Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Notes Author: Ronaldo Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | "women keep silent in the churches" | 1 Cor 14:34 | Ronaldo | 65637 | ||
I understand Galatians 3:28 to mean that both male and female belong together in one church of Jesus Christ. To take it to mean that there is no longer any sexual difference is reading in what is not there. There would be no mother and father roles. If we had to take the "all one", as it is misapplied, it would lead to an extreme woman's lib position. It would also be saying that God made a mistake in giving the different sexes different gifts and personalities. It would be saying that the Gospel does away with the distinctives that God created. To quote this verse in the discussion of church order is to take it out of context. However, I think that some weight should be given to 1 Corinthians 11:5 which allows a woman to prophecy when she displays the sign of authority. Although some feel that the latter context is outside a church service, the matter of authority is definitely in view. Seeking fo balance. |
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2 | Women pastor | 1 Cor 14:34 | Ronaldo | 65291 | ||
Hi Tim, For Romans 16:1 the versions never translate "deaconess". They either say "servant" (see NASB)or "deacon" The Greek word is "diakonon" which is the masculine form of the word. In Greek the masculine gender does not refer to sex but, as in Latin, it is just an indication of the function of the word in a sentence. This is why the translations render "servant". Phoebe was thus a servant. She was indeed a female servant. However, she may not have held and office of deacon. Are we not all servants? Paul was an apostle but he was also a servant (diakonos). Deacon or servant is used in a general way indicating a servant. The only passages that speaks about office of deacon is 1 Timothy 3, and where it speaks of deacon it always gives male qualification. For instance, "Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife' As you can see, the word "deacon" can include male or female, but the context of 1 Timothy 3 implies only males. Look at 1 Tim. 3:10 where NASB renders "Let these men also first be tested" There is no Greek word, to my knowledge, for "lady deacon" or "deaconess". God bless |
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3 | "Every rhema ?" | Matt 4:4 | Ronaldo | 64612 | ||
Hi Ray, You said helpfully .“The words “were” still continuously coming from God because this Man was speaking the words given Him by His Father. “ My earlier response was a bit hasty. Please consider the following. We are to live today by the word that “is” continuously coming from the God. Notice “were” and “are”. The Israelites were to live by every word that was continuously coming from God. God is presented as speaking continuously throughout the ages. If so what or who is the rhema? How was God speaking before the incarnation.? How does He speak now? Was Jesus always the truth? I think so. Is He still the truth? Yes! John 1 tells us that the Word “was”. So God was speaking through the Word. Then the Word became flesh. The incarnation consisted in the “word became flesh”. Therefore, the Son is the eternal Word of God. The Israelites were to live their natural life by manna which they could eat with their mouths, but they were to live eternally by partaking of the promises of God (out of the mouth of God) which pointed to His Son and all revelation was by the Holy Spirit bringing truth about the promised Son, who is the Truth the Way and the Life. So, God was and is continually speaking (rhema) through His Son. John 6:49, "Your fathers ate the manna in the wilderness, and they died. This is the Bread which comes down out of heaven, so that one may eat of it and not die. (I) am the living Bread that came down out of heaven;..." I believe you are right in capitalizing “Bread” in John 6:49 . “Which comes “ is “active” continuous tense. Only a person can perform an action. He is the living bread who comes down out of heaven. But Jesus changes from using the continuous tense to the aorist tense in verse 51. Why? John 6:51 I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world. “Came down “ is aorist tense which means that it happened once, referring to Jesus’ incarnation But the truth of the crucified Christ is always the living bread which comes from heaven. “Eat” is also aorist. If we eat this bread once we live forever. In other words the moment that we believe we receive eternal life. Maybe the solution is something like this. God was and still speaking by His Son. When the Bread came down from heaven in fleshly form it was a particular event in history. In all the progressive revelation of the Bible God was speaking through and about His Son. Therefore, even in the Old Testament, salvation was through the covenant in His Son who was slain from the foundation of the earth. The context in John 6 also points to his flesh which He would give on the cross. They did not understand it all in the Old Testament, but God knew what He had promised. So in Matthew 4:4 Jesus means that it was not for Him to concentrate on bread for the body as the Devil wanted him to do, but fulfill the purpose of His coming to bring the bread of eternal life which man needs. This is the bread that man lives by. In His reply to Satan, He implied that He should not misuse Scripture to produce bread for the body (to command that a stone be made into bread) and divert Him from His purpose to fulfill His commission to be the Bread of eternal life through the cross” So man must not live only physically by eating of physical bread but also what comes from the mouth of God which speaks of Christ and the Cross by the Holy Spirit What sayest thou? Please tell me something about your method of discerning and interpreting of numbers. |
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4 | "Every rhema ?" | Matt 4:4 | Ronaldo | 64588 | ||
Ray, Thank you but please think on theses points: In your reply you said "The word were coming from God" Then if Jesus is the Word, then what word was he receiving? Is the word still coming through Jesus or has God Spoken finally by His Son. See Hebrews 1.1 Thank you for your responses |
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5 | Acts 10:44 Efective? Creative word? | Acts 10:44 | Ronaldo | 64275 | ||
Acts 10:44 Thanks for the comments on the Jabez prayer. I too have not found a faith healer who specializes in curing baldness-perhaps it is more difficult than raising the dead. My hair is not restored and I am not even sure if it will be in the resurrection. I must rely on intellegence to impress my wife-so could you pass some along. However, I will be pleased if anyone can comment on faith making "rhema" or "logos" effective or discuss any of the other points I made in my comments. Good talking to you guys! |
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6 | word of God or Word? | Luke 1:2 | Ronaldo | 64225 | ||
Hi Ray, I will be studying up on references to "word" and "truth". I have been feeling for some time that "The Word of God" is the same as the Second Person. Jesus said that when He was speaking the Father was speaking. He said "I am the truth". Then there is the topic of the "living word" which is like a living seed. When it is planted in the heart it grows. When the word, Jesus, is received into the heart the spiritual life grows. The the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of truth. But let me study this some more or I may be straying into some heresy. So let me get out my concordance. |
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