Results 1 - 14 of 14
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: STUDENT7300 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Isaiah 14 and Ezekiel 28 not Satan! | Not Specified | STUDENT7300 | 83211 | ||
Does anyone out there not believe that Isaiah 14:12 refers to Satan but me? Verse 4 clearly indicates that the Lord was referring to the king of Babylon. And now that I dared to say that, can we then say that Ezekiel 28:11-19 refers to Satan? Verse 12 says God was speaking to the king of Tyre. For if we follow the rules of Biblical Interpretation, we must interpret everything according to its context. And prophecy allows for hyperbole and figures of speech. (Notice Ezekiel 29:1-7) Help me to see. Student7300 |
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2 | What's does the seven seals mean? | Bible general Archive 2 | STUDENT7300 | 117854 | ||
In my humble opinion, the 7 seals represent the first wave of God's judgment of the earth after the Rapture. There are 2 other phases--the 7 trumpets and the 7 bowls. The Lord Jesus said in John 5:27 that the Father has committed judgment into HIs hands. That is why we read that it is the Lamb who opens the 7 seals. I hope this helps. STUDENT 7300 |
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3 | Isaiah 14 and Ezekiel 28 not Satan! | Bible general Archive 1 | STUDENT7300 | 83214 | ||
Does anyone out there not believe that Isaiah 14:12 refers to Satan but me? Verse 4 clearly indicates that the Lord was referring to the king of Babylon. And now that I dared to say that, can we then say that Ezekiel 28:11-19 refers to Satan? Verse 12 says God was speaking to the king of Tyre. For if we follow the rules of Biblical Interpretation, we must interpret everything according to its context. And prophecy allows for hyperbole and figures of speech. (Notice Ezekiel 29:1-7) Help me to see. Student7300 |
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4 | Isaiah 14 and Ezekiel 28 not Satan! | Bible general Archive 1 | STUDENT7300 | 83251 | ||
I have spoken with many lay Christians, Bible teachers, and pastors who adamantly preach that these two passages refer specifically to Satan. I personally believe that God, for His own divine reasons, has not revealed to us Satan's devolution, except for the verse I Timothy 3:6. Everything else seems to refer to after the Fall. Or in other words, it appears that the Holy Spirit is more concerned with us resisting the devil rather than studying him. STUDENT7300 |
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5 | Isaiah 14 and Ezekiel 28 not Satan! | Bible general Archive 1 | STUDENT7300 | 83407 | ||
Dear Christian, The Lockman Foundation would tend to disagree with you and with all of the Christian segment that hold the view that the Lucifer of Isaiah 14:12 is a reference to Satan. Listen to their footnote in the Amplified Bible in relation to this passage: The Hebrew for this expression--"light-bringer" or "shining one"--is translated "Lucifer" in The Latin Vulgate, and is thus translated in the King James Version. But because of the association of that name with Satan, it is not now used in this and other translations. Some students feel that the application of the name Lucifer to Satan, in spite of the long and confident teaching to that effect, is erroneous. The application of the name to Satan has existed since the third century A.D., and is based on the supposition that Luke 10:18 is an explanation of Isa. 14:12, which many authorities believe is not true. "Lucifer," the light-bringer, is the Latin equivalent of the Greek word "Phosphoros," which is used as a title of Christ in II Pet. 1:19 and corresponds to the name "radiant and brilliant Morning Star" in Rev. 22:16, a name Jesus called Himself. This passage here in Isa. 14:13 clearly applies to the king of Babylon. And all I am saying is that I am in complete agreement with this statement. Blessings. STUDENT7300 |
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6 | Isaiah 14 and Ezekiel 28 not Satan! | Bible general Archive 1 | STUDENT7300 | 83457 | ||
Dear Radioman2, I whole-heartedly agree that God many times can speak to Satan through another. But in the two references you cited, Gen. 3:15 and Matt. 16:23, other passages clue us in that this is exactly what the Lord was doing (See Rev. 12:9 and your verse Matt. 16:23). Not so in Isaiah 14 or Ezekiel 28. So without this validation we can only assume that the Lord is literally referring to these two kings. I don't believe there is a way of connecting these two passages, Isaiah 14 and Ezekiel 28, to Satan apart from citing the traditional viewpoint that so many hold. Based on each passage taken by itself, that particular viewpoint falls flat. STUDENT7300 |
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7 | Isaiah 14 and Ezekiel 28 not Satan! | Bible general Archive 1 | STUDENT7300 | 83460 | ||
Dear Truthfinder, You make a valid point that sin had to originate in the spirit realm with Satan before the Fall. And there are many similarities between Gen. 3 and the language the Holy Spirit uses in Ezekiel 28. However, it is a "stretch" to unquestionably say that the king of Trye is Satan. Again, look at the whole context of Ezekiel chapters 25-32. God uses outlandish figures of speech in judging all of these nations. Not to mention how each of these prophecies were fulfilled. Check out Wenner's book, The Bible as History. And he details how in secular history each and every prophecy was literally fulfilled. Blessings! STUDENT7300 |
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8 | Isaiah 14 and Ezekiel 28 not Satan! | Bible general Archive 1 | STUDENT7300 | 83479 | ||
Dear Radioman2, Your reference was incredible! It provided me even more insight. Thank you! STUDENT7300 |
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9 | 2 Sam. 12:23 promises to save babies? | 2 Sam 12:23 | STUDENT7300 | 83579 | ||
Why do so many people see this verse as an assurance that babies go to heaven when they die? I would love for this to be true. But this is not what this verse is saying. To quote the Nelson Study Bible Commentators: "The child could not return to life, but David would someday join his son in death." This seem to be a more accurate interpretation. Does anyone else agree? STUDENT7300 |
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10 | A Human Error? | 2 Kin 8:26 | STUDENT7300 | 117776 | ||
I am interested to know what are some opinions on the apparent discrepancy with this verse and 2 Chronicles 22:2. Here in Kings it says that Ahaziah was 22 years old. But in Chronicles is says that he was 42. Any ideas? Some enemies of the truth are asking. STUDENT 7300 |
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11 | A 2nd Human Error? | 2 Kin 8:26 | STUDENT7300 | 117777 | ||
And while I am asking, there is another apparent discrepancy in 2 Samuel 8:4 and I Chronicles 18:4. Did David capture 700 horsemen or 7,000 horsemen? Any ideas on this? Blessings! STUDENT 7300 |
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12 | I need help in Lamentations 1:20-22 | Lam 1:1 | STUDENT7300 | 83209 | ||
This is a common literary techinque of Scripture for a writer to give speech to a place or thing that normally does not have speech (See Isaiah 14:7,8; 1 Cor. 12:15,16). This is called personification. So the prophet Jeremiah is giving speech to the city of Jerusalem. And Jerusalem is agonizing over the consequences of her rebellion. Her main enemy is Babylon. And she is now praying harm on them, which prayer the Lord eventually answers after Jerusalem's 70 year captivity (See Jer. 25:12). Grace to you. Student 7300 |
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13 | where does it say that we will go to hea | John 6:40 | STUDENT7300 | 83508 | ||
Dear VideoThing, Please realize that our going to heaven is just the beginning of the wonderful things that our Lord has in store for us. The is also the Millinnial (1000 year) Reign of Christ that we will all share in! Moreover where our soul goes when we die is not a prominent theme of the Bible because God never meant for us to focus on that, but rather on His soon coming Kingdom (the 1000 years)! Nevertheless, Paul suggests our souls going to heaven in several places I Thess. 4:14; 2 Cor. 5:5-9; Phil. 1:23. There is also Rev. 6:9-11. I referenced John 6:40 for you to point to the overwhelming emphasis of the Bible--the believer's resurrection! This is when our souls will be reunited with new immortal bodies that will enjoy God's blessings forever (See I Cor. 2:9). Blessings! STUDENT7300 |
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14 | Exodus 29:20 - How does this apply to me | Heb 9:18 | STUDENT7300 | 90235 | ||
Dear mkp98, This is an excellent question that you've posed. But I believe that the Scriptures do have an answer for you. It says in Hebrews 9:18-22 that God used blood to dedicate everything in the Old Testament. And so Aaron and his sons were dedicated to God with blood as everything else was (Exo. 29:12,16; Lev. 16:14-16). And blood was placeD on theIR right body parts to symbolize to the Jews, the right side was the side of strength. (And we know that Christ is at the right hand of God today!) The application for you and I today from this passage is that our dedication is much more superior than this ever was. We are sprinkled with the blood of Jesus! (Hebrews 12:18-24; I Pe. 1:2).Our HEARTS are sprinkled clean not our exterior body parts (Heb. 10:22). The priesthood that we belong to is a spiritual one, with spiritual symbols and sacrifices. And JESUS is our High Priest. (See Heb. 13:10-16; I Pe. 2:4,5,9). Please don't get entangled too much with the details of the sacrifices and the Levitical priesthood. Christ has fulfilled all of this for us! Some of those ceremonies have a specific meaning for us, like the Passover. Others just have general information that is now obsolete. I hope this sheds a little light into your question. Blessings! STUDENT 7300 |
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