Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Notes Author: obstacle1 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | MANIFEST FATHERS NAME | Ps 83:18 | obstacle1 | 150030 | ||
Its very simple to know which one (Jehovah or Yahweh) you should use. Yahweh is God's personal name in hebrew. Jehovah is God's name translated into English. In Hebrew, Jesus would be closer to “Yehóshua” and Christ would be “Mashíahh.” So, as we say “Jesus Christ” in the English language, we also say “Jehovah,” both being correct when speaking English. So we use the name in te language we speak in. It would be silly to use Yahweh when speaking English because some say it is more "holy". Would use Juan(spanish rendering of John)when speaking about someone named John? Of course not. |
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2 | John 1:1 and the word was a god | John 1:1 | obstacle1 | 150028 | ||
I congraulate you for stating Bibically how Jesus is indeed Michael, the archangel. In summary, Micheal is given a kingdom in which he will rule all the people. Jesus is also given a kingdom in which he will rule all the people.(Mt. 28:18) Both are given the same kingdom, Jesus has a voice of an archangel in 1 Thes. 4:16, both are said to reign during a times of distress (Dan. 12:1; Mt. 28:18) and both are said to the the head of all the angels.(Rev. 12:7; Mt. 13:41) |
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3 | Where is Jesus called "...the God"? | John 1:1 | obstacle1 | 150026 | ||
"No man has seen God (who is Spirit) at any time but the Son has explained Him." I'm glad you quoted that text. It clearly explains NO ONE at ANY TIME has EVER seen God, bu they have seen Jesus. It tells how both are different. Rev. 3:14- "And to the angel of the congregation in Laodicea write: These are the things that the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God." |
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4 | Jesus and Jehovah-same subject? | John 1:1 | obstacle1 | 150024 | ||
According to John 1:1 in some bibles, the Word was God. First of all, how can the Word be God if he was with God as stated in the same verse?The literal word "God or god" in reference to Jesus is used to mean he is a might divine being not God himself. Does the idea that Jesus Christ is “a god” conflict with the Scriptural teaching that there is only one God? (1 Cor. 8:5, 6) Not at all. At times the Hebrew Scriptures employ the term for God, ’elo·him´, with reference to mighty creatures. At Psalm 8:5, for example, we read: “You also proceeded to make him [man] a little less than godlike ones.” (Hebrew, ’elohim´; “a god,” New English Bible, Jerusalem Bible) The Greek Septuagint Version renders elo·him´ here as “angels.” The Jewish translators of this version saw no conflict with monotheism in applying the term for God to created spirit persons. (Compare Hebrews 2:7, 9.) Similarly, Jews of the first century C.E. found no conflict with their belief in one God at Psalm 82, though verses 1 and 6 of this psalm utilize the word ’elo·him´ (the·oi´, plural of the·os´, Septuagint) with reference to human judges.—Compare John 10:34-36. Jesus Christ, according to the Scriptures, is “the image of the invisible God.” (Col. 1:15) Yet Christians with a heavenly calling expect to bear Christ’s image in its fullness, becoming partakers of “divine nature,” when they get to heaven. (2 Pet. 1:4; 1 Cor. 15:49; Phil. 3:21) They have already gotten a start toward this by the spiritual “new birth” while yet on earth. (1 Pet. 1:3, 4) This, however, does not mean that they will be coequal with God. Nor does Jesus’ then having “divine nature” with them mean that for him. The translation “a god” at John 1:1 does no injustice to Greek grammar. Nor does it conflict with the worship of the One whom the resurrected Jesus Christ called “my God” and to whom Jesus himself is subject.—John 20:17 Rev. 3:2, 12; 1 Cor. 11:3; 15:28. As for Hebrews 1:8-12, take a look at verse 9: "THEREFORE GOD, YOUR GOD, HAS ANOINTED YOU WITH THE OIL OF GLADNESS ABOVE YOUR COMPANIONS." However, believers in the Trinity prefer the Authorized Version, or King James Version, which renders Hebrews 1:8 this way: “But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever.” Thus, they feel that Jesus is shown to be the same as Almighty God. Why is this not correct? First, note the context. In many translations, either in the main text or in the margin, Hebrews 1:9 reads, “God, your God, anointed you.” This makes it clear that the one addressed in verse eight is not God, but one who worships God and is anointed by him. Why would God annoint himself? Secondly, it should be noted that Hebrews 1:8, 9 is a quotation from Psalm 45:6, 7, which originally was addressed to a human king of Israel. Surely the writer of this psalm did not think that this human king was Almighty God and neither did the writer of Hebrews think that Jesus was Almighty God. It is scarcely possible that God [‘Elo·him´, “God”] in the original can be addressed to the Jesus. Thus on the whole it seems best to adopt in the first clause the rendering: God is Thy throne (or, Thy throne is God), that is ‘Thy kingdom is founded upon God.' With good reason, therefore, the New World Translation and a number of other translations render Hebrews 1:8 as, “God is your throne.” (See An American Translation, Moffatt; also the marginal reading in American Standard Version, Revised Standard Version and The New English Bible.) This makes it clear that the “Son,” Jesus Christ, has a God who is higher than he is. ----------- One text that totally disproves the trinity: John 1:18- No man has EVER seen God at any time. People saw Jesus but NEVER God. |
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5 | Only 144,000 virgins in heaven? | Revelation | obstacle1 | 150021 | ||
Practically all of what the Watchtower Organization as you claim "teaches" is in accordance with the Bible. The trinity, eternal hellfire and all that Jw's believe in is scriptually correct. | ||||||