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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: koscheiman Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | moses married how many times | Bible general Archive 3 | koscheiman | 173735 | ||
twice. | ||||||
2 | moses married how many times | Bible general Archive 3 | koscheiman | 173769 | ||
Exodus 2:21 Numbers 12:1 |
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3 | The Law of Moses has been abrogated | Matt 5:17 | koscheiman | 172527 | ||
Many when reading Matt 5:17 believe that the law of Moses is still in force because of these verses, but what exactly do they say? Think not that the purpose I came for was to abolish or abrogate the Law or the prophets but rather He came to fulfill. Did Christ fulfill the Law? Yes He did in two ways. 1. By fulfilling all prophecy pertaining to Him 2. By living a perfect life according to the Law Because of this fulfillment or accomplisment the Law of Moses (all the Law including the 10 commandments) have been abrogated. The verse following this one states that not one jot or tittle will pass away till all be fulfilled or accomplished. |
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4 | The Law of Moses has been abrogated | Matt 5:17 | koscheiman | 173134 | ||
I must disagree with Matthew Henry's commentary on Matthew 5:17f. The book of Hebrews informs us that the old law is no longer in effect with the change of preisthood there was a change of law (Hebrews 7:12). Paul says the old law was nailed to yhe cross (Colossians 2:14) and we are dead (separated) to the law (Romans 7:4f). When Christ fulfilled the law and the prophets they were no longer in force. The old covenant (or law) was replaced by the new covenant and the law of Christ. | ||||||
5 | The Law of Moses has been abrogated | Matt 5:17 | koscheiman | 173183 | ||
All OT law has been abrogated. I do not worship ido;s because the NT says there is one God; I do not murder for the NT says this is wrong; I do not commit adultery because Jesus taught it was wrong. I do not sacrifice animals; I do not keep the Passover; etc. These were all shadws of things to come and have been replaced. | ||||||
6 | The Law of Moses has been abrogated | Matt 5:17 | koscheiman | 173184 | ||
No you cannot because it is no longer in force. | ||||||
7 | Can you break the OT Law? | Matt 5:17 | koscheiman | 173187 | ||
If you wish to keep any part of the Law you must keep it all! Galatians 3:10 | ||||||
8 | Is "Paradise" the same as heaven? | Luke 23:43 | koscheiman | 172869 | ||
Paradise was a part of Hades. Hades being divided into two compartments, Tartarus and Paradise or Abraham's Bosom, separated by a fixed gulf. | ||||||
9 | what happens after death | Luke 23:43 | koscheiman | 172871 | ||
According to Luke 16 after death man's spirit goes to one of two places in Hades. The righteous go to Abraham's bosom, also called Paradise in Luke 24, and the wicked go to Tartarus. | ||||||
10 | Is "Paradise" the same as heaven? | Luke 23:43 | koscheiman | 172890 | ||
Hell and Hades are not the same thing. Jesus said, "Truly I say to you, today you shall be with Me in Paradise" Luke 23:43. Now we know that Paradise here is not a reference to heaven because He said to Mary, "Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father..." John 20:17. | ||||||
11 | Is "Paradise" the same as heaven? | Luke 23:43 | koscheiman | 172930 | ||
My point was quite clear according to Scripture Jesus went to Paradise also according to Scripture at the time of His resurection He had not ascended back to the Father. The conclusion Jesus went to Paradise but not to heaven where he Father was. Therefore Paradise in the Scripture in Luke is not referring to heaven. The KJV says Jesus went to Hell this is a mistranslation of the Greek the proper term is Hades. | ||||||
12 | However, after Jesus finished His work o | Luke 23:43 | koscheiman | 172931 | ||
Not true. Heaven is where the faithful go after the second resurrection and the judgment. | ||||||
13 | Is "Paradise" the same as heaven? | Luke 23:43 | koscheiman | 172959 | ||
And he said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To-day shalt thou be with me in Paradise. (Luke 23:43) Jesus saith to her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended unto the Father: but go unto my brethren, and say to them, I ascend unto my Father and your Father, and my God and your God. (John 20:17) These are the two Scriptures I mentioned in my post. As you can see in the Scripture in John Jesus had not as yet ascended to the Father yet He had already been to Paradise as of Luke's Scripture. Aparently here Paradise does not refer to heaven. |
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14 | Is "Paradise" the same as heaven? | Luke 23:43 | koscheiman | 173002 | ||
Hades and Hell are not the same place. | ||||||
15 | Is "Paradise" the same as heaven? | Luke 23:43 | koscheiman | 173004 | ||
What do you not understand? One Scripture said Jesus and the thief went to Paradise "today" i.e., the Friday of their deaths. The other Scripture which is on the day of Christ resurrection (Sunday) Jesus told Mary He had not gone to the Father as of yet. So if He went to Paradise on Friday Resurrected on Sunday but as yet had not been to the Father then the reference to Paradise in Luke is not where the Father is (heaven) You would do well to go to the following website and read http://www.mwchurchofchrist.com/pages/articles/aftdeath.htm |
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16 | However, after Jesus finished His work o | Luke 23:43 | koscheiman | 173014 | ||
In the Apocalypse (the book of Revelation) everything is written in signs (Revelation 1:1) so when John says he "saw a new heaven and a new earth...and there is no longer any sea" this is figurative language. "The new conditions did not signify abolition of the old order of governments, nor the formation of new secular and political powers. The EARTH thru-out the apocalypse referred to the place of nations, with particular reference to Palestine; and the placid or tossed SEA referred to the state of society; and the word HEAVEN denoted the existing authorities of government. The new heaven and the new earth, and the troubled sea, having passed away and represented as no more, indicated the changed conditions within the existing government and society to make them favorable for the prosperity of the cause of Christ and His church thru-out the empire. The old system of Judaism had been removed and the opposition of heathenism had been overcome; and the vision represented new conditions to surround the church in the changed world." (from The Book of Revelation by Wallace). In 2 Peter 3:13 we have the following "But, according to his promise, we look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness." Here we have the following meaning, "The future state of the saved will be spiritual, hence the only way man can be given a foresight of it is by likening it to what he understands and enjoys while living in a material home. The present abode is on the earth with its two heavens, the atmosphere and the starry region. Genesis 1:14-16 says the heavenly hosts were made to give light upon the earth, hence it is proper to mention those heavens in connection with the earth when referring to the home of mankind. But while the form of language is based upon mans present abode, in reality his eternal home will be spritual and one wherin shall dwell righteousness." E.M. Zerr Peter says this present heaven and earth "by the same word have been stored up for fire" and "But the day of the Lord will come as a thief; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall be dissolved with fervent heat, and the earth and the works that are therein shall be burned up." Hebrews 1:3 states that Christ is "upholding all things by the word of his power" when He withdraws that word the elements will literally come apart at the atomic level thus liqufing in fervent heat the old universe that now exists and the saved will go to their heavenly home and praise God day in and day out. |
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17 | Is "Paradise" the same as heaven? | Luke 23:43 | koscheiman | 173186 | ||
Mark says it was the day before the Sabbayh that happens to be Friday And when even was now come, because it was the Preparation, that is, the day before the sabbath, there came Joseph of Arimathaea, a councillor of honorable estate, who also himself was looking for the kingdom of God; and he boldly went in unto Pilate, and asked for the body of Jesus. (Mark 15:42-43) |
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18 | However, after Jesus finished His work o | Luke 23:43 | koscheiman | 173188 | ||
The book of Revelation specifically says it is not literal. The fact that it is an apocalypse makes that obvious. | ||||||
19 | Is "Paradise" the same as heaven? | Luke 23:43 | koscheiman | 173199 | ||
No you are quite wrong the Sabbath is singular referring to the one Sabbath which also happened to be Passover. | ||||||
20 | Is "Paradise" the same as heaven? | Luke 23:43 | koscheiman | 173200 | ||
No where in Scripture does it say Christ was in the Grave 72 hours. Perhaps you need to learn the concept of synecdoche in which a part represents a whole. The Jewish people used this figure of speech all the time. B. Literally 3 days and 3 nights equals 72 Hours impossible! Those who insist that we must literally interpret 3 days and 3 nights equals 72 Hours "It is the sign of Jonah" they say, have not understood that it is impossible to harmonize LITERALLY all the data. If Jesus was resurrected If he rose AFTER the third day, after 72 hours, then all the above verses would read on the FOURTH day. "On the third day" vs. "after three days" are literally quite different: If Jesus raised literally "on the third day", then the third day was not yet over, it is literally less than 72 hours. If Jesus raised literally "after three days", then Jesus would have risen sometime literally after 72 hours. But this would be ON THE FOURTH DAY. Notice that the chief priests and Pharisees wanted the tomb guarded only until the third day, because that is when the resurrection was to occur, NOT on the fourth day! And remember, the watch at the tomb began at the end of the seventh day Sabbath, so that it could be guarded for all of the third day, which Sabbatarians say is Saturday. It was at the end of the duration of 3 days, using their own literalness, that guards STOPPED guarding the tomb. This proves that Jesus was going to raise before, not AFTER 72 hours had elapsed! Since we have irrefutable Bible evidence that 3 days and 3 nights may in fact be literally less than 72 hours or 3 days and 2 nights or 3 nights and 2 days (Cornelius: Acts 10:3,9, 23,24,30; Starving servant: 1 Sam. 30:12,13; Queen Esther 4:16; 5:1) we must call into question the literal length of time Jonah was in the sea monster!!! In light of the Bible passages, how can we be sure that Jonah was literally (Roman time thinking) 72 hours in the sea monster??? We come full circle to the well established point that the Jews would have viewed Friday 3 PM to Sunday 6 AM as being 3 days and 3 nights! http://www.bible.ca/d-3-days-and-3-nights.htm |
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