Results 1 - 20 of 36
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: King T Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Luke 1:32-33 | Not Specified | King T | 240487 | ||
Greetings beloveds! I have been gone rather too long - almost four years! Can someone help trace Mary's (the mother of Jesus) lineage to King David!? Much Blessings!!! |
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2 | questions and answers about jonhan | Bible general Archive 4 | King T | 222586 | ||
What exactly is the question here? Are you inviting for questions on the subject or what? Please be more specific. Thank you! | ||||||
3 | Bible study group online? | Bible general Archive 4 | King T | 222634 | ||
Hi JP, From what I see, you are doing fine, just keep on reading the Bible and asking questions where you do not understand. This forum has a lot of wonderful people who are always willing to share their profound insight with others. However, keep an open mind, not everything that you'd receive on the forum is true. The Bible itself advises us to investigate for our own selves. In John 5:39 Jesus encourages us to search the scriptures. Also in Acts 17:11 we are told about the open minded people of Berea who received the Word of God and searched the scriptures to make sure what Paul taught them was true. Personally I'd advise you to buy a good study Bible to assist you. Stay blessed, King T! |
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4 | promises to the jews valid for christian | OT general | King T | 222593 | ||
Kindly recall that the Jews lived under a law and they had to what the law dictated to receive their promises. Nonetheless, the law has been abolished: “He brought an end to the commandments and demands found in Moses' Teachings so that he could take Jewish and non-Jewish people and create one new humanity in himself. So he made peace.” – Ephesians 2:15 (GW). Therefore whatever was under the law does not apply in this era of grace. The law was given by Moses but grace came by Jesus Christ (John 1:17). However, Jesus did not only give us the grace but the truth too. Whatever promises that they had was based on their obedience to the law – Deuteronomy 11:27 – 28. We do not have to work to qualify for His grace on the other hand except being born again. (Roman 3:24, 11:6) However, I more than agree that you need to qualify your question. Stay blessed, King T! |
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5 | promises to the jews valid for christian | OT general | King T | 222594 | ||
Kindly recall that the Jews lived under a law and they had to what the law dictated to receive their promises. Nonetheless, the law has been abolished: “He brought an end to the commandments and demands found in Moses' Teachings so that he could take Jewish and non-Jewish people and create one new humanity in himself. So he made peace.” – Ephesians 2:15 (GW). Therefore whatever was under the law does not apply in this era of grace. The law was given by Moses but grace came by Jesus Christ (John 1:17). However, Jesus did not only give us the grace but the truth too. Whatever promises that they had was based on their obedience to the law – Deuteronomy 11:27 – 28. We do not have to work to qualify for His grace on the other hand except being born again. (Roman 3:24, 11:6) However, I more than agree that you need to qualify your question. Stay blessed, King T! |
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6 | promises to the jews valid for christian | OT general | King T | 222607 | ||
Thank you Doc, I hope I can call you Doc. The Matthew 5:17-20 scripture you just referred to was addressed to the Jews; the law was given only to the Jews and never to the gentiles. How then could it be used to judge the gentiles? That is why Jesus Christ had to come into the equation. Kindly note that the gentiles were brought into the Kingdom of God by the blood of Jesus (Ephesians 2:12-14 KJV: "That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world: But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;" If you read further on you will learn that we are no longer under the law. I am not preaching anything against the Bible and nothing at all “Antinomian licentiousness and of Pharisaical self-righteousness” – I wish I knew what you meant… sometimes this theology jargon doesn’t really communicate much. As for the other guys, Scyalla and Charybdis; personally I have never heard of them. However, I more than agree with you that we need the Holy Spirit to best understand the Bible – at least that is what I think you were suggesting. Stay blessed, King T! |
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7 | sined asked forgivness | NT general | King T | 222590 | ||
According to the Bible salvation is based on the acceptance of the lordship of Jesus Christ into one’s life; “But as many as received Him, to them gave He power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on His name” – John 1:12 (KJV). Once you are born again you become the son of God. In the fifteen (15) years you refer to, you had broken fellowship with God, but you remained a son in the house. Jesus told us a story of the prodigal son (Luke 15:11-32), though the son was separated from the father and the family, when he came to his senses and went back to his father, he was accepted back into the family. Likewise you had broken fellowship with God, but your sonship remained. For now you have repented, you are still a son in the house. Jesus had promised us the Holy Spirit to abide with us forever – (John 14:16). He has been with you and He is the one that brought you back to the Kingdom. Rest assured brother – your salvation has not departed. Do not condemn yourself for that is what the devil – the father of lies – wants you to believe (that your salvation is gone). That is just a plot by the devil to make you lose your focus. Salvation is not a mist that it comes and goes like that. However, salvation is by Jesus Christ only (Acts 4:12; Acts 2:12; Romans 10:9 - 10). Welcome back brother and stay very blessed. King T |
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8 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 222595 | ||
Hi Wejlly, Kindly note that there is a difference between sinning and rejecting Jesus Christ. Paul here is talking about those who have rejected Jesus Christ. I see that this question is connected to your next question. Backsliding is not rejecting Christ. It is just a loss of focus. That can happen for many reasons - may be sin due to little information (ignorance - Hosea 4:6). Rejecting Chris is denouncing Him as one's Lord and denying His existence - shaming Him. That is what Apostle Paul call sending Him to the cross all over again for His crucifixion was a public ridicule intended to shame Him. From your next question, I do not pick anywhere that you mentioned rejecting Him. I am convinced that you didn't, for if you did, the Holy Spirit would have departed from you. You'd have grieved Him for He bears witness of Jesus. Rejecting/denouncing Christ is a blasphemy against the Holy Spirit, and such a blasphemy is not forgivable (Matthew 12:31). If He had departed from you, you wouldn't have had the wisdom to repent. He is the one that gives you that wisdom. Those that Paul is talking about are beyond repentance, they are like demons and cannot be redeemed. This is why God had to drive Adam and Eve out of the garden of Eden. For if they had eaten the fruit of Life after sinning against God by eaten the Fruit of Knowledge of Truth of Good and Evil, they would have acquired eternal life and had been like demons. Read other Bible translations to best appreciate Hebrews 6:4-6. See The Message Translation of the same: "Once people have seen the light, gotten a taste of heaven and been part of the work of the Holy Spirit, once they've personally experienced the sheer goodness of God's Word and the powers breaking in on us—if then they turn their backs on it, washing their hands of the whole thing, well, they can't start over as if nothing happened. That's impossible. Why, they've re-crucified Jesus! They've repudiated him in public!" Try the New Living Translation too. Stay blessed, King T! |
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9 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 222608 | ||
DocTrinsograce, Ha! Ha! OK Doc, let us call them versions then. Whatever we call them, all that I intended was for more clarity on the subject. Stay blessed Doc, King T! |
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10 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 222629 | ||
Hi Doc, I think the first time I just hurried through your comment hence missed the second part to your comment. Well, where I come from English is not my native language; it is my third language I’d say, so I do not master it that much, but I try to understand it. To best understand the second part to your comment where you said, “Note also that repentance does not merit redemption. The redeemed live a life of repentance.” I had to refer to the dictionary and not the Bible. Primarily I wanted to understand the “merit” part of your statement. The Oxford Dictionary that I used defines merit in Theology as “good deeds entitling someone to a future reward” and I trust this is what you meant. I trust my response to your comment will prompt you to qualify your answer but I strongly disagree with your statement. In redemption a price is paid for a product and in Christian terms the product was the world and the price paid was the blood of Jesus. Jesus Christ bought the whole world and not only the believers or the Christians. He bought the whole world, the sinners included. 1 John 2:2 (KJV) “And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.” The difference is the Christian is aware of this transaction and has made a decision of acceptance. The Christian has repented and is reconciled to Christ. Your statement will be generally true as a cliché, but is not true in the Christian perspective. The Bible specifically states in Romans 10:13 (KJV) that “For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.” Reading from verse 9 (AMP) of the same chapter “Because if you acknowledge and confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and in your heart believe (adhere to, trust in, and rely on the truth) that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved.” This therefore explains the calling upon the Name, not just a mere shouting of the Name. I will rather you read through from verse 9 up to 14. I wonder why the Bible would say whosoever shall call on the name if your statement is true. The Christian has gone beyond redemption dude, the Christian has been justified. In redemption you pay for the product with all its imperfections (sin), but in justification the sinner is declared not guilty, the sins are not just forgiven but completely wiped off – that is justification. Romans 3:24 (KJV)” Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:” The price was already paid hence no need to pay another price which is why we were freely justified. It does not end with redemption. The law could not justify, Romans 3:20-24 (AMP) “For no person will be justified (made righteous, acquitted, and judged acceptable) in His sight by observing the works prescribed by the Law. For the real function of the Law is to make men recognize and be conscious of sin not mere perception, but an acquaintance with sin which works toward repentance, faith, and holy character. 21 But now the righteousness of God has been revealed independently and altogether apart from the Law, although actually it is attested by the Law and the Prophets, 22 Namely, the righteousness of God which comes by believing with personal trust and confident reliance on Jesus Christ (the Messiah). And it is meant for all who believe. For there is no distinction, 23 Since all have sinned and are falling short of the honor and glory which God bestows and receives. 24 All are justified and made upright and in right standing with God, freely and gratuitously by His grace (His unmerited favor and mercy), through the redemption which is provided in Christ Jesus,” I had to include verse 23 to avoid being accused for selecting favorable verses. If you read the whole chapter, you will realize that verse 23 should not be read in isolation and it refers to those under the law. The law did not remit sins if you could fully appreciate verse 20 of Romans 3, but Jesus did. Galatians 4:4-5 (KJV) “But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, 5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.” I do not want to take most of your time wish I could say more for there is more on the subject. Stay blessed, King T! |
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11 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 222645 | ||
Doc, Doc, Doc! Once again I find myself caught between your article (post) and the dictionary, but I will manage. Romans 6:23 - aren't we reading that in isolation? It doesn't say we we earned death. Let us may be take it from verse 22. Ephesians 2:8-10; Romans 4:4-5; Romans 11:6 I don't see where you and I are disagreeing. "The price of redemption was not paid to the world" - true it was paid FOR the world. Romans 10:13 I just revisited the verse and my post where I referred to the verse, I just can't understand where you derive your expression of condition from. The Heidelberg Catechism, questions 62 through 64 - I never said we earned righteousness, but thank you for referring me here. If I wrote something to make you believe otherwise, it could be my English, but I am getting better with every visit to the dictionary. French Confession Article 22 - Good Lord! Doc, where is this works issue emanating from? The Bible is very clear on the subject. Paul did not mince his words on the subject, Ephesians 2:8-10 that you referred to earlier obliterates the believe on works. Belgic Confession Article 24 "So we would always be in doubt, tossed back and forth without any certainty, and our poor consciences would be tormented constantly if they did not rest on the merit of the suffering and death of our Savior." Now I see where you get this merit issue from. I never wrote anything to claim we worked for our salvation though. I think the response from Beja explained your earlier comment in much simpler terms. All these, the Savoy Declaration of Faith, chapter 16; Second Helvetic Confession, chapter 16, paragraph 4; the Thirty-Nine Articles, article 12; the Waldensian Confession, Articles 20 to 23; and the Westminster Confession of Faith Chapter 16 are good readings. These are just man made doctrines. Personally I prefer the Bible which I trust these doctrines were derived from. As for heresy dude, I am reading that article by Richard Alderson. Unfortunately I can't post my comments on the same page. Martin Luther, whom Richard Alderson derived his anti law term from, was accused to be heretic by those who did not understand him. By the way, Jesus Christ himself was accused by those who did not understand him. However, my prayer is for us to continue studying the Word of God "Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ:" - Ephesians 4:13. Waiting for more from you: Proverb 27:17 Iron sharpeneth iron; so a man sharpeneth the countenance of his friend. You are my friend aren't you? Stay Blessed, King T! |
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12 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 222647 | ||
P.S. Doc, 1. Thirty-Nine Articles, Article 12 - Of Good Works, 2. Westminster Confession of Faith Chapter 16 - Of Good Works, 3. Second Helvetic Confession, Chapter 16, Paragraph 4 - Concerning Good Works, 4. Waldensian Confessions of Faith, Article 20 - 23, Hey Doc, I could not get this one. Give me a link please, but I trust it is more on good works. I am not inviting for a sermon on this very particular statement, but my curiosity got the better of me. To understand you better, I had to read what you recommended. I trust you misunderstood me - I never asserted that works can amount to a trophy before God. However, where we strongly vary is on the law. Unfortunately, I cannot refer you to any scholarly material like you referred me. All I have is the Bible - the same scripture that you have but it seems we vary in our interpretation. There is no harm to it now, we will eventually come to a common understanding. Well, you really kept me occupied, now I have to go back to my Bible. I really love this forum. Stay blessed, King T! |
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13 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 222648 | ||
Dude, the only time I have to speak or write English is when I communicate to someone who does not speak my vernacular. I don't like having to always refer to the dictionary to understand. Next time, please use simpler English - less of these big words. | ||||||
14 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 222654 | ||
Thanks Brad, Yes! Doc is so deep and well read. He referred me to some materials that I never thought existed or thought I'd read. To be honest, I can't take my mind off the materials. He indeed challenged me and I am glad I joined this forum. I keep on checking the posts for an input from the Doc. I more than respect him. I greatly appreciate his and your "pat on the back". Honestly, if he were to break down the English, I sure will miss him. Hei Doc, Don't change the English. Keep me running for the dictionary, before long you'd have assisted in improving my communication. Thank you all, King T! |
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15 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 222666 | ||
My Dearly Beloved Doc, I still maintain that these decrees are based on man's interpretation of the Word of God. They may be old and are a commonly held by the Church, but still they were derived by man from the Bible based on man's understanding of the Scripture. When I first read your response (at a glance that is), I almost chose to let this issue to just “die”. I thought we weren't going anywhere with this discussion. I also thought I needed to seek for more revelation and direction on how best to express myself on the subject, but on second thought, I think it is not a question of my expressing myself. I think this is just a wonderful discussion worth exploring further. Also, your current response does not show anything to make me think you misunderstood me. If I may say it myself, I must be doing fairly well expressing myself. Back to the subject, it is however good that the law was written, according to Romans 15:4 (KJV) "For whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our learning, that we through patience and comfort of the scriptures might have hope." Reading another book in alongside what Paul just said to the Romans, "But certain individuals have missed the mark on this very matter [and] have wandered away into vain arguments and discussions and purposeless talk. They are ambitious to be doctors of the Law (teachers of the Mosaic ritual), but they have no understanding either of the words and terms they use or of the subjects about which they make [such] dogmatic assertions. Now we recognize and know that the Law is good if anyone uses it lawfully [for the purpose for which it was designed], Knowing and understanding this: that the Law is not enacted for the righteous (the upright and just, who are in right standing with God), but for the lawless and unruly, for the ungodly and sinful, for the irreverent and profane, for those who strike and beat and [even] murder fathers and strike and beat and [even] murder mothers, for manslayers,[For] impure and immoral persons, those who abuse themselves with men, kidnapers, liars, perjurers - and whatever else is opposed to wholesome teaching and sound doctrine as laid down by the glorious Gospel of the blessed God, with which I have been entrusted." 1Timothy 1:6-11 (AMP). In 2 Corinthians 5:17 (KJV) "Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new." Going by what Paul said both in 1Timothy 1:6-11 and 2 Corinthians 5:17, the Christian is not under the law. The law was never intended for the new man in Christ and I still maintain that. Westminster Confession of Faith Chapter 1, Paragraphs 6 and 10: I more than agree with the West Ministers that we need the Holy Spirit in our understanding of the Bible; you can call me one of the West Ministers in that regard. I still prefer to go by the Bible though and I still maintain that these are good scholarly man made "documents". My dictionary defines a doctrine as a set of beliefs or principles held and taught by a Church, political party, or other group. I wonder why you don't want me to refer to these man made “documents” as man made doctrines. They may be derived from the Bible, but they are still derived based on man’s own understanding and interpretation of the Bible. From where I stand, they are man made doctrines. Kindly shed in more light why they are not man made doctrines. Thank you for being such an excellent teacher, unfortunately I have to disagree with you on the law. Stay so blessed, King T! |
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16 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 222672 | ||
P.S. Galatians 3:24-25 (NIV) "So the law was put in charge to lead us to Christ that we might be justified by faith. Now that faith has come, we are no longer under the supervision of the law." Galatians 3:24-25 (NLT) "Let me put it another way. The law was our guardian until Christ came; it protected us until we could be made right with God through faith. And now that the way of faith has come, we no longer need the law as our guardian." Thank God for the NIV and NLT Bibles. King T! |
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17 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 222780 | ||
Hi Doc, Been away from the internet for some time. I got the SEC as you suggested and I did look up G1318 - didaktos, G1319 - didaskalia, G1320 - didaskalos and G1321 - didasko. Thanks man, and may I ask what you do, as in your profession. I know this is a Bible study forum, but I just got curious. I hope I am not being too personal, and I will understand should you choose to answer this question. Stay blessed, King T! |
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18 | does this mean a person is unforgiven | NT general | King T | 223002 | ||
Hi Doc, Been away in the farm. Setting up some project somewhere out in the bush and far from the internet. Judging by the number of years in your field, I'm truly humbled. I know we are Christian now, but in my "culture" it is disallowed to speak up to an elder like I did, even when one thinks he is right. Anyway for the common good of the Gospel, disagreements are inevitable. I hope I did not sound disrespectful in any way. Well, I speak several languages grouped into two; that is, Zulu, Xhosa, Siswati and Sindebe - grouped as Nguni, and Setswana (Tswana) and Sesotho (Sotho) - grouped as Sotho-Tswana. These are grouped according to their similarities. Of course there are several others that I understand and speak though not with fluency. English will be my third after the two group categories. Of course I am in Southern Africa and a farmer. Thank you for asking and sorry for the delayed response. I see you had been extremely busy in the forum. May the good Lord richly bless you with abundance for all the good work that you are rendering to His flock. Stay blessed, King T! |
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19 | Why is Jesus addressed as Son of David? | NT general | King T | 240530 | ||
Hi Emma... I had asked an almost similar question some time last week, though I asked it differently. A very learned friend of mine led me to this portion of the Scripture; "I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star." Rev 22:16 [KJV]. It worked for me, I hope it works for you too. In short, because He is what they called Him. Much Blessings |
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20 | man stoned for getting wood on sunday ? | Num 15:32 | King T | 222782 | ||
Numbers 15:32-36. Well there have been several arguments about the Sabbath day, but the Bible does not exactly say whether it was a Sunday, but it says on a Sabbath day or on a Worship day. At least the KJV and GW uses those words respectively. The AMP and NASB uses Sabbath day. Stay blessed, King T! |
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