. 119:105; Prov. 6:23). In other words, we must always be willing to "continue" walking in the "light" of God's Word or being obedient to God's Word. If we are unwilling to confess our sins, God will be unwilling to forgive us our sins and we will be eternally lost (Isaiah 59:1-2; Prov. 28:13; Rom. 6:23; 1 John 1:9). The New Testament teaches that a child of God can fall from grace (Gal. 5:4), or fail, i.e., fall back from, the Lord’s favor (Heb. 12:15 - ASV). It is possible to deny the Master who bought (purchased) you (1 Cor. 6:20; Acts 20:28; Gal. 3:13; Heb. 9:12; 1 Pet. 1:18-19; 2 Pet. 2:1; Rev. 5:9); and so be destroyed (2 Pet. 2:1). It is also possible to turn the grace of God into lasciviousness and deny Christ (Jude 4). Thus, we must keep ourselves in God’s love (Jude 21), and give diligence to make our calling and election sure (2 Pet. 1:10). We accomplish this by obeying and making application of God's Word in our lives (John 15:9-10; Rom. 6:17; Gal. 5:6; 2 Tim. 1:13; James 1:21-25; 1 John 2:3-6; 3:18-21) lest our reception of divine grace be in vain (2 Cor. 6:1). May the Lord continue to bless you in the study of His Word. Mike |
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2 | Can you lose your salvation? | Bible general Archive 1 | yokefellow | 29944 | ||
Dear Hank, Let's analyze the passage: 1) 1 John 5:16 - Here, reference is made to a "brother" who sins. The phrase, "any man" must therefore be speaking of only those who are members of the body of Christ and approved of God; it follows, therefore, that the "brother" contemplated as sinning is an erring child of God. An analysis of this passage reveals: (1) a child of God can sin; (2) there is a sin not "unto death"; (3) we are instructed to pray for those thus sinning, with the assurance that our prayers will be heard and answered; (4) there is a sin "unto death"; (5) for those guilty of such it is useless and futile to pray. 2) Our question now is: "What is the sin "unto death"? (a) It is obvious that no single sin, contemplated as an overt act, was in the apostle's mind. The passage does not designate "the sin" or even "a sin", but mere sin, sin in essence, sin abstractly considered. (b) The sin was such that a brother could discern or identify it ("If any man see"). (c) The "death" referred to was not "bodily death" but "spiritual death" - separation from God (Isaiah 59:1-2). (d) It was such a sin as only children of God could be guilty of. Any correct interpretation must take into account each of these considerations and embrace them. 3) There is much about sin and its forgiveness in this epistle of John. Sin is found in the lives of all Christians (1 John 1:8-10); its origin indicated (3:8); the way to void sin is revealed (3:9). In the event of sin in one's life, there is "an Advocate, with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous" (2:1); and the promise that "if we confess our sins, he is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness." (1:9) The apostle's teaching on the theme of sin and its forgiveness is abundant, and the significance clear: (1) The Lord will forgive every sin, of whatever nature, that a brother confesses (1 John 1:8-9); (2) There is, however, a sin which the Lord WILL NOT forgive (1 John 5:16); Therefore, the sin which the Lord will not forgive, is simply "a sin", "any sin", "all sin" that a "brother" WILL NOT CONFESS! 4) If this conclusion does not follow, it is because either the major or minor premise of the syllogism is defective. The "major premise" is that the Lord will forgive every sin a brother CONFESSES. This is stated in 1 John 1:8. The "minor premise" is obviously implied in 1 John 5:16. It follows, therefore, that since the Lord will forgive every sin, of whatever nature, that a brother CONFESSES and turns away from; and as there is a sin which the Lord WILL NOT FORGIVE, the conclusion is irresistible that the sin which the Lord WILL NOT FORGIVE is a sin which a "brother" WILL NOT CONFESS! The context corroborates this view. If my brother sins and manifests penitence, I not only may, it is MY DUTY to pray in his behalf (James 5:16). If, however, my brother exhibits stubborn impenitence and persistent "rebellion", following the commission of his sin, it is USELESS to petition the Father in his behalf. The "sin unto death" is thus a "disposition of heart", a "perverseness of attitude", and an "unwillingness of mind" to acknowledge one's sin and turn away from it. Such a disposition effectively "closes" the door of heaven in one's face (Isaiah 59:2). Mike |
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3 | Read full question! | Bible general Archive 1 | yokefellow | 30016 | ||
Good day to you BF and thank you for your response. Romans 8:1 is not a contradiction at all but is supportive of the scriptures that I gave in my last posting. The "no condemnation" in this verse is in reference to being "in Christ", freed from the condemnation produced by the law (of Moses), as well as the grip of sin. How does one get "into Christ"? By being baptized into his death (Romans 6:3; Gal. 3:27). All spiritual blessings are found "in Christ" (Eph. 1:3). Let us, however, realize that this "freedom" from condemnation is NOT in a comprehensive, complete, and total sense. Getting "into" Christ and "remaining" faithful "in Christ" are "conditional" in nature, and those requirements and restrictions must be both "met" and "continually kept". This "no condemnation" is certainly not an area of logical, valid reasoning for the doctrine of the "impossibility" of apostasy. The following is a four-point, simple outline illustrating this fact: 1) The Bible warns us against falling away (1 Cor. 10:5-12; 2 Pet. 2:20-22; Gal. 5:4; Heb. 4:1, 11; 6:4-6). 2) The Bible tells us how to keep from falling away (2 Pet. 1:5-10; Jude 21; Acts 13:43; Heb. 10:39). 3) The Bible tells us what to do when we fall away (Acts 8:20-24; Rev. 2:5; 1 John 1:9; 2:1-2; James 5:16). 4) The Bible gives examples of those who have fallen away (Acts 8:13-24; Gal. 2:11-14; 2 Tim. 4:10). Let's look at Jude vs. 24 - Reading from the American Standard Version - 1901. "Now unto him that is able to guard you from stumbling, and to set you before the presence of his glory without blemish in exceeding joy". The doxology is to Jesus Christ. Jude here affirms that Christ was (a) able to guard Jude's readers from stumbling; and (b) to set them before the presence of his glory without blemish in exceeding joy. The word "guard" indicates the protection which the Lord extends to his saints who "keep themselves" in God's love (vs. 21), a protection which extends even to "stumbling", an act to be distinguished from "falling", since it is possible for one to "stumble", and not necessarily to "fall". To "stumble" is a step short of "falling", and a condition precedent to it. It follows, therefore, that if one NEVER stumbles, he will NEVER fall. This passage does NOT teach the impossibility of apostasy; it is not here affirmed that God guards all whether they keep themselves in his love or not; on the contrary, only those who AVAIL THEMSELVES of the means of escape provided (1 Cor. 10:12-13) are thus protected. The verb "to set" means, literally, "to cause to stand," and this the Lord will do for those who are "faithful" to him to the end (Rev. 2:10). Such shall stand before him "without blemish" (i.e., blameless, faultless, pure), because they have kept themselves from defilement and have lived in such fashion as to merit his approval. These "faithful" shall experience "exceeding joy" because of the marvelous blessings that shall be given them (Rev. 7:13-17; 21:3-4). The idea of "once saved always saved" is not supported in the Bible thus it is a false teaching. Mike |
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4 | Can you lose your salvation? | Bible general Archive 1 | yokefellow | 30035 | ||
Joe, thank you for your response. You asked, "If we "miss one," are we damned?" 1) In my daily prayer to God, I ask Him to please forgive the sins that I "know" about (commission) and the sins that I "don't know" about (omission). This will take care of "all" my sins. 2) The "works" mentioned in Eph. 2:9 refers to the old law of Moses (Rom. 3:20; Gal. 3:10-12) which no man could "keep" perfectly. 3) There are man's "works" of merit which will not save him (2 Tim. 1:9; Titus 3:5). 4) There are, however, "works" that God has authorized (prepared or ordained) us to "do" in order to be "obedient" to Him (Eph. 2:10) and His Will (Matt. 7:21). Notice in this passage (reading from the ASV). "For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which GOD (emphasis mine) afore prepared that we should WALK IN THEM" (emphasis mine). These are works of "obedience" to God - NOT works of merit which man has devised. One such "work" of obedience that God authorizes is Matt. 28:18-20 concerning the great commission. If's it's not a "work" to "teach all nations", then what is it? To illustrate, the following passages authorizes us as children of God to execute or perform the "works" that God has authorized us to do: 1 Cor. 9:1 - the inspired Apostle Paul here states, "are not ye my work in the Lord?" (notice "in the Lord" - the Lord has authorized the work - not Paul). 1 Cor. 16:10; 2 Cor. 9:8; Eph. 4:12; Phil. 1:6; 2:30; Col. 1:10; 1 Thess. 1:3; 5:13; 2 Thess. 1:11; 2:17; 1 Tim. 2:10; 3:1; 5:10; 5:25; 6:18; 2 Tim. 2:21; 3:17; 4:5; Titus 1:16; 2:7; 2:14; 3:1; 3:8; 3:14; Heb. 6:10; 10:24; James 1:25; 2:14; 2:17-18; 2:20-26; 3:13; 1 Pet. 2:12; Rev. 2:26. May the Lord continue to bless you in the study of His Word. Mike |
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5 | Can you lose your salvation? | Bible general Archive 1 | yokefellow | 30041 | ||
Dear Joe, Please study the scriptures that I have given in my posts before you "immediately" come to a conclusion. I cannot "change" what God's Word says any more than any man can. God's Word, for the most part, does not "conform" to "man's thinking" and therefore why he often "rejects" God's Word. This is why we MUST HAVE an open mind when we approach God's Word and get rid of preconceived ideas, philosophies, opinions, etc. As you well know, one of the major rules of interpretation is to allow ALL of God's Word to answer our questions - NOT just the part of scripture that we like or want to adhere to. Many false teachings have arisen because of this fact. The inspired Apostle Paul stated in Acts 20:20, "I kept back nothing that was profitable unto you"; and in Acts 20:27, "For I have not shunned to declare unto you ALL (emphasis mine) the counsel of God." Christ stated this application of scripture in Matt. 4:4 as He was tempted of the devil. "It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by EVERY WORD (emphasis mine) that proceedeth out of the mouth of God." The inspired Apostle Paul stated in 2 Timothy 3:16 that "All scripture is given by inspiration of God" (not just the part that WE want to adhere to). The religion of the Bible is not a "cafeteria style" religion where you can "pick and choose" certain verses in the Bible but not include the "whole body" of scripture in your interpretation. This applies to ALL men in approaching the scriptures. We must also have the attitude of the Berean Jews in Acts 17:11. They demonstrated a "readiness of mind" in receiving the word as well as having a willingness to "search the scriptures daily" to see whether or not Paul and Silas were teaching the Truth of God's Word. If all followers of Christ would adhere to the above principles, there wouldn't be any denominations in the religious world - only Christians belonging to the Lord's church that he built, purchased, and died for (Matt. 16:18-19; Acts 20:28). Mike |
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6 | How old was Moses when he died | Genesis | yokefellow | 31289 | ||
Dear Keng, Thank you for your Bible question. According to Deuteronomy 34:7, Moses was a hundred and twenty years old when he died. Mike |
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7 | I DO NOT UNDERSTAND WHAT 42;6-7 . | Isaiah | yokefellow | 31086 | ||
Dear Smartcats, Thank you for your question concerning the meaning of Isaiah 42:6-7. The following answer is provided from scripture: 1) The whole chapter of Isaiah 42 focuses on the prophecy of the Messiah, His character, and the spiritual blessings of His kingdom, particularly among the Gentiles. Vs. 6 - "I the Lord have called thee in righteousness" - We ask, who is the "thee" that Isaiah is speaking of? It's the Lord's "servant" (Isa. 42:1; Matt. 12:14-18). "and give thee for a covenant of the people" - The nation of Israel was the instrument through which the Messiah was to appear (tribe of Judah - Heb. 7:14). He was to spiritually fulfill God's covenant to Abraham in Genesis 12:3 that "all nations of the earth be blessed." This covenant was to include BOTH Jew and Gentile "through faith" (Galations 3:6-9; (Heb. 11:6). The Jews were the first to be offered the blessings of the Gospel (Acts 3:25-26) but they rejected it (Acts 13:44-49). As a result, the Gentiles were offered the "light" of the Gospel and they accepted it (Acts 13:48; 28:28). In your Bible margin next to Acts 13:48, you should see a scripture reference to Isaiah 42:6 and 49:6. Vs. 7 - This is a reference to the spiritual characteristics or qualities of the Messiah in fulfilling the purpose for which He came. He was "To open the blind eyes" (spiritually blind as well as physically blind - Isa. 29:18; 35:5; Matt. 11:5); "to bring out the prisoners from the prison" (bring out the prisoners from the prison of sin). Sin "enslaves" (Rom. 6:16-18; 22) but the Gospel "frees" us from sin (Rom. 6:18); "and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house." Isaiah 9:2 describes their spiritual condition as "people that walked in darkness" but "have seen a great light". This prophecy was fulfilled in Matt. 4:16 as Jesus began His ministry in the area around Capernaum and also as the Apostle Paul spoke to the Ephesian church (Eph. 5:8-14). We also see a similar reading of Verse 7 in Isaiah 61:1 with the fulfillment found in Luke 4:16-21 referring to the Messiah (Christ). Since Christ has "reconciled" both Jew and Gentile through His blood (Eph. 2:13), we Gentiles (along with obedient Jews) are the spiritual "offspring" or "heirs" of the promise made to Abraham (Gen. 12:3; Gal. 3:16; 26-29). 2) God is simply saying to His people, Israel, in Isaiah Chapter 42 that through the "covenant" given to Abraham (Genesis 12:3), not only His people Israel would be spiritually blessed but the Gentiles would be spiritually blessed as well (Isa. 49:6; Luke 2:32; Acts 13:46-48). In your Bible margin next to Luke 2:32, you should see scriptures references to Isaiah 9:2; 42:6; 49:6; 60:1-3; Matt. 4:16; Acts 13:47; 28:28). In Christ, all obedient children of God through faith have all spiritual blessings (Eph. 1:3-7). May the Lord continue to bless your study of His Word. Mike |
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8 | matthew 12-43 | Matthew | yokefellow | 29350 | ||
Thank you for your question concerning Matthew 12:43. You can understand verses 43-45 when you understand the overall context of what Jesus is saying beginning in vs. 38. Vs. 38 - The Jews had asked a sign "from thee" that should decisively prove that he was the Messiah, and satisfy their unbelief. He replies that, though he should give them a sign or a conclusive and satisfactory "proof", they would soon return to their former course of unbelief and wickedness and become worse and worse. Vs. 39-40 - He then states that the only "sign" they would receive was the sign of Jonah (speaking of his resurrection - which they never believed). Vs. 41-42 - Christ then gives two examples for their benefit. The men of Nineveh "repented" at the preaching of Jonah - this generation would not (vs. 39). Therefore, by their evil and adulterous actions, they would be condemned; the "queen of the south" - Sheba (1 Kings 10:1-13)came "to hear the wisdom of Solomon". She obviously was seeking a greater knowledge of God (Jehovah) - these Jews did not display this attitude and were here condemned by Jesus. Vs. 43 - Jesus here warns the Jews that the evil spirits which he had cast out would return, and if they found the man impenitent (as these Jews were), they would take possession of his heart with greater malignity than ever and would hasten him on to ruin. The unclean spirit is here represented as going "through waterless (dry) places, seeking rest, and finding none". The Jews, Arabs, and Egyptians believed that deserts were the haunts of evil spirits. Hence, the evil spirit finds habitation in the desert; it is "represented" here as a man in a fever, who in vain turns to every side for ease, but finds none. His nervous system is disorganized and cannot remain still. It is driven by restless madness. The demon, driven by divine power from the hearts of men, is pictured by Jesus as going about searching for a fit abode and restless because no human heart is found for residence. Vs. 44 - "Then he saith, I will return into my house from whence I came out". The man is called his "house" because the evil spirit had dwelt in him. "and when he is come, he findeth it empty, swept, and garnished." By the absence of the evil spirit the house is represented as unoccupied or "empty", "swept", and "garnished". In other words while the evil spirit was away, the man was restored to his right mind, or was freed from the "influence" of the evil spirit. The word "garnished" means "adorned, put in order, furnished". Applied to the man, it means that his mind was sane and normal when the evil spirit was gone. Vs. 45a - "Then goeth he, and taketh with himself seven other spirits more wicked than himself, and they enter in and dwell there" - The number "seven" represented to the Jews of that day any "finished, perfect, or complete" number. The evil spirit will not reenter a man weak and alone; he will take with him a strong reinforcement so as not again to be ejected. Vs. 45b - "and the last state of that man is worse than the first" - This statement seems to indicate that there are different "degrees" of depravity among demons as well as among men; they are worse after having returned, and the man into whom the reenter is "sevenfold" worse. Vs. 45c - "Even so shall it be also unto this wicked generation" - These words show Jesus' application of the parable; we can now say so it "was with that generation" (vs. 39). This parable refers to not merely to verses 38-45, but to the whole narrative (verses 22-42) which was occasioned by the miracle in verse 22. To summarize the above: There were evil spirits in the days of Jesus who took possession of men's minds (hearts). When Jesus cast them out, they were supposed to inhabit dry desert places (vs. 43). When the demons did not find rest in those places, they wanted to once again inhabit the "house" (or mind) that Jesus had cast them out of. This evil spirit returns to the same mind finding it unoccupied with a "good spirit". He enters the man's mind and takes with him "seven" other spirits more wicked than himself, and the "last state" of that man is worse than the first because he did not "fill" his heart with "good" when the "evil" was cast out. Jesus said, "Even so shall it be also unto this wicked generation." The Jews he was speaking to (and those of like mind) would be the "worse" for having known and rejected Jesus. This same principle applies to men today. If we know God's truth (John 17:17), and fail to practice and obey it (James 1:23-25; Romans 6:17), the heart (mind) is hardened (Hebrews 3:13). We are the "worse" for having known it (2 Peter 2:20-22). The gospel of Christ presents to believers eternal life. Rejection of that gospel will result in eternal death or damnation (2 Thess. 1:7-10). Mike |
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9 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | yokefellow | 30307 | ||
Hello Art, Your analysis of the parable of the prodigal son is correct. The key to the parable is the passage that you quoted in Luke 15:24, "For this my son was dead, and is alive again; he was lost, and is found." The "once saved always saved" doctrine is a false teaching brought down from John Calvin. Calvin was born in 1509. At the age of fourteen, he went to Paris to study the classics. He was so austere that his fellow students nicknamed him “The Accusative Case.” In 1529, he commenced the study of civil law. Presently, though, Calvin became intrigued with the teachings of the German reformers and so gave himself to the study of religion. To a significant degree, Calvin’s views, which were developed from the writings of Augustine – a “bishop” in northern Africa (A.D. 353-430), have formed the doctrinal basis of much of modern Protestantism. His ideas are circulated in several denominations, and, tragically, have found their way into the thinking many people. One of Calvin’s prominent errors was the notion that man is born totally depraved, having inherited both the effects and the guilt of Adam’s original sin. Even infants, therefore, have in them the seed of sin; indeed, their whole nature is a sort of a sin-seed, so that they cannot be anything other than corrupt before God hence all men stand in need of the Lord’s grace. From this fundamental error others spring. Limited Grace One of the corner-stones of Calvin’s theology was the dogma of predestination. This is the notion that, consistent with his own sovereignty, God, before the foundation of the world, pre-determined who would be saved and who would be lost. In view of this, when Christ died, his death was efficacious only for the “elect.” This concept of “limited atonement,” hence, limited grace, is so foreign to the teaching of the Scriptures that it is difficult to see how anyone with an elementary knowledge of the New Testament could accept it. Hear the testimony of Paul: “For the grace of God hath appeared, bringing salvation to all men . . .” (Tit. 2:11). Because God loved the entire world (Jn. 3:16), and so, wants all men to be saved (1 Tim. 2:4), and not a single one to perish (2 Pet. 3:9), Christ died to be the propitiation for sins – not just for the “elect,” but potentially for the entire world as well (1 Jn. 2:2). Irresistible grace Calvinism argues that by a secret and special operation of the Holy Spirit, God’s grace is poured forth upon the elect. Since the extension of this grace is an act of divine power, it cannot be resisted – any more than the original creation could have resisted the creative might of the Lord. But the fact is, though God’s grace is generously offered, it must be received by the sinner. "We then, as workers together with him, beseech you also that ye receive not the grace of God in vain" (2 Cor. 6:1). It is certainly possible to “receive not” that which is offered (John 1:11). Unconditional grace Calvinists argue that grace is given to the elect unconditionally. If such is the case, then there is absolutely nothing that one must do in order to receive salvation – not even believe. Paul declares that we have “access by faith into this grace” (Rom. 5:2). In his discussion of grace in Titus 3, the inspired apostle states that God, “according to his mercy, saved us through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit . . . being justified by his grace” (5-7). Paul equates being saved by the washing of regeneration with being justified by grace. The “washing” is an allusion to man’s response to God by submitting to baptism. Grace is supplied by the Lord – independent of any merit on our part. Clearly, though, the “washing of regeneration” is a condition of our redemption. But is that expression an allusion to baptism? Even Calvin admitted that he had “no doubt’ that Paul was alluding to baptism – though he denied the connection between baptism and salvation. Irrevocable grace Calvin maintained that the elect could be certain that God would never allow them to fall away from the faith. They would thus persevere unto the end. A sizable segment of Protestantism has adopted the doctrine to some degree or another. But the New Testament teaches otherwise. A child of God can fall from grace (Gal. 5:4), or fail, i.e., fall back from, the Lord’s favor (Heb. 12:15 - ASV). It is possible to deny the Master who bought you and so be destroyed (2 Pet. 2:1). Thus, we must keep ourselves in God’s love (Jude 21), and give diligence to make our calling and election sure (2 Pet. 1:10), lest our reception of divine grace be in vain (2 Cor. 6:1). Conclusion: While we acknowledge that John Calvin taught some truth, we must also recognize that he advocated much error, and that error must be rejected. May the Lord bless you as you continue to study His Word and make application of it. Mike |
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10 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | yokefellow | 30335 | ||
Joe, 1. Fortunately, the church of our Lord that He established (Matt. 16:18-19) "suddenly" sprang up in A.D. 33 on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2) - not 200 years ago as you declare The church of my Lord is a "spiritual" institution (John 18:36) - not a physical one set up by man and his dogmas, creeds, philosophies, etc. Daniel foretold the establishment of that "spiritual" kingdom (the church) in Daniel 2:31-44. In fact, the church was in the mind of God BEFORE the foundation of the world (Eph 1:3-5; 1 Pet. 1:20) so I believe that's a little before "200 years ago". 2. If the doctrine of depravity and original sin were true then Christ must have been mistaken when He said in Matt. 18:3, "Verily I say unto you, Except ye be converted, and become as little children, ye shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven." It's obvious that if a little child can enter into the kingdom of heaven, he must be "sinless" for I read that those who are "sinful" will not enter into that kingdom (Revelation 21:27). You cannot argue over what the scriptures clearly teach because God's Word never changes - you can, however, point out what the scriptures do not teach and that's what I've done. By the way, I don't believe in arguing - it doesn't get you anywhere, is not productive, and wastes a whole lot of time! Mike |
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11 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | yokefellow | 30339 | ||
Art, I don't do labels either! Believe me, my intention of communicating with you was NEVER to call your ideas "Calvanistic". I was just simply pointing out to you where much of the false denominational teaching comes from - John Calvin - and to present some of the views he taught. I agree with you 100 percent that our faith needs to based on making what (quoting you), "I see to be to only conclusion possible based on the entire Bible." You are correct in your reasoning. In our study of the Bible, the only "correct" reasoning is harmonizing our reasoning with God's reasoning (Isaiah 1:18) in order to come to a proper understand of His Word. Using any other method is "false" reasoning. May the Lord richly bless us as we continue to study His Word (2 Tim. 2:15). Mike |
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12 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | yokefellow | 30364 | ||
Dear Joe, You stated, "if you don't like healthy debate, you have found the wrong forum." In the Webster's New World College Dictionary, I find the word "forum" with the following meanings: (a) "an assembly, place, radio program, etc. for the discussion of public matters or current questions (b) an opportunity for open discussion. I don't see anything in this definition concerning "debate" do you? I further do not see in this definition anything regarding a "healthy debate" do you? Besides, how can you possibly "debate" the scriptures if you believe 2 Tim. 3:16? They are "given by inspiration of God." If the truth of the scriptures is "given by inspiration of God", how can God's Word be debated? (Unless you want to "change" God's Word which is strictly forbidden - Deut. 4:2; 12:32; Prov. 30:5-6; Gal. 1:6-9). The only "debate" that could possibly occur is a "debate" over what's NOT in God's Word. Wouldn't that be a more "logical" conclusion? Any time the word "debate" is used in the scriptures, it ALWAYS refers to Greek words whose meanings refer to "STRIFE". I'm quoting from W.E. Vine's Expository Dictionary Of Old and New Testament Words, Page 82. 1) ERIS means - strife, contention, is the expression of enmity (Rom. 1:29, R.V., "strife" (A.V., "debate"); Rom. 13:13; 1 Cor. 1:11, "contentions" (R.V. and A.V.); 1 Cor. 3:3; 2 Cor. 12:20, R.V., "strife" (A.V., "debates"); Gal. 5:20, R.V., "strife" (A.V., "variance"; Phil. 1:15; 1 Tim. 6:4; Tit. 3:9, R.V., "strifes" (A.V., "contentions"). 2) ERITHIA - see FACTION. 3) ANTILOGIA - "strife," Heb. 6:16, A.V.: see DISPUTE, A, No. 4. 4) MACHE - "strifes," 2 Tim. 2:23: see FIGHTING, A. 5) PHILONEIKIA - "strife," Luke 22:24, A.V.: see CONTENTION, A, No. 3. 6) LOGOMACHIA - "strife of words", 1 Tim. 6:4: see DISPUTE, A, No. 2. Now, considering the above "quote", my question then to you is, why would a Christian want to engender or promote "STRIFE" on this "forum" or anywhere else for that matter? I would rather believe Mr. Webster's definition that this "forum" should be for the purpose of "learning" through an opportunity of "open discussion". This type of "forum" would allow students of the Bible to freely, rationally and logically ask concerning any type of Bible question, "What do the scriptures say concerning the answer to this question?" and then receive a "Bible answer" rather than giving someone's opinion, idea, philosophy, dogma, creed. A true Bible student doesn't care what someone's opinion, idea, philosophy, dogma, or creed is - their only objective is discovering what God's Word says on a matter - period! Why can't that be the simple criteria of discussion on this forum rather than stirring up strife among individuals? Mike |
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13 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | yokefellow | 30369 | ||
Dear Discipled, Wow, I actually found someone on this forum that agrees with me on something that I presented! Thanks for the compliment! I appreciate anyone willing to have a open mind and do as the noble Berean Jews did in Acts 17:11. Your question, "Can we outsin grace?" and your answer, "no we can't" is exactly the thought the inspired Apostle had in mind in Romans 6:1. "Shall we continue in sin that grace may abound?" vs. 2 - "God forbid" - literally, "May it never be". Thanks again and may the Lord bless you richly in the studying of His Word. Mike |
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14 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | yokefellow | 30377 | ||
Joe, To the true Bible student (and we all are), the only "creed book" should be God's Word - not any human uninspired teaching will suffice - after all, one's eternal destiny hangs in the balance! This is why that we as Bible students are commanded to "Study (give diligence to) to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth (2 Timothy 2:15). Human teachings can NEVER take the place of God's Word because they are simply uninspired teachings. The very next verse in this reading indicates that very thing - notice: Vs. 16 - "But shun profane and vain babblings: for they will increase unto more ungodliness." This verse is teaching that everything NOT commanded by God in the scriptures may safely be placed under this head. It refers to profane (common) and empty questions asked that caused division and strife. These types of questions were to be shunned. Vs. 17 - The word "canker" here in this verse is translated "gangrene". As you well know, gangrene poisons the whole body and quickly becomes fatal. So does the introduction of things NOT taught by God - the doctrines of men. These doctrines spread rapidly, corrupt the whole church till spiritual death ensues. Error is a diffusive poison rapidly spreading through the whole body and tending to vital decay and ultimate destruction (in this case, the soul). Hymenaeus and Philetus obviously fell into this category. Vs. 18 - "Who concerning the truth have erred". When we give sway or lend credence to men's teachings rather than seeing what God's Word says on a matter, we have "erred" in our conclusion and God will hold us accountable on that final judgment day (John 12:48). Notice also 1 Tim. 6:20-21. All I'm simply asking is for folks to simply display the same open mind and determination as the Berean Jews did in "searching the scriptures daily, whether those things were so." What were "those things" - the "things" that Paul and Silas were teaching concerning God's Word (Acts 17:10). As a result of their "searching the scriptures", in verse 12 it says, "Therefore many of them believed." Believe what? Believed the inspired teaching of Paul and Silas. Mike |
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15 | Are all servants? | Mark 9:35 | yokefellow | 29542 | ||
Charis, Thank you for your questions. Here are your answers by scripture: 1) "Are all servants?" - Yes - (Romans 6:18, 22; 1 Corinthians 9:19-23). 2) "Where do we serve?" - We serve in the "kingdom" of our Lord (Colossians 1:13; 4:11; 1 Thess. 2:12; 2 Timothy 2:12; Revelation 1:9). 3) "Who do we serve?" - We serve God (Acts 27:23; Romans 1:9; 2 Timothy 1:3; Hebrews 9:14; 12:28; Revelation 7:15; 22:3). |
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16 | 'Practical' service? | Mark 9:35 | yokefellow | 29616 | ||
Charis, I appreciate your response, however, in my previous posting, I gave you scriptural answers to the specific questions YOU ASKED! I'm afraid that I'm not into philosophical ideolgies when it comes to God's Word. If that's what you're looking for you might want to allow someone else to answer them. I'm only interested in a "thus saith the Lord" and in following the principle found in 1 Peter 4:11 when answering questions pertaining to the scriptures. To follow any other method would be spiritual suicide (Gal. 1:6-9). With the above in mind, let me address your present questions: 1) "Where does the Bible tell us that we all must serve?" Christ stated in John 12:26, "If any man serve me, let him follow me". The phrase, "any man" means exactly what it says. John tells us in Rev. 1:5 that Christ is "the prince of the kings of the earth". He is "Lord of lords, and King of kings" (Rev. 17:14). We are "kings and priests" in His kingdom (Rev. 1:6,9). His kingdom is a spiritual kingdom (John 18:36) or "spiritual house" (1 Pet. 2:5) "built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone" (Eph. 2:20-22). His spiritual kingdom and His church are one and the same (Matt. 16:18-19). This is the kingdom (church) that He purchased and died for (Acts 20:28). He is the head of the church (kingdom) - his body (Eph. 1:22-23) and believers are members of it (Acts 2:47; 5:14; Eph. 5:30). We as "priests" in His kingdom must offer up spiritual sacrifices to God (1 Peter 2:5), sacrifices of praise, the fruit of lips (Heb. 13:15), having first presented our bodies as "a living sacrifice", holy and acceptable to Him (Rom. 12:1). This sounds like something a "servant" would do, doesn't it you? 2) "Where do Christians serve in the here and now?" Specific areas of service would be: (1) Evangelization (Matt. 28:19-20; Mark 16:15); Benevolence (Matt. 25:35-36; Rom. 12:13; 2 Cor. 8; Gal. 6:10; James 1:27; 2:15-17; 1 John 3:17-18); Edification (Acts 2:42; 1 Cor. 14:26; 2 Cor. 12:19; Col. 3:16; Heb. 10:24-25). 3) "Do we serve only God?". We serve God, Christ, and the Holy Spirit because all three persons of the Godhead testify to the validity of the Word (1 John 5:1-10) that we (servants and priests) are to obey (Matt. 7:21; Rom. 6:16-18; James 1:22) and to "hold fast" to (2 Tim. 1:13; Titus 1:9; Heb. 10:23). When we "obey" God's Word, the Holy Spirit "beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God" (Rom. 8:16). If we "disobey" God's Word, that Word will judge us in the last day (John 12:48). One last thought. In order to serve God "acceptably", we must serve Him "with reverence and godly fear" (Heb. 12:28) or we will suffer the consequences (Heb. 12:29). This answer is about as "in-depth" as I can give. I pray that this answer will be scripturally sufficient for you. Mike |
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17 | 'Practical' service? | Mark 9:35 | yokefellow | 29645 | ||
Dear Charis, Thanks again for your kind response! I'm sorry if I sounded too abrupt in my previous posting but there are people (as you well know) who have a hidden "agenda". They are not sincerely seeking answers from God's Word but live simply to stir up strife and contention. These are folks who already have an answer in their minds before they ask their question but want you to support their answer whether or not it is supported or authorized by God's Word or not. Then they get angry at you for not supporting it! The Pharisees that Jesus dealt with were of like character. These folks have "closed" minds - not "open" minds as we must have in order to attain the kingdom of heaven (Matt. 18:1-4). I now realize that you are not one of those types of people and I appreciate your honesty and sincerity. 1) Let me now address your question concerning commitment, responsibility, and orderliness. These Christian characteristics can all be summed up in one word - "faithfulness". As you well know, if God demands anything, it is "faithful" service (Matt. 25:21; Luke 12:42; 16:10; 19:17; Acts 16:15; 1 Cor. 4:2; 4:17; 1 Tim. 1:12) even in the face of death (Rev. 2:10). The word, "faithful", is mentioned 82 times in 78 verses in the Bible. Anything repeated more than once in God's Word is VERY important and needs to be heeded by God's people. Faithfulness must therefore be important to God. We cannot adequately serve God without being "faithful" to Him and His Word. In fact, if you turn that word around, it simply means "full of faith". We know that faith comes from hearing God's Word (Romans 10:17) and that "without faith it is impossible to please him" (Heb. 11:6). 2) You asked, "Do we not also serve God by serving His church, His body?". The answer of course is YES because that's exactly what the scriptures teach. I will also agree with your statement, "Our portrayal of the Gospel to the lost and to the saints is a form of service, too" because that is what the scriptures teach. Patience is not one of my greatest virtues but I'm working on it! I sincerely appreciate your patience with me! May the Lord continue to bless us as we study and make application of His Word. Mike |
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18 | Is 'once saved always saved correct? | John 6:37 | yokefellow | 31316 | ||
Ka Lynn, Thank you for your desire to study the Bible and see what God has to say about a matter (Acts 17:11). When we look at the doctrine of "once saved always saved" we need to first ask ourselves, "Is this phrase located anywhere in the Bible"? Get a Young's or Strong's concordance and look up the word "once" and see if that phrase is located anywhere in the Bible. If it is not - then we need to reject the doctrine - it's not a teaching of God's Word. Now, after saying that we see that as a result of your study of Heb. 6:4-6 and 10:26-31, you came to the conclusion that we can loose our salvation if we turn from God. Your question was, "Is this correct?" The answer you received through your study of God's Word was "YES", a Christian CAN loose his salvation IF we turn from God (Heb. 6:4-6; 10:26-31); and other passages as well (Numbers 15:30-31; Deut. 17:9-13). Let's examine the scriptures that Lionstrong (who gave you an opposing answer) quoted from John 6:37-40 as his "proof" of the doctrine "once saved always saved". (In other words, you can't "loose" your salvation no matter how much you sin). Let's see if he's correct in his interpretation. Remember, one of the rules of correct interpretation of the Bible is to include the "total" body of scripture in your interpretation (Psa. 119:160; 139:17; Matt. 4:4; 2 Tim. 3:16). 1) Vs. 37a - "All that the Father giveth me shall come to me" - There is a recognition in the scripture that is a certain "class" of people with honest hearts desirous to know and to do God's Will. This "class" (those who are obedient) of people is here represented as given to Christ by God. In the tenth chapter, Christ speaks of having sheep not of the flock then with him (John 10:16), referring to the Gentiles who would receive him when His Gospel was preached to them (Eph. 3:6). Again, at Corinth God told Paul, "I have much people in this city" (Acts 18:9-10). This statement was made BEFORE any of them had confessed and rendered obedience to Him. Some of the Corinthians had already rendered obedience to the word of God (Acts 18:7-8). God has called and predestinated (2 Thess. 2:14; Rom. 8:29-30; Eph. 1:4-5) to eternal life the "class" of people who display a "willing" mind in being "obedient" to His Will (Matt. 7:21; Rom. 6:17). 2) Vs. 37b - "and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out." - All that "class" (the obedient) Jesus receives. Some who are of this "class" are obedient only for a "temporary" period of time (Judas who betrayed our Lord is an example of this type of character - Matt. 13:20-21). Christ will "in no wise cast out" those who are obedient and who continue to remain obedient and faithful) to His Gospel (Matt. 24:13; Rev. 2:10). 3) Vs. 38 - "For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me." - The end of all God's dealings with men is to bring them to DO the will of God. Jesus came down from heaven to earth to lead men in this way. He had no will of his own (his own agenda) apart from the will of his Father (Note Jn. 4:34; 5:30). To accomplish his Father's will was the supreme and only object of Jesus and should be the exact same object of his followers. 4) Vs. 39 - "And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day." - God's will was that Jesus should save all who would believe and follow him (be obedient to his will)(Rom. 2:4; 1 Tim. 2:4; 2 Peter 3:9). However, like Judas, some people start out to follow the Lord's teachings and render obedience to his teachings but when persecutions and trials begin to "test" their "faithfulness" to the Lord, they turn back to the ways of the world, and walk with him no more (Matt. 13:20-21); also note Demas (2 Tim. 4:10). 5) Vs. 40 - "And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day." - It is God's will that all who will OBEY Jesus (John 15:7-10) should have eternal life (1 John 5:1-13). These Jesus will raise up at the last day (judgment day - 1 Thess. 4:14-16). The obedient "class" of people have the spiritual insight and faculties to "see" and "believe" (Matt. 13:10-16; Mark 4:11-12) God's Truth that He presents to them through the saving Gospel of His Son, Jesus (Rom. 1:16). If people refuse or reject that saving Gospel (Acts 28:23-27), they will be eternally lost (Rom. 2:1-11; 2 Thess. 1:8-9). May the Lord richly bless you as you continue to study His Word! Mike |
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19 | Is 'once saved always saved correct? | John 6:37 | yokefellow | 31350 | ||
Joe, 1) First of all, I never said that the word "class" was in the Bible. I simply asked her to go to a concordance and try to find the phrase, "once saved always saved". You cannot find it - it's simply not there. 2) Secondly, in Webster's New World College Dictionary, the following definition is "one" of the meanings of the word "class": "A number of people or things grouped together because of certain likenesses or common traits; kind; sort; category." The word "predestinate" means "to set bounds before, determine, decree or ordain beforehand". It is important to understand that God can "foreknow" how men would react to His will without "forcing" His will upon us. It is easy for us to forget that time is not a factor with God. God "foreknew" or approved of the "type" or "class" or "kind" or "category" of persons He planned to save --- the obedient (Rom. 6:17)! God through His prophet, Samuel, told Saul that "obedience" was priority number one (1 Samuel 15:22) in his day and God still hasn't changed His mind (Matt. 7:21; James 1:22, 25). Foreordination does not refer to a certain "person" (God doesn't "choose" John to be saved but Mary will be lost - if He did that, He would be a respecter of persons - which He is not - Acts 10:34; Rom. 2:11; Eph. 6:9) but "kind" of person with a certain "kind" of character (See Ephesians 1:4-13). Before man was created God "foresaw" his fall, and designed the Gospel for his redemption; this fact is well attested by scripture (Rom. 16:25-26; 1 Cor. 2:7; Eph. 1:8; 3:9; Col. 1:25-26). God "foreknew" that a certain "type" or "class" or "kind" or "category" of people yet to be born would "accept" a salvation yet to be provided through the terms of the Gospel yet to be made actual. Man would never know anything about God's Son unless we had been "called" by the Gospel (2 Thess. 2:14). When man is "obedient" from the heart to that call of the Gospel (Rom. 6:17), he is justified from the guilt of sin (Acts 22:16; Rom. 6:18; 1 Pet. 3:21). 3) Thirdly, when a person asks a sincere Bible question either on this forum (or anywhere else), I as a Christian, am required to answer it by scripture (Col. 4:6; 2 Tim. 2:25; 1 Peter 3:15; 4:11). Since you obviously disagree with the answer that I responded with, you as a fellow Christian should correct me with proper scripture so that I might know where I my error is (2 Tim. 2:22-26) so that I might have a correct knowledge of God's Truth. I answered this lady's Bible question to the best of my Bible knowledge and ability. If I have failed, then I will certainly ask her and God to forgive me and give the matter further study. As of this point in time, she has not responded in kind. Mike |
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20 | Is 'once saved always saved correct? | John 6:37 | yokefellow | 31416 | ||
Joe, Let me please ask you five questions: 1) Did Judas still have his "eternal security" or salvation when he betrayed the Lord? (Matt. 26:14-16; 27:3-5; Acts 1:18) or did he "loose" his salvation when he "went and hanged himself."? 2) Did Demas (2 Tim. 4:10) continue to maintain his state of "eternal security" or salvation when he forsook Paul "having loved this present world"? 1 John 2:15-17 continues with the idea of "forsaking" the Lord by loving the world and the things that are in the world. 3) If our salvation is "protected" as you stated, ("Who protects us for our salvation?"), why in the world did Matthew, Luke, and Paul record those events by inspiration of the Holy Spirit? 4) If our salvation is "eternally secure" and can never be taken away from us because Christ has already forgiven our sins, past, present and future, then why did Christ tell those folks who "thought" they were sincere in their beliefs to "depart from me, ye that work iniquity."? (Matt. 7:21-23). Christ gives the answer in Vs. 24 - "Therefore whosoever heareth these sayings of mine and doeth them, I will liken him unto a wise man, which built his house upon a rock." Conversely, Vs. 26 and 27 state, "And every one that heareth these sayings of mine and doeth them not shall be likened unto a foolish man, which built his house upon the sand: And the rain descended, and the floods cme, and the winds blew, and beat upon that house; AND IT FELL: (emphasis mine) and great was the fall of it." Now, I'm just an ole ignorant farm boy - grew up on a farm with chickens, horses, cows, and pigs; I can just barely see through a screen door but I can see Christ's analogy very clearly here. If a person builds his faith upon the Lord's teaching and "does" what His teaching directs him to "do", he has built his faith upon a "rock". He is "safe" or in a saved condition and will stand approved of God in the day of judgment (Matt. 25:34) and will definitely receive an eternal inheritance (1 Pet. 1:4) and salvation (1 Pet. 1:9). However, if I am like the "foolish man" who built his house upon the sand (vs. 26) and "rejects" the Lord's teaching "does not do" what the Lord's teaching directs him to "do", vs. 27 tells me that he will "fall" ("and it fell"). This illustration of Jesus clearly makes its own impression. He who hears the words of Jesus, and does them, is "safe" or "saved" from eternal condemnation; unlike those who "reject" the words of Jesus (Matt. 25:40-41; 45-46). He who simply "hears", and does not "do", is doomed to "fail" of salvation, and be condemned to "everlasting fire" (Matt. 25:41) and "everlasting punishment" (Matt. 25:46). 5) If our past, present and future sins have "already" been forgiven and our salvation "eternally secured", why would the inspired writer John in 1 John 1:6-9 ask believers to continually "confess our sins" (vs. 9)? If God has for all time "forgiven" us of our sins, I can't for the life of me understand why the Holy Spirit through John put these words in the New Testament. It's so confusing to me - don't understand it at all. I would appreciate it if you would enlighten me as to the reason. Mike |
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