Results 1 - 20 of 39
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: dodoy Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is Salvation lump sum? | Not Specified | dodoy | 219944 | ||
It appears that the Bible uses different tenses for salvation (All verses are from NASB): 1. "have been saved" Romans 8:24 For in hope we have been saved, but hope that is seen is not hope; for why does one also hope for what he sees? Ephesians 2:8 For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; 2. "are being saved" 1 Corinthians 1:18 For the word of the cross is to those who are perishing foolishness, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God. 2 Corinthians 2:15 For we are a fragrance of Christ to God among those who are being saved and among those who are perishing; 3. "shall be saved" Matthew 24:13 "But the one who endures to the end, he shall be saved. Romans 5:9-10 9 Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from the wrath of God through Him. 10 For if while we were enemies, we were reconciled to God through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved by His life. Does it follow that if a person "has been saved" he is also "being saved" and "shall be saved" likewise? |
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2 | Is there a reason to debate? | Bible general Archive 4 | dodoy | 219927 | ||
Merry Christmas, too, John. I fully agree with Hank we ought to keep our mouths shut where the Bible is silent. Sorry, but I understand it to also mean we ought to keep our mouths open where the Bible is not silent. dodoy |
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3 | Is there a reason to debate? | Bible general Archive 4 | dodoy | 219932 | ||
A blissful day to you, John. Indeed to discuss about Christ is to admit that the Bible is not silent about it. By emphasizing the word "only", I may have misread you, but it seems you noticed something in our discussions as going out of bounds with what the Scriptures say. Please, Brother, new as I am here in the forum, I honestly believe we all here are not like Cain, who refused to be his brother's keeper. Would you mind telling us, or me directly, what is it in our discussions of Christ's death and resurrection that seems to be out of bounds with the Bible? I would greatly appreciate it. dodoy |
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4 | Is there a reason to debate? | Bible general Archive 4 | dodoy | 219934 | ||
Merry Christmas, Dhaniei; I write this note to say sorry, for having misspelled your name for quite sometime (I wrote it wrongly as Dhaniel). I just realized it now. dodoy |
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5 | Is there a reason to debate? | Bible general Archive 4 | dodoy | 219943 | ||
John, Your note to Dhaniei says in part: "One thing that is perfectly clear is: Jesus rose on the first day of the week (Mark 16:1-2, 16:9)!". You quoted Mark 16:9 which contains the phrase "first day of the week". This phrase is translated from the Greek phrase "protei sabbatou". This Greek word "sabbatou" is translated into "sabbath" in these texts: Matt. 12:8; Mk. 2:28; 6:2; 16:1; Lk. 6:5; 13:14, 16; 14:5; Jn. 19:31; Acts 1:12 In Gen 29:27, 28, the word "week" is from the Greek "hebdoma", could you please show from Scriptures the validity of translating "sabbatou" into "week"? |
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6 | Is there a reason to debate? | Bible general Archive 4 | dodoy | 219971 | ||
I admire your humility, John. This virtue is getting rarer nowadays. I do appreciate your suggestion that "it would be prudent to [accept] what those who are [scholarly in the field] of linguistics have translated..." I am really sorry I can't be prudent, for now. If I get her right, Dhaniei referred to the "geocentric theory" of the universe, a theory accepted by the whole world as true for almost 1400 years. Among the stellar minds that held on to this belief included Claudius Ptolemaeus, who published the theory and the famous Greek philosopher, Aristotle. But despite the belief of the whole world to the contrary, Copernicus proved the geocentric theory false and presented a new theory modern science uses today. Copernicus stood his ground even to the extent of being excommunicated. I don't lay any claim to being a Copernicus, far from it; it is just I found a scriptural basis for questioning what has been believed on for so long. What I need is a Biblical proof that has long evaded my own search, that would spell out the beans against the basis of my query. Isn't it also possible for the younger siblings to find the cookies their father placed on the top shelf but hidden by the older ones? |
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7 | Is there a reason to debate? | Bible general Archive 4 | dodoy | 219987 | ||
Thank you, Steve for addressing the question I posted regarding my objection on the translation of the Greek ‘sabbatou’ into the English ‘week’. You referred to Luke 18:12. NASB Luke 18:12 'I fast twice a week; I pay tithes of all that I get.' You said the translation "I fast twice [on] Sabbath" does not make good sense. I know you are sincere in telling me this, Steve. I really appreciate that. But do we really assuredly know the period of time Christ was referring to in this verse? I am sorry to say this, but the conclusion that to fast twice on Sabbath does not make good sense and so "sabbatou" must be "week", could be jumping to conclusion too fast, too soon. Truth of the matter is I can not find any scriptural account of fasting twice a week, have you, Steve? Instead, fasting twice a day is scriptural. The Bible delineates fasting in the daytime vis-à-vis fasting at nighttime. When the Israelites hesitated to battle against the tribe of Benjamin they “fasted that day until even” (Judges 20:26). Upon knowing of the death of Saul and Jonathan, David and his men “fasted until even” (2 Samuel 1:12). When Daniel was thrown into the lions’ den, King Darius “spent the night fasting” (Daniel 6:18). Fasting twice a day is not a product of imagination. Christ Himself “fasted forty days and forty nights” (Matthew 4:2), and that period included five Sabbaths. Taken one day at a time, that is fasting twice a day, one at daytime, the other at nighttime. Hence, on five separate occassions, Christ fasted twice on Sabbath! If despite its being scripturally based, yet fasting twice on Sabbath does not make good sense for you, Steve, will fasting twice a week make good sense? You said: “"protei sabbatou" is literally "first of the sabbath." What is the first of a sabbath? What does that mean?” Steve, I know you are likewise aware that NASB translated “protei” into “foremost” (Matthew 22:38; Mark 12:28. 29) and “leading” (Acts 16:12); the NIV translated it into “most important” (Mark 12:28. 29); the KJV translated it into “chief” (Acts 16:12). In this case, can I be faulted if instead of “first day of the week” I choose “foremost Sabbath” or “most important Sabbath” or “leading Sabbath” or “chief Sabbath” as the better alternative translation of “protei sabbatou”? |
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8 | Is there a reason to debate? | Bible general Archive 4 | dodoy | 219989 | ||
Hi, John. I am really sorry if you were not able to catch the question I’ve thrown. Perhaps, you were not even aware that I have thrown the ball. But you could not be blamed. It appears you were busy imagining I am casting doubts on the veracity of Scriptures. Sadly, I don’t. It’s not in my nature to do so, John. I am, however, relieved that Steve (screen name – srbaegon) was able to pick up the question you failed to catch. This he aptly showed in his post for me. What I am questioning, John, is the translation of some portions of the Bible from the languages it was originally written into the English language. I do honestly believe, as others do, that the original autograph of each of the book of the Bible was free from any error. The errors crept in, unintentionally perhaps, via the transcribing and translating procedures the Bible underwent. |
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9 | Is there a reason to debate? | Bible general Archive 4 | dodoy | 219996 | ||
Dear Doc, Steve, and John; In this topic of sabbatou - week issue, I rest my case. Sorry to have offended you in any way. I did not intentionally mean to offend anybody here in the forum. Thanks for the inputs I have learned from all of you. Sincerely in Christ, dodoy |
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10 | Is there a reason to debate? | Bible general Archive 4 | dodoy | 220004 | ||
lightedsteps, Admittedly, I am greatly humbled by what you posted for me. For who am I, as to be able to connect all the dots? Let us all praise God who gives wisdom to all who lacks and asks (James 1:5). dodoy |
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11 | wednsday or friday Jesus died | NT general Archive 1 | dodoy | 219819 | ||
Dear Searcher56; I am just a newcomer to the forum (in fact, just now, Dec 21), so I have just read your post. I am quite impressed by your details on the final week of the Lord Jesus Christ prior to His crucifixion. They are really informative. I agree that the preparation of spices and ointments was done on Friday, because Luke 23:56 explicitly tells us so. That preparation was done before the women rested on the Sabbath according to the commandment. Since this Sabbath according to the commnadment is Saturday, it follows that the preparation was really Friday. However, to say that Christ died Thursday which according to your post is Nisan 14, and then followed by the Passover celebration of the Jews on the nighttime of Thursday will make Friday Nisan 15 a ceremonial Sabbath (see Leviticus 23:5-7). This can not fit in with the buying and the preparation of spices and ointments on that Friday, simply because there is nothing sold on a Sabbath, whether weekly or ceremonial, and therefore the women disciples had no spices and ointments to buy. But the fact that these women disciples were able to prepare the spices and ointments tells us pretty plainly that the women were able to buy the spices and ointments, and therefore that specific Friday can not be a ceremonial Sabbath. Also, Mark 16:1 tells us that the buying of the spices and ointments was done after Sabbath was past. This Sabbath being referred to by Mark is not the same Sabbath being referred to by Luke, or else there would be a contradiction. Of course, the Bible can not contradict itself in this case, because the Sabbath referenced by Luke is the weekly Sabbath or Saturday while the Sabbath referenced by Mark is a ceremonial Sabbath. The Friday preparation of spices and ointments by the women followers of Christ was done after the ceremonial Sabbath referred to by Mark, the very same day which is before the weekly Sabbath referred to by Luke. The only ceremonial Sabbath that can possibly occur before that specific Friday is the ceremonial Sabbath that occurs on the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, a feast that follows the Passover. So instead of Friday, it then follows that Thursday is the ceremonial Sabbath of the Jews. The Jews therefore held Passover on Wednesday night, bringing us to the inevitable conclusion that the Lord Jesus Christ died Wednesday. What about the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40? Well, this could be a bit weird to some but the Greek Bible in Mark 16:9 is very specific that the Lord rose from the grave early Sabbath morning! Here is that text in Greek: "Anastas de proi protei sabbatou ephane proton Maria tei Magdalene par es ekbeblekei hepta daimonia" (Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia BHS (Hebrew Bible, Masoretic Text or Hebrew Old Testament), edited by K. Elliger and W. Rudoph of the Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft, Stuttgart, Fourth Corrected Edition, Copyright © 1966, 1977, 1983, 1990 by the Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft (German Bible Society), Stuttgart. Used by permission.) Even the Latin VULGATE of Sophronius Eusebius Hieronimus, popularly known as St. Jerome, attests to this: "surgens autem mane prima sabbati apparuit primo Mariae Magdalenae de qua eiecerat septem daemonia" (Biblia Sacra Iuxta Vulgatam Versionem, Vulgate Latin Bible (VUL), edited by R. Weber, B. Fischer, J. Gribomont, H.F.D. Sparks, and W. Thiele [at Beuron and Tuebingen] Copyright © 1969, 1975, 1983 by Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft (German Bible Society), Stuttgart. Used by permission) The Greek phrase "proi protei sabbatou" translated in the English Bibles into “early on the first day of the week” literally means “very early on the chief Sabbath” (see parallel usage of "protei" in Acts 16:12, where "protei meridos" was translated into “chief city”). But why chief Sabbath? Because in that Paschal week there was also the ceremonial Sabbath of the Jews following their Passover celebration, and likewise, the ceremonial Sabbath of Christ and His disciples following their Passover celebration Tuesday night. The chief of these Sabbaths, is the Sabbath of the Decalogue, the weekly Sabbath. You could likewise verify for yourself that the Greek phrase in all the other seven verses in the New Testament translated into the phrase “first day of the week” all contained the Greek root word “sabbaton".((Matthew 28:1; Mark 16:2, Luke 24:1; John 20:1, 19; Acts 20:7 and 1 Cor 16:2) Sincerely In Christ, dodoy |
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12 | wednsday or friday Jesus died | NT general Archive 1 | dodoy | 219830 | ||
Dear Pastor Beja, Thank you for the immediate response. In the matter of the Greek phrase "protei sabbatou", it is not that I am conveying the idea that all the committee of translators were wrong and I alone am right. But yes, you are right in saying "we'd need great reason" for it. And that great reason is the absence of biblical basis for translating "sabbatou" into "week". In the Septuagint (LXX Septuaginta (LXT) (Old Greek Jewish Scriptures) edited by Alfred Rahlfs, Copyright © 1935 by the Württembergische Bibelanstalt / Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft (German Bible Society), Stuttgart. Used by permission), "sabbatou" was used 16 times and never was it translated into "week". (2 Chr. 23:8; Neh. 10:32; 13:15, 17, 19, 22; 2 Ma. 5:25; 8:26; Ps. 37:1; 47:1; 91:1; Isa. 66:23; Lam. 2:6) Our Lord Jesus Christ, many times in His earthly ministry, also stood alone on issues on which the greater majority believed otherwise. Thanks for the wholehearted welcome you extended me in joining this forum. dodoy |
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13 | wednsday or friday Jesus died | NT general Archive 1 | dodoy | 219889 | ||
A blessed day to you, Searcher. In the matter of the phrase "it is the THIRD day since these things happened", the Bible has the answer in 2 Chronicles 10:5,12. 2 Chronicles 10:5 And he said unto them, Come again unto me after three days. And the people departed. 2 Chronicles 10:12 So Jeroboam and all the people came to Rehoboam on the third day, as the king bade, saying, Come again to me on the third day. As you can see, this episode plainly shows that the phrase "after three days" can be equated with the phrase "on the third day." I hope this answers your question. Regarding the Sabbath violation you wanted me to explain, I am really sorry but I need to be further clarified on what you really mean. Thank you for your note. dodoy |
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14 | wednsday or friday Jesus died | NT general Archive 1 | dodoy | 219893 | ||
A blessed day for you, Searcher; I assumed you have read my first answer to you regarding your question on Luke 24: 20-21 regarding the "third day" phrase. Since you did not mention anything about it anymore, I'll be silent on it for the moment. You say you don't know how Wednesday can fit. I understand you on that because you honestly believe He rose from the grave on Sunday. Please read my first post again. In the Greek Bible I quoted there, Mark 16:9 explicitly mentions Christ rose from the grave early Saturday morning. You say Wednesday can't fit because then He would have to enter Jerusalem on the Sabbath. Here is your chronology on that (based on your note to Dhaniel): Nisan 08 (Thu/Fri) - "Jesus, therefore, six days before the Passover, came to Bethany" (John 12:1). Thu Nisan 09 (Fri/Sat) - "On the next day" (John 12:9). Sabbath Nisan 10 (Sat/Sun) - "On the next day" (John 12:12-13). Lamb Selection Day. Jesus presented self in Temple Nisan 11 (Sun/Mon) -"The next day" (Mark 11:12). Sun Nisan 12 (Mon/Tue) - "in the morning" (Mark 11:20). Mon Nisan 13 (Wed day) - "Then came the first day of Unleavened Bread" (Luke 22:7). Nisan 14 (Wed eve) - "When evening came" (Mark 14:17). Nisan 14 (Thu day) - "Very early in the morning" (Mark 15:1). … "It was the third hour when they crucified Him" (Mark 15:25). 25 Notice this time span you wrote: "Nisan 09 (Fri/Sat) - "On the next day" (John 12:9). Sabbath" May I ask from what Bible version is this? Because I tried looking up John 12:9 in a number of versions and I can not find any that mentions the phrase "On the next day". If we remove a day from the chronology you gave, then Thursday can not fit. Instead, Wednesday fits. dodoy |
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15 | wednsday or friday Jesus died | NT general Archive 1 | dodoy | 219905 | ||
Shalom to you, too, Dhaniel. This subject to me is never divisive, as with any other subject. Yes, you are right in saying that the fact He rose from the grave is what is most important. And you are as well right to say the Scriptures never actually state the Messiah rose on the first day of the week. That is because the Scriptures in Greek tell us He rose from the grave early Saturday morning (Mark 16:9) - 'proi protei sabbatou'. Could you tell me the ID nos. of your previous posts explaining why you believed He rose from the grave "just as the Sabbath is dissolving into the first day of the week"? Or, you may directly post a note regarding this. I just want to know the scriptural basis you used. Thanks. Again, Shalom. dodoy |
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16 | wednsday or friday Jesus died | NT general Archive 1 | dodoy | 219913 | ||
Hi there, Searcher; You replied, "Correction ... John 12:9 should be 'On the next day, "the great multitude therefore of the Jews learned that He was there (in Bethany); and they came, not for Jesus' sake only, but that they might also see Lazarus, whom He raised from the dead."" I tried comparing the same text with the New American Standard Bible... That translation says: "The great multitude therefore of the Jews learned that He was there; and they came, not for Jesus' sake only, but that they might also see Lazarus, whom He raised from the dead." John 12:9 (NASB) Am just quite curious... Is there really a need to prefix that verse with the phrase "On the next day"? How would the Lockman Foundation react to that addendum to their translation? dodoy |
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17 | wednsday or friday Jesus died | NT general Archive 1 | dodoy | 219914 | ||
Shalom, Dhaniel; Inclusive reckoning of time periods allows for a portion of a period to be considered a unit. So from daytime Wednesday to daytime Saturday will give us four daytimes instead of three. The Messiah specified only three daytimes and three nighttimes in Matthew 12:40, as you also well know. But if we take Mark 16:9 that He rose from the grave early Saturday morning, that is, before sunrise, then all fits well into the picture. Dodoy |
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18 | wednsday or friday Jesus died | NT general Archive 1 | dodoy | 219922 | ||
Lightedsteps, We all know for a fact that Passover is a full moon festival. Since Christ can not lose track of the occurrence of the full moon, His Passover celebration with His disciples, I believe, fell on the day when the moon was full, in harmony with the instructions in Numbers 9:2-3. The Messiah came to fulfill the law, including this one regarding the Passover. Because the Jews reckon the beginning of the month based on the sighting of the crescent moon, in all probabilities, the sighting came a day later. Consequently, Nisan started a day late along with their Passover celebration. dodoy |
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19 | Is 'sabbaton' equals 'week' proper? | Mark 16:9 | dodoy | 219896 | ||
Scripture: Mark 16:9 Is there any Biblical basis for translating "protei sabbatou" into "first day of the week?" All of the texts in the New Testament translated into "first day of the week" are all taken from Greek phrases containing the root word "sabbaton" from which the English "sabbath" was derived. (see on Matt. 28:1; Mk. 16:2, 9; Lk. 24:1; Jn. 20:1, 19; Acts 20:7; 1 Co. 16:2) |
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20 | Is 'sabbaton' equals 'week' proper? | Mark 16:9 | dodoy | 219915 | ||
Blessed day, Searcher; In John 20:1, the Greek for "first day of the week" is "mia ton sabbaton" which you also know to literally mean "one of the sabbaths" Consider the following Greek phrases with their corresponding translations in the NASB: Mark 14:66 'mia ton paidiskon' - one of the servant girls; Luke 5:12 'mia ton poleon' - one of the cities; Luke 13:10 'mia ton sunagogon' - one of the synagogues Why 'one of the sabbaths'? Because there also was the sabbath corresponding to the first day of unleavened bread which fell on Thursday in that week as celebrated by the Jews. Also there was the sabbath that followed the Passover celebration of Christ with His disciples that fell on Wednesday, and lastly, the weekly sabbath or Saturday. It was this Saturday sabbath that is referred to in John 20:1. Literally taking the Greek 'opsias' in verse 19 as "evening" after sunset, the evening of this Saturday, would really be Sunday, the first day of the week. Hope it would help a little to clear out the confusion. dodoy |
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