Results 1 - 13 of 13
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Results from: Notes Author: MissJW Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What is the concept of Paradise? | Luke 23:43 | MissJW | 122455 | ||
Hello Kalos, You are sharp, :-) (got my pun). Thus you agree that Jesus died not on the same day as the evildoer on his side? Am I correct? With Luke 23:43 and the subject of paradise, how do you make this fact agree with your thought that the evildoer was with Jesus that selfsame day? I note too that since the question he presented linked "paradise" with Jesus' kingdom a much later time would be the more accurate understanding of the term. Any thoughts? 42 And he went on to say: “Jesus, remember me when you get into your kingdom.” 43 And he said to him: “Truly I tell you today, You will be with me in Paradise.” MissJW |
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2 | What is the concept of Paradise? | Luke 23:43 | MissJW | 122173 | ||
Hello Kalos, You say,"'In Luke 23:43, the promise of the Lord to the repentant robber was fulfilled the same day;" I wonder Kalos, why you say this. Do you not know that that day that Jesus said those words ended and he hadn't died yet? He actually died after 6:00 p.m. which would be the next day. So, something is wrong with this scenerio you present. I'm just having fun with you Kalos, it is an interesting thought you might appreciate looking at again. What did Jesus really say? 2) You also say, "Christ, at His death, having committed His spirit to the Father, went in spirit immediately into Heaven itself, the dwelling place of God". It appears to me that you are saying that Christ isn't God since he went to God in heaven. Also, it appears that you are saying that Christ wasn't dead for 3 days? I know I'm just a Jehovah's Witness and you probably think I have no earthly idea of "truth" when it comes to the Bible, and wouldn't give me the time of day if I asked you, but I undersand that Christ was dead for 3 days, then resurrected to life for 40 days here on earth and then rose to heaven to his Father. Am I mistaken, in total left field or what? Of course, I note you are merely quoting another's thought, but usually we are in agreement with what we quote unless stated otherwise. I would like your input here. And thank you in advance, Kalos. MissJW |
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3 | Purpose of Prayer? | Bible general Archive 2 | MissJW | 121451 | ||
Hi tgc, I believe you answered well. Remember the apostle Paul encourages Christians to keep up their fight of faith ‘while with every form of prayer they carry on prayer on every occasion in spirit.’ (Eph. 6:18) Every prayer, given either audibly or silently, has a point or purpose. Thus ther are various forms of prayer, for example, “intercessions,” in which the Christian prays in behalf of others, “offerings of thanks,” of asking blessings, prayers of “supplication” with regard to certain needs or problems. You mention the Lord's prayer. First we notice this is a model prayer to follow but not one to say repeatedly. We also notice that Jesus prays to the Father. That sounds reasonable to me that we would pray to our God who is Jesus' Father. Then what does Jesus pray for first of anything he could have prayed for? That his "name be sanctified, or made holy. Certainly then Jesus recognized the importance of God's name and was thus telling us the same. Do you believe that? Of course, God's name is Jehovah and our older Bible translations showed us in Ps 83:18. Just before his death Jesus prayed: “I have made your name manifest to the men you gave me out of the world . . . watch over them on account of your own name which you have given me . . . And I have made your name known to them and will make it known.”—John 17:6, 11, 26. We are not to believe that when Jesus said, “I have made your name known” or “manifest,” he referred to only the pronunciation of the divine name. His listeners were Jews who, reportedly with the exception of the high priest, did not know the pronunciation of the Tetragrammaton, the four Hebrew letters making up the name. Then, how did Jesus, by more than pronouncing the name correctly, ‘make God’s name known’ to the apostles? Note the answer given by one noted Bible commentator: “The word name [in John 17] includes the attributes, or character of God. Jesus had made known his character, his law, his will, his plan of mercy. Or in other words, he had revealed God to them. The word name is often used to designate the person.”—Notes, Explanatory and Practical, on the Gospels by Albert Barnes (1846). So, as Jesus ‘explained the Father’ by his own entire perfect life course on earth, he was really ‘making God’s name known.’ He demonstrated that he spoke with God’s full backing and authority. Jesus could therefore say: “He that has seen me has seen the Father also.” Certainly Jesus wasn't the Father but he was the Son of God so God’s “name” thus took on greater meaning to his early followers. Accordingly, an appreciation of it and the Personality that it stood for should be reflected in every aspect of our lives as Christians. MissJW |
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4 | who can explain to me? | John 1:1 | MissJW | 120685 | ||
Hi Rowdy, You said,“I can only say that the Greek word "greater" here didn't mean the same thing as you and I understand it. A better translation would be senior vs. junior denoting their functions in their relationship, similar to the same relationship by a man and woman in a marriage. In God's world, man gets the higher functional responsibilities compared to the woman because that's how He created this world. Why God is senior to Jesus, I have no idea and can't even speculate.” I have no problem per se, with your explanation and too was well illustrated. I agree that God is senior to Jesus as many Bible verses tell us. Here’s another and I quote it for you here. Does this verse not tell us that Jesus and Almighty God are not equal? 1 Cor 15:24-28, "Next, the end, when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power. 25 For he must rule as king until [God] has put all enemies under his feet. 26 As the last enemy, death is to be brought to nothing. 27 For [God] ?subjected all things under his feet.? But when he says that all things have been subjected, it is evident that it is with the exception of the one who subjected all things to him. 28 But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone." Thank you for your last response, Rowdy. Miss JW |
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5 | Isa. 5:14 - why "Jerusalem" in text? | Is 5:14 | MissJW | 120588 | ||
Hi Kalos, My typo error, I don't know how that happened but you are exactly right, sorry. MissJW |
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6 | who can explain to me? | John 1:1 | MissJW | 120457 | ||
Hi Rowdy, You're exactly right, no one is greater than Almighty God. Could I ask you a question? What does John 13:16 mean to you? It reads, "16 Most truly I say to YOU, A slave is not greater than his master, nor is one that is sent forth greater than the one that sent him. Just curious. MissJW |
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7 | is God and Jesus are one person? | Heb 1:8 | MissJW | 120156 | ||
Hi Bstudent The truth of the matter is Hebrews 1:8 is mistranslated in many translations to support a theological bias. (Capitalization of the "G" for sure.) Your research is admirable. Yes, Greek scholars Edgar J. Goodspeed, James Moffatt and Stephen T. Byington who are not Jehovah’s Witnesses as I am, agree with my NWT on this verse. We can read for ourselves, the alternative readings for this verse offered by the RSV, NEB and KJV and see a definite theological bias. But clearly the context clears it up for us. In many translations, either in the main text or in the margin, Hebrews 1:9 reads, “God, your God, anointed you.” This makes it clear that the one addressed in verse eight is not God, but one who worships God and is anointed by him. By allowing the Bible to speak to us and just reason on it with His Holy Spirit directing us we are not affected by mainstream thinking. Something else though , is the fact that Jesus can rightly be and is referenced “theos” in the Holy Scriptures but never in the since of Almighty God. So even in this verse regardless of its translation doesn’t make God’s Son God himself. Capitalization of “theos” in the text that reference Jesus is misleading to its readers and is a disgrace to our heavenly Father Jehovah by “adding to this roll” as is the removal of his beloved name. MsJW |
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8 | Who is this "slave"? | Matt 24:45 | MissJW | 118432 | ||
Hi Bstudent, I have noticed that you have made some very good points. Of course, the evil slave though entrusted to care for Jesus' belongings has failed miserably. He has contaminated himself with the world both politically and spiritually, thus making himself a part of Christendom. Traditions of men have been embraced,making the Word of God invalid and obscuring truth in the eyes of many. Hypocrisy and greed also mark him as one not feeding Christ's domestics during the presence of our Master. I know for one, the Bible's truth to be simple and forthright, no philosophical dogma or mystical concepts. It appears you too may be there. MissJW |
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9 | source references | OT general | MissJW | 108877 | ||
Hi Colin, Rev. 2:8 is an interesting verse, as is the Alpha and Omega discussion. But in answer to your simple question, by its context, I see that it shows that Jesus is the “First and the Last” in this verse. I also notice that the “The First and the Last” is an expression in the book of Revelation that is found three times, one of which obviously refers to Jehovah God. Rev 1:17-18 also identifies Jesus as the “First and the Last”. Both of these are in relation to his death and unique resurrection by his Father and interestingly, is the reason for his being called the “firstborn from the dead” as in Rev 1:5 and Col 1:18 I also, notice that the “Alpha and the Omega is not used in conjunction with this “the First and Last” in these two places that refer to Jesus and neither is the phrase “the beginning and the end”. Tara1 |
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10 | Tara1 - Is Jesus true or false god? | OT general | MissJW | 108870 | ||
Hi Colin, Would you please, to the best of your ability, accurately explain these two verse? 1) Matt. 11:25, "At that time Jesus said in response: “I publicly praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and intellectual ones and have revealed them to babes." 2) Matt. 4:10, "For it is written, ‘It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’ Tara1 |
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11 | Is Jesus YHWH? | OT general | MissJW | 107586 | ||
Tara1, Just wondering when you're going to answer the questions asked of you? Not rushing you, just wondering. I would like your explaination too of the Alpha and Omega of the Revelation of John. As I understand it, it refers to YHWH in each and every instance. I enjoy your posts so very much. Looking forward to your replys. MissJW |
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12 | is Jesus God ?and how can you prove it? | Isaiah | MissJW | 106786 | ||
Hello Tara1 Please respond. I've read you posts and discovered that my email was wrong. It's fourx1@rock.com I am not a JW but have studied with them and have many of their books and like them. I have studied many years (in deepth) theology. Let's get together. I'm not interested in changing you but learning from you. Missjw |
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13 | is Jesus God ?and how can you prove it? | Isaiah | MissJW | 97757 | ||
Hello Tara, I just found this forum and found all your posts. If you are still around, I would like to write to you by email. I too have some manuscript research discoveries that I perhaps could add to your collection. My email is fourxx@rock.com I don't mind posting public but maybe later some. I also would like to know how you researched, what you have in your library and so forth. Do you know of any JW's that post here? Thank you, Tara. Love MissJW |
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