Results 1 - 10 of 10
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Totallypostal84 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Mercy Grace and Forgivness the differenc | Eph 2:8 | Totallypostal84 | 182314 | ||
Grace is God's favor revealed to man through Christ. It is a free act no more hindered by sin than it is conditioned upon works. Mercy is God's active compassion towards us through Christ in relieving our misery. Forgiveness is God's acceptance of Christ's payment for our sin and giving us a pardon which frees us from our debt. All three are interconnected and intertwined so that we as believers can't receive one without the other. All are freely given through belief in the death, burial, and ressurection of the Son, Jesus Christ. We can only dwell in them. Ephes.4:32 You will notice that the Amplified version adds the word "your" in front of faith. I believe that the faith that is being refered to here comes from Jesus Christ which is given to us in order that we may believe. In a sense it is ours but the source is not ourselves but Christ. Romans 3:22 is translated in some bibles as "faith of Jesus Christ". |
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2 | Mercy Grace and Forgivness the differenc | Eph 2:8 | Totallypostal84 | 182319 | ||
I thank my teachers for helping me to understand this and most of all I thank the Holy Spirit for giving those teachers the ability and understanding to teach me these things. Praise be to God, the Father through Jesus Christ, the Son. Amen | ||||||
3 | Better Greek Translation for 2 Thess.? | 2 Thess 2:2 | Totallypostal84 | 182260 | ||
I have just read an article by Dr. Kenneth Wuest on II Thess.2:2 concerning "Day of the Lord". I noticed in the received text the Greek has "Day of Christ" and in the revised text "Day of the Lord". Dr. Wuest says that the better texts have "Day of the Lord". What Greek texts are being refered to as better and why? | ||||||
4 | Better Greek Translation for 2 Thess.? | 2 Thess 2:2 | Totallypostal84 | 182262 | ||
Thank you for the answer. I will follow up with more research on this. I understand the "Day of the Lord" deals with Israel and the "Day of Christ" deals with the Church. | ||||||
5 | Do the Majority of Texts have "Christ"? | 2 Thess 2:2 | Totallypostal84 | 182275 | ||
I have a Interlinear Bible by Jay P. Green, Sr. that has, in the Greek, "Day of Christ" for this verse. In researching the Majority Text Notes in the Appendix, the word "Christ" is found in 61-79 percent of all manuscripts. He considers this to be a distinct majority but not so strong as say some words that are in 80-100 percent of the available texts. In the context of the verse, I believe that the word "Lord" seems to be more accurate for the meaning, so why if the Greek word for "Christ" is found in the majority of manuscripts would the manuscripts that have the Greek word for "Lord" be used in most translations? If you look at the KJV, Thomas Nelson Pub., you will also find the word "Christ" used. |
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6 | Alexandrian texts better? | 2 Thess 2:2 | Totallypostal84 | 182276 | ||
Are there other reasons for the Alexandrian texts to be considered better? | ||||||
7 | don't just listen to gods word but do | James 1:22 | Totallypostal84 | 182365 | ||
In James 2:14, James asks a question... Can that faith save him? James believed the answer was, No! He proceeds to prove his point in the following verses. It seems James is indeed camparing "faith without works" to being in a position of not being saved. The book of James is written to Jewish believers, under the leadership of James, and he claimed that all were zealous of the law of Moses. I believe the book was written before Paul's epistles since the Jerusalem Council is not mentioned in it. James would have surely mentioned such a momentous meeting if it had been written after. Because of this James did not yet understand the difference between Paul's revelation of salvation by "faith alone" and the Twelve's gospel of "faith plus works" or "faith in conjunction with the law of Moses". After all they preached what Jesus taught and that was to follow the Law of Moses. Romans 11:6 Before Paul's revelation there was a salvation evidenced by works. The Twelve preached it to Israel and it was continued up until the Temple was destroyed in 70 A.D. Even Paul participated in this gospel of the kingdom when he made the Nazarite vow with his Jewish brothers. Gospel of the Circumcision Of course Paul adamently upheld the gospel of the grace of God, for the Gentiles, which all the Apostles were made to understand and accept at the Jerusalem Council. This difference was not accepted for the Jewish believers. Faith Alone! Gospel of the uncircumcision. |
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8 | A believers questions? | James 1:22 | Totallypostal84 | 182366 | ||
A person must ask themselves these questions? Do you, who are saved, still sin? Is the evidence of your life completely indicative of your spiritual standing? Are you still being redeemed and protected despite your weakness in the outward flesh? We are to no longer look at the outward, we are a new creation on the inside. |
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9 | A believers questions? | James 1:22 | Totallypostal84 | 182370 | ||
My point exactly. Our outward evidence does not always speak the truth concerning our inward spiritual condition. A person can still be saved without any outward works evidence. We still grieve the Spirit outwardly though we are inwardly secure. James is speaking of salvation in his chapter 2 discourse and he is saying it is impossible to have faith without outward works. Paul says we are not to look at the outward signs as evidence of salvation just as we are not to look at Jesus in the earthly form. We are to look at the ascended Lord Jesus and the inward evidence of a person as confirmation of salvation. |
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10 | don't just listen to gods word but do | James 1:22 | Totallypostal84 | 182375 | ||
Because James is writing to Jewish believers under James' leadership before the revelation to Paul of the disposation of Grace was made known to the Jerusalem Church at the Council. There was much dispute at this council concerning the understanding of what the Gentile believers would be required to do within the Body of Christ. The result was the release of the Gentile believers from following the commands of the Law of Moses but the Jewish believers were not released from this responsibility. I believe James had not been made aware of this at the time he wrote his letter and was teaching the then understood truth of the Holy Spirit. Why was there a need for a Apostle to the Gentiles if the message was the same. Gentiles were able to come into the Jewish church as proselytes under the message the Twelve were teaching. What was the big difference? Salvation apart from the Law. This news shows that there was a salvation before that worked in combination with the Law. Before Paul's revelation, under the Twelve, there was the Gospel of the Circumcision. |
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