Results 1 - 19 of 19
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Results from: Notes Author: danjg Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | By What Means God is Made Known to Us | Rom 10:11 | danjg | 241080 | ||
Ps. 19 is David's commentary on this subject also! | ||||||
2 | Who is the oldest person in the bible? | Gen 5:21 | danjg | 241017 | ||
Two facts about Methuselah: 1,He was the oldest man to live on planet earth; 2,Yet he died before his father did! | ||||||
3 | Who is the oldest person in the bible? | Gen 5:21 | danjg | 241009 | ||
But you also could say that Enoch is the oldest since he never died and Elijah would be second oldest! | ||||||
4 | Cain and Abel wives. Who are they? | Genesis | danjg | 239345 | ||
Possibly, but reading the text, I get the impression it wasn't too long after he left the "presence of the Lord" that he took a wife! | ||||||
5 | Cain and Abel wives. Who are they? | Genesis | danjg | 239332 | ||
Cain would have to marry a sister! Adam and Eve had no siblings, so there wouldn't be any cousins, etc. | ||||||
6 | Knowing the Word | Jer 8:7 | danjg | 233241 | ||
"I have been trying to figure this one out for close to 47 years now, CDBJ" You're in good company..theologians have been trying to figure it out for millenia. For me, I believe in both because both are clearly taught in Scripture. Do I understand it? No! But then I don't understand the Trinity either, but I believe it! I illustrate it with railroads tracks..you need two to run your train on and they must stay parallel. Our theological train needs two tracks to run on: God's sovereignty and man's free will. Emphasize one over the other and you'll crash! If we had infinite knowledge like God, we'd have no problem with it. I leave it at that! |
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7 | Knowing the Word | Jer 8:7 | danjg | 233240 | ||
Ooops, I meant in Luke 3:2, sorry! | ||||||
8 | Knowing the Word | Jer 8:7 | danjg | 233237 | ||
While I agree, I don't see the significance of your statement that not every word God has uttered "became scripture" (graphe), i.e. written down. Mt. 4:4 says that we are to live "on every word that proceeds out of the mouth of God." That has to refer to Scripture because the only words God has given us to live by are contained in Scripture, ergo, Sola Scriptura! Are you trying to make a distinction between the words of God the Father and Jesus and that the Father's are more important? Is there a significance between "word (rhema) of God" in Luke 2:2 and "word (logos)of God" in Luke 5:1? |
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9 | Knowing the Word | Jer 8:7 | danjg | 233229 | ||
Yes, Sola Scriptura "is an invention of man" but only in the same sense as the Trinity! The word "Trinity" isn't found in Scripture, but the concept of one God manifest in three distinct persons, Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, is! Sola Scriptura is a biblical concept that "man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that comes from God." It also means that inspiration and inerrancy is only found in the Scriptures not in any work of man! | ||||||
10 | What liquid was in the communion cup? | 1 Cor 11:25 | danjg | 233027 | ||
Isn't Deut 14:22-26 in the Bible? | ||||||
11 | KJV Only Help | Bible general Archive 4 | danjg | 232965 | ||
I'm curious about your "G-d to G-ds" issue! First, in my NASB "gods" is never capitalized and is never used of JEHOVAH, but only of pagan "deities." Second, Gen 3:5 seems to contradict your contention: "For God doth know that in the day ye eat thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be as gods, knowing good and evil." KJV "For God know that in the day you eat from it your eyes will be opened, and you will be like God, knowing good and evil." NASB It seems obvious that Satan was referring to God not gods b/c why would Adam and Eve know anything about "gods?" Maybe you're thinking of Daniel 3:25 where Nebuchadnezzar sees a fourth person in the fiery furnace as the "Son of God" (KJV) or "son of the gods" (NASB). The question is, as a pagan king, what would he know about the Son of God? But it's clear he understands that the 4th person is some type of deity, therefore, the latter translation seems best! |
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12 | Job's suffering | Job | danjg | 230902 | ||
Job 2:3 is the key verse here..and one that some totally ignore when discussing the believer/suffering scenario. God places three hedges around the believer: our possessions, health, and life; Great comfort comes from knowing Satan can't touch any of them w/o God allowing him to do so! | ||||||
13 | Obesity? | 1 Cor 6:19 | danjg | 228341 | ||
Let's change the situation to a person who's overweight but not clinically obese? Are they sinning? I'm not trying to nit-pic, I'm just trying to see where you draw the line and sin starts in your opinion. |
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14 | regulation regarding tattooing | 1 Cor 6:19 | danjg | 228268 | ||
The context of this verse is immorality, so I'd be very cautious about using it as a blanket command for any other actions! | ||||||
15 | Did John really baptise Jesus?? | Bible general Archive 4 | danjg | 223530 | ||
With all due respect, I strongly disagree that Jesus' human side needed repentance. He was the perfect sinless God-man. Obviously His deity was sinless, but so was His humanity since He didn't have a human father. That leads me to the conclusion that our sin nature is passed on by the father not the mother. | ||||||
16 | follow up to 1 corinth 15 question | 1 Cor 15:52 | danjg | 216478 | ||
True, the building of the temple could mark the starting point of the Trib, but isn't that assuming that the "covenant" in Dan 9 is about permission to build the Temple instead of simply some type of peace accord in the Middle East? The only firm facts about the Temple are that it does exist in the Trib and the anti-christ will desecrate it half way thru it. Again, the preponderance of evidence seems to be that the Trib is all about God dealing with the nation of Israel again after the church is raptured out! Blessings! |
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17 | follow up to 1 corinth 15 question | 1 Cor 15:52 | danjg | 216427 | ||
Hi cmfrantz: Here's why I believe Scripture teaches a pre-trib rapture: Dan 9:24 "Seventy weeks have been decreed for your people and your holy city"--The 70 weeks prophecy has to do with Daniel's "people" (Israel) and his "holy city" (Jerusalem)! The 69th week ended with "Messiah cut off" so one "week" is left for Israel: the Tribulation "week"! In Matt 24, Jesus' description of the Trib "week" is all about Jewish aspects: "standing in the holy place"--"those in Judea"--"Sabbath"--"false Christs (Messiahs) and prophets" Matt 4:23, Jesus is "proclaiming the gospel of the kingdom" which is the same that He says will be proclaimed during the Trib. (Matt 24:14)The same message Jesus brought to Israel will be preached by the 144,000 Jewish evangelists in Rev. Rev 1:19 gives us the outline which is chronological: "What you have seen"--Christ in His glorified body (Christ ascended before the church began); "the things which are"--the 7 churches which are at the beginning of the church age; "the things which shall take place after these things"--what happens after the church age! Also, with all the details given in Rev. about the Trib. yet no mention of the church from 3:22 until 22:16. The rapture of the church before the Trib is a logical event to indicate the beginning of it. If the church goes through the Trib. what event triggers it? How do we know when it starts? I hope this helps...at least provide food for thought! |
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18 | Divorced Do Christians Get Remarried? | 1 Cor 6:9 | danjg | 205454 | ||
Tamara...so are you saying that Jesus didn't say "except for the cause of unchastity" in Matt 5:32 and "except for immorality" in Matt 19:9? These statements were made in response to the Pharisees' question about divorce. Mark 10:9 was later in a house where His disciples questioned Him about what He said outside. Matt 19:10-12 apparently give us the context of the disciples' question to Jesus! | ||||||
19 | Divorced Do Christians Get Remarried? | 1 Cor 6:9 | danjg | 205442 | ||
Jeff...the point I was making is that just b/c one partner is guilty of adultery, doesn't automatically give the other partner the right to divorce. If the guilty partner repents, asks for forgiveness, and indicates a desire to be faithful again, the "innocent" party should forgive and grant another opportunity for restoration of the marriage. However, if after considerable attempts to reconcile (following Matt 18:15-17) there's no repentance on the part of the guilty partner, then divorce is allowed as an option but not required. From my experience, the divorce usually is pursued by the guilty party Hope this helps--Dan |
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