Results 1 - 20 of 33
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Biynah Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Who is Yeshua HaMachiack? The Christ? | Not Specified | Biynah | 47798 | ||
Who is Yeshua HaMachiack and could He be the Christ? | ||||||
2 | 2 followups, masturbation and 1Cor7:2-5 | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 46168 | ||
Contrary to the opinion of Makarios I must submit my response. Masterbation is not a sin. The Bible never calls it a sin. If anyone calls it a sin he adds to God's word. And we ought to be careful not to do that. In the sight of Makarios, not God, masturbation is sinful. If it were sinful then God would have specifically told us so. Would he omit that if it was something we could be damned for. Of course not. Does God leave it up to us to decide what is sin or not? Of course not. But There hath no temptation taken you but such as is common to man: but God is faithful, who will not suffer you to be tempted above that ye are able; but will with the temptation also make a way to escape, that ye may be able to bear it 1 Corinthians 10:13. Now it is a sin to fornicate. But God provided us an escape from fornication and that is masturbation. Would God have given us so great a sex drive if we could not bear the temptation. And indeed that temptation could be unbearable if it were not for our ability to release the pressure on our bodies by masturbation. Masturbation is not a sin. There are enough sins for us to avoid without us making up more sins to deal with. But this we know, "If any man thinks it a sin and then does it ... for him it is a sin" Paul says this somewhere. Now masturbation in connection with pornography adds the element of lust -- which is a sin. But masturbation soley for the relief of sexual frustration is not a sin. |
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3 | QUESTION CONCERNING KING CYRUS | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 46170 | ||
Part of the initiation of the Jewish Kings were the annointing with oil. This was also true with the High Priest. This symbolized that God had placed them in this high position. In Isaiah 45:1 we are told that God appointed Cyrus to be king. At this time Cyrus was the ruler of most of the ancient world -- including the Jews (therefore God's appointment of this king is crucial -- for no one can rule over God's people unless He appoints them). Now, it appears that you are somehow coorelating annointing with oil to be equal with the Holy Spirit. While in some cases oil represents the Holy Spirit -- it does not always. So for God to stir up his Spirit in Ezra and for God to have purposely chosen and appointed Cyrus are two different things. | ||||||
4 | HOW COULD JESUS BE A DESCENDANT OF DAVID | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 46171 | ||
That is simple. He had an earthly mother who was a descendant of David. And he was adopted by Joseph which meant he entered the lineage of his adopted father. Not to mention that God is the Father of us all -- and also was the father of David as well. | ||||||
5 | Why is the Apocrypha not included? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 46172 | ||
The Old and New Testaments were considered Inspired Scripture because they passed certain test that proved they were spoken by God. The Apocrypha did not pass these test. Who made the test? The top biblical scholars of the day put the scriptures to some very difficult test. For the Old Testament it was a council of rabbi's. For the New Testament it was a Church council. The Apocrypha contained error's, false doctrines, or lacked any inspirational value, but most importantly did not have the voice of God we all hear when we read the Holy Scriptures. The Apocrypha was included in some Catholic Bibles but were never canonized like the Holy Scriptures were. The Apocrypha are considered Pseudo in nature. While they have no scriptural value they do have a historical value. For instance the Book of the Macabee's tell us what happened during those 400 silent years that stretched between the Old and New Testaments. In those years there was a famine of God's Word upon the land. |
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6 | Is Hades Hell? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 46173 | ||
The Greek equivalent of our English word Hell was Hades. This is one of the words Jesus used to describe hell. The other word was Gehenna. But the Greeks also had many legends of an underworld they called Hades -- which is not the same Hades that Jesus talked about. | ||||||
7 | 2 followups, masturbation and 1Cor7:2-5 | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 46239 | ||
Dear Makarios: Masturbation is certainly nothing new. And of course they had a word for it back then. Yes, sexual immorality is considered sin in the Bible. But the immorality is always mentioned between two participants -- homosexuals, man and animal, adultery, whoredom, etc. The Bible never mentions anything about masturbation. I would say that your personal bias lends to your strong point of view on this. But we should all be very careful about adding to God's Word. Which of us have the mind of God that we can fill in the blanks for Him? If He didn't say it -- we can't say that He did. Many false doctrines abound on filling in those blanks and taking scripture out of context. The Bible says, "Work out your own salvation with fear and trembling." Each of us are on this path. And where God is silent on certain issues we must decide for ourselves if it is pleasing to Him or not -- or if it is a personal matter that God gives us liberty in deciding for ourselves. Paul addressed this when he spoke of eating meats that were sacrificed to idols. For those who believed it was sin -- to him it was sin. For those who exercised liberty -- to him it was permitted. This my friend is one of those issues. If it is sin to you -- indeed it is sin to you. But if our brother who posed the question has liberty in this thing -- then we should not cause him to fall because of our personal feelings. You have offered no scripture that proves God meant or inferred that masturbation is a sin or sexual immorality -- although it is clear that you strongly feel in yourself that it is. You cannot rationally link masturbation to sexual immorality -- it involves no other person. But it basically boils down to what Paul was asked about eating meat sacrificed to idols. This appears to some men to be sin. To others it appears to be no problem at all. So this to is an individual issue. If you are convicted that this is sin then it is sin for you. But to our friend who sees nothing wrong with it -- should we undermine his faith and perhaps cause him to err? I appreciate your answer to my comment. I was hoping that you would answer. And I accept your position as being right for you. But I think too, that the Holy Spirit will guide our brother into the path that he should go. He now has two opinions. I hope that he is edified in what we have shared with him. And I hope to hear from you again. I only check into this forum on Fri, Sat, and Sun. So be patient in hearing from me if you still wish to challenge this position. |
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8 | Is Hades Hell? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 46240 | ||
Dear Cyclist: I'm glad to hear from you. I am not aware of a personal profile. But of course, I will fill it in if you instruct me on how to find it. I only check into this forum on Fri., Sat., and Sun. So be patient in waiting for my answer if you leave a note for me before then. Your brother in Christ, Biynah |
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9 | Is Hades Hell? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47015 | ||
Dear Cyclist: I have updated my profile. Thanks for telling me how. Biynah |
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10 | 2 followups, masturbation and 1Cor7:2-5 | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47057 | ||
Markarios: You used the following verses to support your position that the Bible says that masturbation is sin: 1 Corinthians 6:18 "Flee immorality. Every other sin that a man commits is outside the body, but the immoral man sins against his own body I am sure you are aware that the New Testament was not written in English. It was written in Greek and later translated into English. The Greek word for immorality is "pornea". The English word immorality is not an equivalent to "pornea". The term immorality is vague and tends to lead one to think in a broader sense. The Greek word that Paul used denotes incest, adultery, and whoredom. It does not mean masturbation. To include masturbation under the umbrella of immorality is a language error. Sinning against your own body means engaging in the immoral conduct herein mentioned. That conduct specifically refers to whoredom, but could rightly include adultery and incest. But not masturbation. In your reference to Genesis 39:12, you are reading more into it than there is. Joseph fled from the temptation of adultery not the temptation to masturbate. Your use of Proverbs 7:23 to prove that masturbation is a sin is inappropriate because this scripture speaks of a man yielding to a harlot--not to masturbation. In 1 Corinthians 7:8-9, Paul is instructing those unable to contain themselves from sexual relationships. He advises that such people should marry. There is no hint he is talking about masturbation. And Matthew 5:27-30 is a teaching of Jesus, which basically teaches that the sin of adultery starts in a lustful heart. Jesus is not discussing masturbation but adultery. 1 Cor. 6:18 Fleeing sexual immorality here is talking about engaging with a prostitute which is a sin against your own body. Again, nothing about masturbation. 1 Corinthians 7:4 Paul addresses the fact that it is not right for a man or woman to deny each other sexual relations after marriage. Nothing is said or implied about masturbation. Now my friend, the scriptures you used do not in any way address masturbation, and so they do not in any way support your belief that masturbation is a sin. Your error appears to be a simple misunderstanding of words and terms. You have interpreted sexual immorality to include masturbation. And perhaps your experience justifies such an interpretation. But sexual immorality does not include masturbation. For the Bible clearly makes known in the Law of Moses what sexual immorality is. Anything not specifically mentioned cannot be included as immoral. Masturbation does not have to include lust. It can act as a release mechanism to keep one from lusting. But my intent is not to dissuade you from believing that masturbation is a sin. For you it is a sin. The Bible never says that masturbation is sin. This is what I want you to see. We must not preach the Word of God out of context. It is most Holy. And we cannot use it to stretch our position or prove a point that it does not say. God's Word is very plain. We must take it for what it says. We get into trouble, when we add or subtract to it, or try to make it mean what we want it to mean. Biynah |
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11 | Why did Noah get drunk? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47117 | ||
David, Drinking wine was a part of every day life in ancient cultures. There was nothing taboo about it then -- although there is now. Jesus himself was called a winebibber and a glutton. Matthew 11:19 KJV. The Bible does not condemn drinking wine. The Bible does however have something to say about drunkenness. Now culturally, there were times that it was acceptable to get stinking drunk. This happened during a time of celebration. Our culture is more aware of the negative aspects of drinking. We often ignore the positive aspects of drinking that the Bible refers to. for instance Psalm 104:14-17 14 He causeth the grass to grow for the cattle, and herb for the service of man: that he may bring forth food out of the earth; 15 And wine that maketh glad the heart of man, and oil to make his face to shine, and bread which strengtheneth man's heart. 16 The trees of the LORD are full of sap; the cedars of Lebanon, which he hath planted. Here we see that God causes the grass to grow, and the herbs, and wine to make the heart of man glad. If Jesus drank wine ... the mere act of drinking wine cannot be considered sin. If God supplies wine to make the heart of man glad -- it cannot be all bad. But substance abuse is what the Bible condemns. When the substance has control of the man rather than the man having control of the substance. The Bible does not say that Noah sinned in getting drunk. But it was Ham that sinned by looking upon his fathers nakedness. Now communion in the first century church drank from a cup of wine -- not grape juice as we do today. And today Jews still celebrate passover with wine. Medical doctors today recognize that drinking wine in moderation is good for the body and helps circulation. As you read through the Bible you will find that people drank wine like we do milk. And not just the bad people. All the prophets including Jesus Himself. Biynah |
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12 | Unbaptized children | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47121 | ||
Baptism is not a condition of salvation. It is an act of obedience and a ceremony of initiation. That part of the answer is easy. As for whether all children are in heaven or not that is a more difficult question to answer. The Bible does not address this. So none of us have the right to speculate. As Christian's we have faith that God is just and good. And that whatever He decides will be just. Many well meaning pastors give us the easy pat answer that all children who die are in heaven. We really can't know that. But to be honest, our hope is not in going to heaven. While the Bible say's "to be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord."(2 Corinthians 5:8 KJV) -- which of course we shall be -- in spirit. Our hope is of the resurrection of our physical body. And that physical body shall live on a new earth. Our spirit shall be present with the Lord until that day of resurrection. Then we shall be resurrected in His likeness and be with him physically as well as in spirit. Alot of our understanding of heaven comes down from myth's that permeated the Church throughout the ages. Most of those myths are based on Greek mythology. Yet we've come to accept these things as though the Bible says them -- when it does not. The real theme throughout the Bible is the attainment of the resurrection - not heaven. |
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13 | did the wine from the water make you dr | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47123 | ||
All wine can make you drunk. The wine that Jesus made from water was said to be better then the wine that was previous offered to the guest. Why would it lack in the abillity to make one drunk? The Bible speaks negatively about men who are controlled by the substance. But does not condemn the man who is in control of the substance. Although the Bible speaks negatively about the drunkard the Bible also speaks positively about wine (see Psalm 104:13-15). Jesus drank wine. All of the prophets and men of God drank wine. Some of them got drunk. Wine was used in communion services. People drank wine then as we do milk today. Wine unlike other alcoholic beverages of today is actually good for the body. It aids in our circulation and digestion. So I ask again, why would not the wine that Jesus made be of less quality then the wine that makes you drunk? | ||||||
14 | where do blacks come from? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47127 | ||
God created all men. All men are the descendants of Adam. What race was Adam? We can't be sure ...but there is a hint in the Bible. All names in the Bible have an interpretation and a meaning. The name Adam in Hebrew actually means: "taken from red earth". So, perhaps Adam was red skinned. But regardless of skin color (which is really only the degree of pigmentation caused by our environment)-- it really doesn't matter. No race is inferior. | ||||||
15 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47131 | ||
When the apostles were gathered together and first spoke in tongues they spoke in discernable languages. The Bible says, "every man heard them speak in his own language." (Acts 2:6) Paul later tells us that some speak in an unknown tongue. Is the gift of speaking in tongues for today? This is hard to say. All the gifts of the Spirit were given to fulfill the purpose of spreading the gospel - and to cause others to believe. I have attended pentacostal meetings that claimed to speak in tongues -- but did they really? I sensed a spirit of confusion and not the Holy Spirit whom I know personally. I saw pentacostals act in ways unbecoming and disorderly. I saw them live like devils all week and become holy on Sunday. I saw them claim to heal sickness that was never truly healed. I saw them ask for healings for headaches. If I were the pastor I would have said take an asprin. Can God do all these things. Yes! Will he do it to glorify man? No! Through a truly humble man who ministers in humility, and when there is a need to further the gospel, He will do these things. But to the proud and the arrogant and the haughty he will allow them to be caught up in their own folly and foolishness. Because of this, these things, if present, will be seen seldom in today's church. | ||||||
16 | Is being "slain in the spirit" biblical? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47133 | ||
Markarios: I'm glad that we can agree on this matter of being slain in the spirit. Neither have I ever found it anywhere in the Bible. I did go forward at a Pentecostal meeting one time. The Pastor is the famous Ernest Angley, you may have heard of him, or seen him on television. The man hit me in the head so hard I did stumble backward. I had a headache for almost a day afterward. But the experience definitely was not real. This is one of those things that is definitely subjective. Neither did I ever see this man perform an actual genuine miracle. In fact, he has an invalid section in his church and he avoids it like the plague. It was very sad when I witnessed a girl in a wheel chair go up with full expectation of walking out of the church only to be disapointed. One of his favorite miracles is restoring the sense of smell. Funny. I didn't know that many people had this problem. He manifest the miracle by holding a hankerchief drenched with cologne under the nose of the recipient. Naturally, whether they can smell or not they react. The fumes would irritate the mucous membranes. Your friend and brother, Biynah |
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17 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47138 | ||
Retxar: I too am glad that the truth of God's Word is not established by my experience, my lack of experience, my observations, or the way I try to live it ... yes, we would all then be in trouble then. But the answer to the question you asked can only be answered through a discernment of the spirits. This is a gift of the Spirit mentioned in 1 Cor. 12:10 "To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues:" And a very necessary gift to, because 1 John 4:1 says: "Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world." Jesus said, Ye shall know them by their fruits. Do men gather grapes of thorns, or figs of thistles? Matthew 7:16. Now, all these things require observation, do they not? And so does the answer to your question. Since there is not a case in the scripture that tells us whether speaking in tongues is for today. We know for sure it was for the Apostalic times. But is it for today? It was your question, after all. How do you expect to find the answer without observation or discernment. Have you seen any real evidence of this? Have you experienced this? If so discern what you've seen or experienced. But if you have no discernment, and do not sensibly use the 5 senses God gave you in order to discern, and use His Word to guide you ... you will be led around by every wind of doctrine whether it be true or false. God does not expect us to be blind, deaf, or dumb -- as some Christians feel they must be lest they offend someone. I am not afraid to offend those who have faked it or those who operate through counterfeit spririts. I know the Word of God because the Holy Spirit has revealed it to me because of constant seeking and humbleness of spirit. The Holy Spirit also gave unto me a gift of discernment. I know truth from falsehood. And I am bold to proclaim the truth or expose a lie. I have proclaimed to you that I have seen the lie. This I know for certain. I have asked God the same thing. Is speaking in tongues for today? His answer to me is that he will not glorify man. But he will honor the humble in spirit who seek to glorify Him. Perhaps you should ask God for yourself. He does speak to you doesn't He? Praise God! Biynah |
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18 | 2 followups, masturbation and 1Cor7:2-5 | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47785 | ||
Emmaus: God created the male to produce millions of sperm cells per day. Now these sperm cells build up in the male and make him rather uncomfortable. The temptation to lust increases as the sperm count rises. Now how can the sperm count be reduced? We are provided with a release mechanism. No lust is necessary. And it is not the same as an alcoholic taking a drink. And yes, I agree, that the sexual expression with your spouse is preferable -- but not always availabe. And what if you tend not to be married? Or are away from your spouse? Say you serve in the armed forces. What then? Allow your body to control you? Or control your body. Sperm production doesn't stop just because your away from your wife. And the higher the sperm count the more likely you are to lust. Still, you've yet to provide a Bible reference to prove masturbation equals lust -- or that masturbation itself is sin. If a man has problems with lust it is a problem of the heart. I suppose most men are afflicted by this lust issue you are talking about and that is why you and Makarios bring it up. After all, our society is littered with sex ads and all sorts of lewd materials that we encounter from the grocery store checkout to bill boards and television commercials. But I am referring to the healthy adult male unaffected by these things. |
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19 | 2 followups, masturbation and 1Cor7:2-5 | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47797 | ||
Makarios my friend, The word Makarios is Greek. I assume you know a little about Greek since you chose this as your user name. I explained to you that the Greek word for immorality is pornea. And that this word does not include masturbation as a definition. As for Websters dictionary it does nothing to help your cause. Does Webster by any chance say that masturbation is immoral, or sinful? If not, why do you even bother to say that it takes a secular source to prove this to me! I'm very surprised that you understand the scriptures you cited as you do. It shows you are young in the Word. I also blame it on your Bible translation and your bias, and the possibility that you looked up immorality in a concordance to prove your point rather than using the scripture in the light of its proper context. While a concordance is a useful tool ... it should never be abused to the point of using a particular verse out of context. Since the Bible is silent concerning masturbation the burden is not upon me to prove that the Bible says masturbation is okay. The burden is on you to prove it is sin. You have not. I do not rely on any one verse or even a number of verses that I look up in a concordance to support my understanding. I rely on the Bible as a whole from Genesis to Revelation -- and all that the Bible has to say on the subject. And the Bible is silent concerning masturbation. If masturbation was immoral it would have been noted in the Books of Moses. All other sexual sin was specifically mentioned and was not generalized under the term immorality. I hope you have read every word of the Books of Moses so you can know this truth. I will agree with you that masturbation does defile a man. But defilement is not a sin. The remedy for being defiled because your sperm comes out from you is to wash your flesh with water and be unclean until evening (see Leviticus 15:16-17). But the remedy for sin was a blood sacrifice. Unfortunately, you show ignorance in that you do not understand the Biblical difference between sin and defilement. If you don't know something -- why puff your self up as if you do? You are not answerable to me. You are answerable to God. As am I. The issue of whether masturbation is a sin will not be such an important matter when we stand before Him. But our integrity in handling God's Word will be. "But I say unto you, That every idle word that men shall speak, they shall give account thereof in the day of judgment." (Matthew 12:36). I sought to advise you on your mishandling and misinterpreation of God's Word. Not to prove to you that masturbation is not sin. Because it is for you -- and I would not want to cause you to stumble. It is you who must repent for misusing God's Word. I am sure it is not intentional. But nevertheless -- it can be just as harmful to another as if it were intentional. I shall continue to pray for you my friend. For your zeal is good. But you need wisdom and discernment. --Biynah By the way, I have a wonderful wife, so the issue of masturbation is not something I have to repent of. I never supported this issue for a personal need to masturbate as your text seems to presuppose. But I have supported this subject because you have grossly misused the Bible to prove your personal bias. |
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20 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47799 | ||
Dear John: I attended a very interesting Bible Study once where they asked the question: How does God speak to you? The women were separated from the men and were asked the same question. And notes were compared when the two groups came back together. This was not a pentecostal group. It was, believe it or not, a Luthern group. The men were a bit reluctant to share this experience. But little by little as each man opened up they all began to relate a similar account. My answer then, as it is to you now, explained that when God speaks to me I feel a still small voice in my heart. It is not an audible voice. And the experience is hard to explain. How do you feel speech? Yet this is the best way to describe it. And I think it is in keeping with, 1 Kings 19:11-13, which says: 11 And he said, Go forth, and stand upon the mount before the LORD. And, behold, the LORD passed by, and a great and strong wind rent the mountains, and brake in pieces the rocks before the LORD; but the LORD was not in the wind: and after the wind an earthquake; but the LORD was not in the earthquake: 12 And after the earthquake a fire; but the LORD was not in the fire: and after the fire a still small voice. 13 And it was so, when Elijah heard it, that he wrapped his face in his mantle, and went out, and stood in the entering in of the cave. And, behold, there came a voice unto him, and said, What doest thou here, Elijah? The next question, how do I know it is the Lord speaking to me? John 10:27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me: Why does the Lord speak to me? 1. To warn me of danger 2. To tell me to give someone a message 3. In answer to prayer 4. To reveal understanding of His Word. When does the Lord speak to me? Usually when I speak to Him. But sometimes when I am not speaking to Him Most of the Lutherns in the study group described experiences that were very similar. I suppose each man hesitated because of the stigma that is associated with hearing voices nowadays. Most of these men were professionals, engineers, doctors, authors, etc. And it was very humbling for them to open up their hearts under the circumstances. I hope you asked for the same reason we all shared with each other. To confirm your own experience with hearing God speak to you. |
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