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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | reconcile Mark 6:8 and Luke 9:3 | Mark 6:8 | ebrain | 188629 | ||
Hi Tim. Please show me the verses in Jeremiah, to which Matthew is referring, in Mat 26:15, Matt 27:3, and Matt 27:9 which I quoted. Thank you. Edwin. |
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2 | reconcile Mark 6:8 and Luke 9:3 | Mark 6:8 | ebrain | 188605 | ||
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3 | why delay in 7th scroll's content?(Rev.8 | Revelation | ebrain | 188517 | ||
Hi Cheri. Thank you for your post as bellow. "From what I just read, I think that's the time that the rapture takes place. As for the time of silence, I don't know. Maybe someone else who's studied Rev. more will have an answer for us :-). blessings cheri" This is not an easy subject, but if the events described in Revelation, run in chronological order, then the rapture cannot take place at Ch 8, as the verses that precede Ch 8, and which are shown bellow indicate. Rev 6:16 And said to the mountains and rocks, Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sitteth on the throne, and from the wrath of the Lamb: Rev 6:17 For the great day of his wrath is come; and who shall be able to stand? Bless you sister. Edwin. |
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4 | Why does Jesus come as a thief? | 2 Pet 3:10 | ebrain | 188515 | ||
Hi Kalos. Thank you for your explanation, another person with whom I correspond claimed to be moving from "Pre-Trib", to "Pre-wrath", bellow is a copy of an e-mail I sent, and upon which I would value your comments. The Lord bless you.. Edwin. If by Pre-wrath, you mean that Christians are raptured before the, wrath of God is poured out on the earth, then I have no problem with that. However, the question is just when in time, does God's wrath start? There are differing views, some for example maintain that it starts in the middle of the tribulation, that is to say, it starts at the end of the first three and a half years, others think that it starts at the beginning.. Personally I am not sure, have a look at the 13 verses I posted to you running from Rev 6:16, to Rev 19:19, all of which include the word "Wrath", now I am well aware that sometimes it is speaking of the wrath of God, and sometimes the wrath of Satan. My own opinion is that there are only three Satan verses, namely Ch's 12:12, 14:8, and 18:3. And that all the other verses, ten in total refer to the wrath of God. Now it is a fact that Satan can only do what God allows him to do, and therefore, it could be argued that all that happens as a result of the outpouring of both the wrath of God, and the wrath of Satan, is as a result of the Divine will, and therefore, all seven years of the tribulation are the wrath of God, if this is the case, then both the Pre-Wrath, and the Per-Trib, position are identical?. |
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5 | Why does Jesus come as a thief? | 2 Pet 3:10 | ebrain | 188510 | ||
Thank you Kalos for your post. I have no problem with it, and am in complete agreement with the sentiments you express. You will note that what I had to say, was a copy of a post I sent to another site, namely http://www.biblestudy.com/biblestudy/ and was not intended as a reply to yours, but merely to say something more about "wrath". It is comforting to have the input of another "Pre-Trib", believer. Ken Smith has posted extensively on this other site, you might be interested to read what he has had to say, and perhaps even make a contribution yourself. Every blessing. Edwin. |
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6 | Why does Jesus come as a thief? | 2 Pet 3:10 | ebrain | 188501 | ||
Hi Kalos. The following post which I submitted to another Bible Study web site, and which includes a reference to "wrath", might be of interest to you. May the Lord bless you abundantly, and keep you safe. Edwin. Dear Ken. The extracts bellow are taken from two of your posts, and I would like to comment on them as follow "I'm not sure what you are trying to say with this. I understand 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 to be referring to Jesus second advent which occurs at the end of the tribulation period, and therefore at the beginning of the 1000 year reign". "We are living in the age of grace now, but I don't know of any scripture that shows that the age of grace ends before Jesus' return at the end of the tribulation period. Revelation 20:4-6 which I briefly discussed in previous posts shows that the Church is in the tribulation period. We know that people are getting saved during the tribulation period and that at least some of them are giving their lives for their faith. We see this in the great multitude that came out of "great tribulation" in Revelation 7:9-17 and in the resurrection of believers that occurs at Jesus' second advent in Revelation 20:4-6". If the "Rapture", was, "at the end of the tribulation period", as you say, then it would be possible to know the day on which it was to occur, whereas Jesus said "no one knows the day", which means it must be the first event, and therefore come before the start of the tribulation, and not at the end of it.. Furthermore, the word, "Wrath", is found 13 times in the book of the Revelation, and at least 10 of these refer to the "wrath of God".. How can you possibly maintain that Christians will be in the tribulation in the light of the following verses?. 1Th 1:10 and to wait for His Son from heaven, whom He raised from the dead, even Jesus who delivers us from the wrath to come. 1Th 5:9 For God did not appoint us to wrath, but to obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ, Rom 5:9 Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from wrath through Him. Verses containing the word "wrath". Rev 6:16 And said to the mountains and rocks, Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sitteth on the throne, and from the wrath of the Lamb: Rev 6:17 For the great day of his wrath is come; and who shall be able to stand? Rev 11:18 And the nations were angry, and thy wrath is come, and the time of the dead, that they should be judged, and that thou shouldest give reward unto thy servants the prophets, and to the saints, and them that fear thy name, small and great; and shouldest destroy them which destroy the earth. Rev 12:12 Therefore rejoice, [ye] heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time. Rev 14:8 And there followed another angel, saying, Babylon is fallen, is fallen, that great city, because she made all nations drink of the wine of the wrath of her fornication. Rev 14:10 The same shall drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is poured out without mixture into the cup of his indignation; and he shall be tormented with fire and brimstone in the presence of the holy angels, and in the presence of the Lamb: Rev 14:19 And the angel thrust in his sickle into the earth, and gathered the vine of the earth, and cast [it] into the great winepress of the wrath of God. Rev 15:1 And I saw another sign in heaven, great and marvellous, seven angels having the seven last plagues; for in them is filled up the wrath of God. Rev 15:7 And one of the four beasts gave unto the seven angels seven golden vials full of the wrath of God, who liveth for ever and ever. Rev 16:1 And I heard a great voice out of the temple saying to the seven angels, Go your ways, and pour out the vials of the wrath of God upon the earth. Rev 16:19 And the great city was divided into three parts, and the cities of the nations fell: and great Babylon came in remembrance before God, to give unto her the cup of the wine of the fierceness of his wrath. Rev 18:3 For all nations have drunk of the wine of the wrath of her fornication, and the kings of the earth have committed fornication with her, and the merchants of the earth are waxed rich through the abundance of her delicacies. Rev 19:15 And out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron: and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God. Every blessing. pabrain |
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7 | Are there any scriptures for the rapture | 2 Pet 3:10 | ebrain | 188359 | ||
Hi Cheri. Thank you for your kind words, perhaps you will enjoy this post as well. Regards. Edwin. One of the reasons why I support the "Pre-Trib", position, is because of what our Lord Jesus said, as recorded by Matthew, and Luke, see bellow. Mat 24:37 "But as the days of Noah were, so also will the coming of the Son of Man be. Mat 24:38 "For as in the days before the flood, they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noah entered the ark, Mat 24:39 "and did not know until the flood came and took them all away, so also will the coming of the Son of Man be. Mat 24:40 "Then two men will be in the field: one will be taken and the other left. Mat 24:41 "Two women will be grinding at the mill: one will be taken and the other left. Luk 17:26 "And as it was in the days of Noah, so it will be also in the days of the Son of Man: Luk 17:27 "They ate, they drank, they married wives, they were given in marriage, until the day that Noah entered the ark, and the flood came and destroyed them all. Luk 17:28 "Likewise as it was also in the days of Lot: They ate, they drank, they bought, they sold, they planted, they built; Luk 17:34 "I tell you, in that night there will be two men in one bed: the one will be taken and the other will be left. Luk 17:35 "Two women will be grinding together: the one will be taken and the other left. Luk 17:36 "Two men will be in the field: the one will be taken and the other left."[fn4] I could be wrong of course, but it seems to me that what Jesus was saying is that Noah was "taken", (a picture of the rapture), whereas the others were "left", and were drowned.. In Luke's account, he ads the example of Lot being "taken out", of Sodom, whereas the others were "left", to be destroyed.. Also I feel that my understanding is supported by the Scripture verse bellow. 1Sa 15:6 Then Saul said to the Kenites, "Go, depart, get down from among the Amalekites, lest I destroy you with them. For you showed kindness to all the children of Israel when they came up out of Egypt." So the Kenites departed from among the Amalekites. |
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8 | Are there any scriptures for the rapture | 2 Pet 3:10 | ebrain | 188182 | ||
Hi Cheri. I do hope you will not consider me patronizing when I say how much I enjoyed reading your post, your insight is most refreshing. Allow me to support your understanding with the material bellow. John the Baptist was proclaiming, "a Conqueror, not a Servant", see the following verses. Mat 3:7 But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees coming to his baptism, he said to them, "Brood of vipers! Who warned you to flee from the wrath to come? Mat 3:10 "And even now the ax is laid to the root of the trees. Therefore every tree which does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire. Mat 3:12 "His winnowing fan is in His hand, and He will thoroughly clean out His threshing floor, and gather His wheat into the barn; but He will burn up the chaff with unquenchable fire." Now read the passage in Luke Ch 7 from verse 12, through verse 28, and you will note that John's disciples reported to him that Jesus was only behaving as a servant, and not a Conqueror, as they were expecting from John's ministry.. That of course is why John did what is described in v 19.. You will note,however, that before Jesus answered them in v 22, He did first what is described in v 21. Now ask yourself the question why was it that after saying, "Go and report to John what you have seen and heard:", that Jesus then went on to describe what they had, just seen and heard.. Well the reason is that He was actually referring to Scripture, a passage with which He knew John would be familiar, namely. Is 35:4 Say to those with anxious heart, "Take courage, fear not. Behold, your God will come with vengeance; The recompense of God will come, But He will save you." Is 35:5 Then the eyes of the blind will be opened And the ears of the deaf will be unstopped. Is 35:6 Then the lame will leap like a deer, And the tongue of the mute will shout for joy. For waters will break forth in the wilderness And streams in the Arabah. Note that what Jesus was is in fact implying is, "I only came this first time to fulfill verses 5, and 6, whereas you John are preaching verse 4". But then you see, as verse 28 tells us John was only born once, whereas we who are in the "Kingdom",are born twice. It will not have escaped your notice, that our Lord did not speak highly of John, until after John's two disciples had departed, why was that I wonder? Blessings Edwin. |
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9 | Are there any scriptures for the rapture | 2 Pet 3:10 | ebrain | 188169 | ||
Hi M.Royal. Further to my last post on "Rapture", verses.. What follows is taken from another Bible Study web site, where I was answering someone who did not accept the "Pre-Tribulation", Rapture. Eccl 1:9 That which has been is that which will be, And that which has been done is that which will be done. So there is nothing new under the sun. In other words, the Lord's Judgments in the past are indicative of His future judgment.. For example the, "Great Tribulation". That is to say the, "Rapture", or that which is symbolic of the rapture always proceeds judgment. See the examples given bellow. The Flood. Gen 5:23 So all the days of Enoch were three hundred and sixty-five years. Gen 5:24 And Enoch walked with God; and he was not, for God took him. The destruction of Sodom. Gen 19:22 "Hurry, escape there. For I cannot do anything until you arrive there." Therefore the name of the city was called Zoar. Joseph is a wonderful type of our lord Jesus, in Gen 45, we have an account of the second visit to Joseph by his brothers. When they came the first time, they did not recognize him, when they came the second time, they did recognize him, but only after he had revealed himself to them, however, he did not do this until after he had first sent his household servants away. When Jesus came the first time, His brothers, (the Jews) did not recognize Him, when He comes the second time, they will, but not until after He sends away His servants, raptures His bride, Gen 45:1 THEN Joseph could not restrain himself before all those who stood by him, and he cried out, "Make everyone go out from me!" So no one stood with him while Joseph made himself known to his brothers. Rahab, and all her family were saved, when Jericho was destroyed, see Joshua Chapter 2, and especially verse 9. Jos 2:9 and said to the men: "I know that the LORD has given you the land, that the terror of you has fallen on us, and that all the inhabitants of the land are fainthearted because of you. The Kenites departed (a type of the rapture) before the destruction of the Amalekites 1Sa 15:6 Then Saul said to the Kenites, "Go, depart, get down from among the Amalekites, lest I destroy you with them. For you showed kindness to all the children of Israel when they came up out of Egypt." So the Kenites departed from among the Amalekites. Elijah. 2Ki 2:11 Then it happened, as they continued on and talked, that suddenly a chariot of fire appeared with horses of fire, and separated the two of them; and Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven. So he escaped the wrath of Jezebel. 1Ki 19:2 Then Jezebel sent a messenger to Elijah, saying, "So let the gods do to me, and more also, if I do not make your life as the life of one of them by tomorrow about this time." Two Events? If there is only one event, please tell me how it is it possible for every eye to see the thief in the night?. The wrath of God. Rom 5:9 Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from wrath through Him. 1Th 5:9 For God did not appoint us to wrath, but to obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ, If as some maintain, Christians are not "Raptured", before the Great Tribulation, and the Great Tribulation is the wrath of God, then why are Christians suffering the wrath of God, when the Scripture verses above, says they will not? 144,000 Jewish evangelists. Population: 6,525,170,264 (July 2006 est.) If the number of genuine article real born again Christians is a mere 1persent, of the total population, then there will be at least 65,000000, of them, which is a great many more than 144,000. now if as some maintain, Christians are not "Raptured", before the Tribulation, then please tell me why God raises up the "144,000 Jewish evangelists", when there are so many more Christians around to do the same job? ebrain. |
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10 | Who is he who restrains?ebrain. | 2 Thess 2:7 | ebrain | 188127 | ||
Every thing that is written in Scripture, must be read in context, and the context of what Paul says in verse 7 of Ch 2, must be read in view of the whole of that Chapter, and also what he had to say in his first letter to them, especially Ch 4:13-18. My attention is first drawn to verse 1 of 2 Thess 2, and "our gathering together to Him", I believe these words relate directly to, 1 Thess Ch 4:13-18, in other words the "Rapture", or it you like, our departure.. In verse 3 the word "apostsay", is used, this word can mean "falling away from", or "departing from", and in other parts of Scripture, it is used to refer to a falling away from, or a departure from the truth, however, I am convinced that here in verse 3, it means the departure of believers from earth, especially as this is what I believe Paul has in mind as seen in verse 1. It could, as some have suggested, very well be the Holy Spirit who restrains.. When the church is taken, the Holy Spirit will still be on earth. No one is able to take Him out of the way, although He might very well remove His restraint.. Note for example what He does in verses 11-12. 2 Thess 2:11 For this reason God will send upon them a deluding influence so that they will believe what is false, 2 Thess 2:12 in order that they all may be judged who did not believe the truth, but took pleasure in wickedness. Regarding, "He might very well remove His restraint", have a look at the verse bellow, and my comments thereon. 1 Cor 15:28 When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all. The Son will not, "be subjected", as no one, but no one is able to do that, however, He certainly is able to subject Himself. ebrain. |
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11 | What is apostasy? | 2 Thess 2:3 | ebrain | 187939 | ||
Continuation part 1. Remember, the Thessalonians had been led astray by the false teaching (2:2-3) that the Day of the Lord had already come. This was confusing because Paul offered great hope, in the first letter, of a departure to be with Christ and a rescue from god's wrath. Now a letter purporting to be from Paul seems to say that they would first have to go through the Day of the Lord. Paul then clarified his prior teaching by emphasizing that they had no need to worry. They could again be comforted because the departure he had discussed in his first letter, and in his teaching while with them, was still the truth. The departure of Christians to be with Christ, and the subsequent revelation of the lawless one, Paul argues, is proof that the Day of the Lord had not begun as they had thought. This understanding of apostasia makes much more sense than the view that they are to be comforted (v. 2) because a defection from the faith must precede the Day of the Lord. The entire second chapter (as well as 1 Thessalonians 4:18; 5:11) serves to comfort (see vv. 2, 3, 17), supplied by a reassurance of Christ's coming as taught in his first letter.[10] Departure and The Restrainer Since pretribulationists believe that the restrainer mentioned in verses 6 and 7 is the Holy Spirit and teaches a pre-trib rapture, then it should not be surprising to see that there is a similar progression of thought in the progression of verse 3. Allan MacRae, president of Faith Theological Seminary in a letter to Schuyler English has said the following concerning this matter: I wonder if you have noticed the striking parallel between this verse and verses 7-8, a little further down. According to your suggestion verse 3 mentions the departure of the church as coming first, and then tells of the revealing of the man of sin. In verses 7 and 8 we find the identical sequence. Verse 7 tells of the removal of the Church; verse 8 says: "And then shall that Wicked be revealed." Thus close examination of the passage shows an inner unity and coherence, if we take the word apostasia in its general sense of "departure," while a superficial examination would easily lead to an erroneous interpretation as "falling away" because of the proximity of the mention of the man of sin.[11] Kenneth Wuest, a Greek scholar from Moody Bible Institute added the following contextual support to taking apostasia as a physical departure: But then hee apostasia of which Paul is speaking, precedes the revelation of Antichrist in his true identity, and is to katechon that which holds back his revelation (2:6). The hee apostasia, therefore, cannot be either a general apostasy in Christendom which does precede the coming of Antichrist, nor can it be the particular apostasy which is the result of his activities in making himself the alone object of worship. Furthermore, that which holds back his revelation (vs. 3) is vitally connected with hoo katechoon (vs. 7), He who holds back the same event. The latter is, in my opinion, the Holy Spirit and His activities in the Church. All of which means that I am driven to the inescapable conclusion that the hee apostasia (vs. 3) refers to the Rapture of the Church which precedes the Day of the Lord, and holds back the revelation of the Man of Sin who ushers in the world-aspect of that period.[12] Conclusion The fact that apostasia most likely has the meaning of physical departure is a clear support for pretribulationism. If this is true, (Dr. Tim LaHaye and I believe that it is), then it means that a clear prophetic sequence is laid out by Paul early in his Apostolic ministry. Paul teaches in 2 Thessalonians 2 that the rapture will occur first, before the Day of the Lord commences. It is not until after the beginning of the Day of the Lord that the Antichrist is released, resulting in the events described by him in chapter 2 of 2 Thessalonians. This is the only interpretation that provides hope for a discomforted people. Maranatha! |
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12 | What is apostasy? | 2 Thess 2:3 | ebrain | 187938 | ||
Hi Vincent. Further to my previous post, which was the first part of an article given by Dr.Thomas Ice. I only posted the first part, as I thiught it would be sufficient to show that the Greek word translated "Apostasy", can have more than one meaning, as it does not appear to have done so I am now posting the rest of this article, which has been taken from the web site. "The pre-Trib Research Center". Translation History The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either "departure" or "departing." They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384); Tyndale Bible (1526); Coverdale Bible (1535); Cranmer Bible (1539); Breeches Bible (1576); Beza Bible (1583); Geneva Bible (1608).[5] This supports the notion that the word truly means "departure." In fact, Jerome's Latin translation known as the Vulgate from around the time of a.d. 400 renders apostasia with the "word discessio, meaning 'departure.'"[6] Why was the King James Version the first to depart from the established translation of "departure"? Theodore Beza, the Swiss reformer was the first to transliterate apostasia and create a new word, rather than translate it as others had done. The translators of the King James Version were the first to introduce the new rendering of apostasia as "falling away." Most English translators have followed the KJV and Beza in departing from translating apostasia as "departure." No good reason was ever given. The Use of the Article It is important to note that Paul uses a definite article with the noun apostasia. What does this mean? Davey notes the following: Since the Greek language does not need an article to make the noun definite, it becomes clear that with the usage of the article reference is being made to something in particular. In II Thessalonians 2:3 the word apostasia is prefaced by the definite article which means that Paul is pointing to a particular type of departure clearly known to the Thessalonian church.[7] Dr. Lewis provides a likely answer when he notes that the definite article serves to make a word distinct and draw attention to it. In this instance he believes that its purpose is "to denote a previous reference." "The departure Paul previously referred to was 'our being gathered to him' (v. 1) and our being 'caught up' with the Lord and the raptured dead in the clouds (1 Thess. 4:17)," notes Dr. Lewis. The "departure" was something that Paul and his readers clearly had a mutual understanding about. Paul says in verse 5, "Do you not remember that while I was still with you, I was telling you these things?" The use of the definite article would also support the notion that Paul spoke of a clear, discernable event. A physical departure, like the rapture would fit just such a notion. However, the New Testament teaches that apostasy had already arrived in the first century (cf. Acts 20:27-32; 1 Tim. 4:1-5; 2 Tim. 3:1-9; 2 Pet. 2:1-3; Jude 3-4, 17-21) and thus, such a process would not denote a clear event as demanded by the language of this passage. Understanding departure as the rapture would satisfy the nuance of this text. E. Schuyler English explains as follows: Again, how would the Thessalonians, or Christians in any century since, be qualified to recognize the apostasy when it should come, assuming, simply for the sake of this inquiry, that the Church might be on earth when it does come? There has been apostasy from God, rebellion against Him, since time began.[9] Whatever Paul is referring to in his reference to "the departure," was something that both the Thessalonian believers and he had discussed in-depth previously. When we examine Paul's first letter to the Thessalonians, he never mentions the doctrine of apostasy, however, virtually every chapter in that epistle speaks of the rapture (cf. 1:9-10; 2:19; probably 3:13; 4:13-17; 5:1-11). In these passages, Paul has used a variety of Greek terms to describe the rapture. It should not be surprising that he uses another term to reference the rapture in 2 Thessalonians 2:3. Dr. House tells us: To be continued. |
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13 | I have a problem with Mat 27:53 | Matt 27:53 | ebrain | 187917 | ||
Hi Tim. Thank you for your post, which I find most helpful. have a look at the one I posted today to Mark at 8.55 am, and let me have your comments. Edwin. |
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14 | I have a problem with Mat 27:53 | Matt 27:53 | ebrain | 187907 | ||
Thank you Mark for all your posts on this subject, perhaps you could have a look at what follows, and let me have your comments. Every blessing Edwin. Regarding this passage of Scripture, I would like to suggest the following scenario. At the time of our Lords death, or shortly thereafter, verse 52 happened, but that verse 53 did not occur until after our Lord's resurrection, my reason for saying this is influenced by an experience I had many years ago when I regained consciousness in Hospital, some nine days after being badly injured in a road crash. My first thoughts were, where am I? what is this place? what am I doing here? where are my family, do they know?.. what day is it? I also wanted something to drink, and eat,, and so on. It must have been something like that for the saints who were raised on that day. We do not know where the graves were, they could have been some distance away from the holy city, it was also only about three hours, or less from the start of the Sabbath, and the imposition of "the Sabbath days journey". You will know that when our Lord Jesus raised people back from the dead, that He said "give them something to eat", also when He Himself rose from death, that one of the first things He did was to ask for food. When a saint came out of his grave, it would not be long before he would meet someone, and be given answers to any questions he might ask. I am sure that uppermost in his mind would be a desire to be reunited with his family, his loved ones, he would most likely to want food, and drink. You will also know that when ever Jesus cleansed a leper, He told him to go and show himself to the Priests, it is not unlikely in my opinion that the those with whom the saint made contact suggested that he do the same, but not of course until after the Sabbath.. Jesus as we know rose very early on the morning of the first day of the new week, much before, I feel certain, the time the saints went into the holy city. Now we have the problem of the "first fruits", have a look please at Rom 8:23 And not only this, but also we ourselves, having the first fruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting eagerly for our adoption as sons, the redemption of our body. 1 Cor 15:20 But now Christ has been raised from the dead, the first fruits of those who are asleep. 1 Cor 15:23 But each in his own order: Christ the first fruits, after that those who are Christ's at His coming, It is clear to me that this can only refer to Christians, and not the saints described above, as they were OT, saints, the same as john the baptist who never claimed to be part of the bride of Christ, but a friend of the bridegroom. |
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15 | E-Security only for true believers? | Matt 7:21 | ebrain | 187845 | ||
Hello again Lookn4ward2Heavn. You have asked two questions: Firstly. "Are not professing to be a Christian and assurance of final salvation two different things?" Answer. No they are not, for example you yourself told us, "I still hold to be true today as a Christian", and you also refer to yourself as, "Lookn4ward2Heavn". Now tell me, how can you be "looking forward to heaven", if you have no assurance? Secondly. "Can one be a Christian and yet not have absolute and infallible assurance of final salvation?" Answer. Again no, see answer to your first question above. Tell me how could you possibly be "looking forward to heaven", if you have no absolute and infallible assurance of final salvation?" ebrain. |
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16 | I have a problem with Mat 27:53 | Matt 27:53 | ebrain | 187687 | ||
Hi Mark. Thank you for your post, as allways both wise, and prudent, it's a joy to have your input. Have a look at what follows, and let me have your comments. A contribution to the difficulty in understanding verse 53, is found in the translation from the Greek. There are no capital letters in that language, and therefore, this verse has to be rendered as, Mat 27:53 and coming out of the tombs after his resurrection they went into the holy city and appeared to many. You will note that the personal pronoun "his", is not capitalized, and although, it could refer to the resurrection of Jesus, it could equally well refer to the saints who were raised. Using the "Blue Letter Bible", I have looked at 12 different English translations and have found that 8 of them prefer, "his resurrection", they are. KJV, ESV, RSV, ASV, YOUNGS, DARBYS, WEBSTERS, and HNV, whereas only 4 of them, NKJ, NLT, NIV, and NASB, prefer, either "His resurrection", or prefer to identify the person as Jesus. Of these last 4, the NLT, is a paraphrase, and the NIV, leans in the direction of being a paraphrase, and is not considered by many Bible scholars to be a good translation. Another point worth considering is that there are at least 5 other examples given in Scripture of dead persons being raised back to life again before the resurrection of our Lord Jesus. ebrain. |
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17 | I have a problem with Mat 27:53 | Matt 27:53 | ebrain | 187673 | ||
Thank you Psalm 25 for your answer, perhaps what is written bellow will help you to see my problem. Matt 27:51 And behold, the veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom; and the earth shook and the rocks were split. Matt 27:52 The tombs were opened, and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised; Matt 28:2 And behold, a severe earthquake had occurred, for an angel of the Lord descended from heaven and came and rolled away the stone and sat upon it. Have a look at the verses above, and tell me do you think that the "severs earthquake". referred to in verse 2 of Ch 28, is the same one described as "the earth shook", in verse 51 of Ch 27, or are they two different events? Also, if the saints were not raised until after Jesus was raised, and assuming that Matthew was describing events in chronological order, then why does he refer to this event as happening at the time of the death of Jesus, and not later on in Ch 28, at the time of our Lord's resurrection? Thank you ebrain. |
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18 | Are we all born with the Holy Spirit? | 1 Cor 2:14 | ebrain | 187532 | ||
Hi manish. Yousaid. Answer: no we never born with the holy spirit caz eph.2:1 says we born in inquity. even david saya i was brought forth in inquity. You are right of course, however, the above verses refer to the first birth, and not to the second birth, for which see bellow. John 3:3 Jesus answered and said to him, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again he cannot see the kingdom of God." John 1:13 who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God. ebrain. |
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19 | Jesus and the "good" theif at the | John 19:30 | ebrain | 187530 | ||
Nothing happened for three days, untill He raised Himself back from the dead, see bellow. John 10:17 "For this reason the Father loves Me, because I lay down My life so that I may take it again. John 10:18 "No one has taken it away from Me, but I lay it down on My own initiative. I have authority to lay it down, and I have authority to take it up again. This commandment I received from My Father." ebrain. |
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20 | E-Security only for true believers? | Matt 7:21 | ebrain | 187445 | ||
You said. "Before I became a believer, as I was reading the Bible, I came to understand many verses, which understanding I still hold to be true today as a Christian". So, you claim to be a Christian.. Now let it be clearly understood that I am in no way saying that you are not, I have no right to pass such judgment, but if you are a Christian, then you will have no difficulty in answering your own questions as bellow. "The crux of my question is not “am I living and believing what Jesus was actually teaching”, but how does one know for certain that they are saved?" If as you say you are a Christian, then you must be saved, if so, then please tell me how you know for certain that you are saved? "I am discussing genuine faith itself. How does one know that the faith he professes to have in Christ is genuine so as to have obtained salvation?" Yes great, how do you know that your faith is genuine? "Therefore, the question still remains unanswered: How do I know for sure I am saved? Or, another way to put it, how can I be assured now that when I die God will take me?" Yes good question, how do you in fact know for sure that you are saved? ebrain. |
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