Results 1 - 18 of 18
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Results from: Notes Author: Biynah Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 48680 | ||
Burning Bush: I agree that the principles you have outlined should be met. As always I will exercise them. But you've scripturally given me a reason to give a case by case evaluation to the experience of speaking in tongues rather than to pre judge all such experiences as fraudulent as I formerly have. Thanks again for your insight. --Biynah |
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2 | Who is Yeshua HaMachiack? The Christ? | Matt 1:1 | Biynah | 48631 | ||
Here is more information about Yeshua HaMachiak. Yeshua HaMachiak is the Hebrew transliteration for Jesus the Christ. The name Jesus is a Greek distorition of His real name Yeshua. All names given in the Bible had a literal meaning. The name Yeshua means "a saviour". This name also appears in the Bible under the spellings of Jeshuah, Joshua, Hosea, and Hoshea. Despite the different spellings they are all the same name. As you pointed out the word Christ comes from the Greek Christos which means Messiah. Messiah more literally means "anointed". The priest and kings of Israel were considered God's anointed. But the highest use of the word Messiah was used in connection with the One promised of God as the great Deliverer. So the title Messiah applied to Jesus in all three senses. He is High Priest, King, and Deliverer. | ||||||
3 | did the wine from the water make you dr | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47873 | ||
Dear Tim Moran: Your research into the original languages demonstrates the disadvantage we have of using a translated version. Just when we think we've got it all figured out -- we learn that we do not know much at all. Thanks for contacting me with this information. --Biynah |
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4 | did the wine from the water make you dr | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47870 | ||
Dear Tim: This is an interesting concept. I've never heard of this before. I'll search your references and get back to you. Thanks. Biynah |
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5 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47862 | ||
You've certainly given me some things to think about -- and some scripture to consider. Thank you. You make a lot of sense. I guess I've seen so many false prophets and so many pretenders and self deluded that I forgot how to trust. Yes, God is God. He can still manifest these things. I'll study this with a more open mind from now on. --Biynah |
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6 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47859 | ||
Dear John: Did I not provide scripture with my answer that bore out what you asked? Didn't you ask, "How does God speak to you." Is that not the context of the answer I gave you? And did I not supply 1 Kings 19:11-13? Now as far as the thing I previously told you, "That God's answer to me is that He will not glorify man but will honor the humble in spirit who seek to glorify Him." If you need scripture to support this, I am glad to supply it. Try looking at Romans 15:6, "That ye may with one mind and one mouth glorify God, even the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ." And I can cite many more verses that proves that it is all about glorifying God not man. If you think that is prideful -- well, I guess you misunderstand me. But you asked my forgiveness because you said so. Of course, I forgive you. What surprises me most is that people who believe in this broad penetacostal form of speaking in tongues being widely manifested today -- they don't require any scripture to prove the interpretations of the tongues they say they speak and hear. But if someone with discernment speaks to them contrary to their self delusions these same people condemn them first -- and then ask for the scripture to prove it. And usually do not listen or concern themselves with the answer the man of discernment has. But then no matter what answer I gave you ... you were attempting to lay a trap for me, wern't you? But can I ask you a question? If God does not talk to me and I am prideful for thinking that He does? How can He talk through those of you who say He speaks through them in tongues? And when you do speak in tongues? Why is it usually not scriptural? |
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7 | 2 followups, masturbation and 1Cor7:2-5 | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47851 | ||
Dear Emmaus: The Scribes and Pharisees continually accused Jesus of sinning by not keeping the Sabbath. Of course, had Jesus actually of broken the Sabbath then He would have been guilty of sin. But Jesus did not break the Sabbath. The miracles that He performed on these days was a service to God -- not the occupation of a physician. But you see how the Scribes and Pharisees twisted things around to make it appear that He sinned. Now, you say that masturbation is sin. But yet, I find no where in the Bible that tells me this. And if it isn't there -- it isn't there. The commandment doesn't actually say that: Thou shalt not lust. It says thou shalt not covet .... Now coveting a man's wife, a man's car, a man's home can lead to enmity, strife, murder and the like. This is actually the kind of lust that is a sin. But can a man covet his own body? Does that even make sense? My position is different than what you suppose. My position says that if the Bible doesn't say it -- we have no right to say it does -- For if we do -- it leads to false doctrine. The kind of false doctrine that put Jesus on the cross. Was He not convicted of blasphemy by the well meaning priest? Was he not convicted to save the nation from the Romans who would come and take Israel away from the Jews because of His Messianic claims? It all seemed right in the eyes of the religious leaders just as this thing seems right in the eyes of Emmaus and Makarios. But they were adding and misinterpreting God's word to justify their thoughts. So if you are to convince me, you need some hard Biblical evidence. Not slight supposed inferences as Makarios uses. We should teach the doctrine of God to those who ask these questions. We should not teach the doctrine of man. And as far as I am able to see this is not a biblical doctrine. It is a man made doctrine based on mans perception. Did not the Lord Himself say: "For my thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my ways, saith the LORD." Isaiah 55:8 So why do some well meaning moralist think they have the right to edit His Word -- and say He meant this or that -- if He Himself ommitted it? |
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8 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47800 | ||
Dear retxar: I wish you would have put it this way before. And I am sorry. I thought you were the person who originally asked the question and you were giving me a holier than thou quip with no real substance. I also apologize to the person who originally did pose the question of whether the spiritual gift of tongues is a valid spiritual gift for today. I'm only a few weeks old on this forum and I thought only the person we answered would respond. Nevertheless you did respond to my answer to this person. And your response was nebulous to the point that I concluded it was a holier than thou response without substance. And while I can take a rebuke with the best of them I at least want to know it is a rebuke and what it is based on. Again, I apologize for a fiery exchange. I like your answer that, ". The relevance of the spiritual gift of tongues, along with all spiritual gifts, to remain until Jesus’s return was clearly and undoubtable answered for me thru the Word alone." But where does the Word give us this answer you speak of? I am operating on 1 Corinthians 13:8 which says "Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away." Now when it says whether there be tongues, they shall cease -- some believers say this is a clear indication that this gift was just for the first century church and that it does not exist today. And through my observation I have seen this may be verifiable. Do I want to see the manifestation of these things? Yes, I do! I've searched for them. But I've found phony's who fake it. And God gave us the good sense to recognize the genuine article -- and He expects us to use that good sense. I heard pentecostal preachers proclaim that if anyone said that the false things they were doing were not of the Holy Ghost then that person blasphemed the Holy Ghost and could never be forgiven. This served as an effective shield that struck fear in the heart of those who would dare to question man. But the scripture tells us to test the spirits for they are not all of God. So if you don't use your five senses -- or your abillity to discern -- or test the sprits -- your in trouble. Yet still, where is your scriptural reference that you base your belief that the spiritual gift of tongues shall remain until Jesus's return? I can't say I remember reading this ... or anything that refers to the gifts being around till that time. I did read the this, "I tell you that he will avenge them speedily. Nevertheless when the Son of man cometh, shall he find faith on the earth?" (Luke 18:8). If faith shall be so scarce, will there be spiritual gifts? |
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9 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47799 | ||
Dear John: I attended a very interesting Bible Study once where they asked the question: How does God speak to you? The women were separated from the men and were asked the same question. And notes were compared when the two groups came back together. This was not a pentecostal group. It was, believe it or not, a Luthern group. The men were a bit reluctant to share this experience. But little by little as each man opened up they all began to relate a similar account. My answer then, as it is to you now, explained that when God speaks to me I feel a still small voice in my heart. It is not an audible voice. And the experience is hard to explain. How do you feel speech? Yet this is the best way to describe it. And I think it is in keeping with, 1 Kings 19:11-13, which says: 11 And he said, Go forth, and stand upon the mount before the LORD. And, behold, the LORD passed by, and a great and strong wind rent the mountains, and brake in pieces the rocks before the LORD; but the LORD was not in the wind: and after the wind an earthquake; but the LORD was not in the earthquake: 12 And after the earthquake a fire; but the LORD was not in the fire: and after the fire a still small voice. 13 And it was so, when Elijah heard it, that he wrapped his face in his mantle, and went out, and stood in the entering in of the cave. And, behold, there came a voice unto him, and said, What doest thou here, Elijah? The next question, how do I know it is the Lord speaking to me? John 10:27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me: Why does the Lord speak to me? 1. To warn me of danger 2. To tell me to give someone a message 3. In answer to prayer 4. To reveal understanding of His Word. When does the Lord speak to me? Usually when I speak to Him. But sometimes when I am not speaking to Him Most of the Lutherns in the study group described experiences that were very similar. I suppose each man hesitated because of the stigma that is associated with hearing voices nowadays. Most of these men were professionals, engineers, doctors, authors, etc. And it was very humbling for them to open up their hearts under the circumstances. I hope you asked for the same reason we all shared with each other. To confirm your own experience with hearing God speak to you. |
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10 | 2 followups, masturbation and 1Cor7:2-5 | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47797 | ||
Makarios my friend, The word Makarios is Greek. I assume you know a little about Greek since you chose this as your user name. I explained to you that the Greek word for immorality is pornea. And that this word does not include masturbation as a definition. As for Websters dictionary it does nothing to help your cause. Does Webster by any chance say that masturbation is immoral, or sinful? If not, why do you even bother to say that it takes a secular source to prove this to me! I'm very surprised that you understand the scriptures you cited as you do. It shows you are young in the Word. I also blame it on your Bible translation and your bias, and the possibility that you looked up immorality in a concordance to prove your point rather than using the scripture in the light of its proper context. While a concordance is a useful tool ... it should never be abused to the point of using a particular verse out of context. Since the Bible is silent concerning masturbation the burden is not upon me to prove that the Bible says masturbation is okay. The burden is on you to prove it is sin. You have not. I do not rely on any one verse or even a number of verses that I look up in a concordance to support my understanding. I rely on the Bible as a whole from Genesis to Revelation -- and all that the Bible has to say on the subject. And the Bible is silent concerning masturbation. If masturbation was immoral it would have been noted in the Books of Moses. All other sexual sin was specifically mentioned and was not generalized under the term immorality. I hope you have read every word of the Books of Moses so you can know this truth. I will agree with you that masturbation does defile a man. But defilement is not a sin. The remedy for being defiled because your sperm comes out from you is to wash your flesh with water and be unclean until evening (see Leviticus 15:16-17). But the remedy for sin was a blood sacrifice. Unfortunately, you show ignorance in that you do not understand the Biblical difference between sin and defilement. If you don't know something -- why puff your self up as if you do? You are not answerable to me. You are answerable to God. As am I. The issue of whether masturbation is a sin will not be such an important matter when we stand before Him. But our integrity in handling God's Word will be. "But I say unto you, That every idle word that men shall speak, they shall give account thereof in the day of judgment." (Matthew 12:36). I sought to advise you on your mishandling and misinterpreation of God's Word. Not to prove to you that masturbation is not sin. Because it is for you -- and I would not want to cause you to stumble. It is you who must repent for misusing God's Word. I am sure it is not intentional. But nevertheless -- it can be just as harmful to another as if it were intentional. I shall continue to pray for you my friend. For your zeal is good. But you need wisdom and discernment. --Biynah By the way, I have a wonderful wife, so the issue of masturbation is not something I have to repent of. I never supported this issue for a personal need to masturbate as your text seems to presuppose. But I have supported this subject because you have grossly misused the Bible to prove your personal bias. |
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11 | 2 followups, masturbation and 1Cor7:2-5 | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47785 | ||
Emmaus: God created the male to produce millions of sperm cells per day. Now these sperm cells build up in the male and make him rather uncomfortable. The temptation to lust increases as the sperm count rises. Now how can the sperm count be reduced? We are provided with a release mechanism. No lust is necessary. And it is not the same as an alcoholic taking a drink. And yes, I agree, that the sexual expression with your spouse is preferable -- but not always availabe. And what if you tend not to be married? Or are away from your spouse? Say you serve in the armed forces. What then? Allow your body to control you? Or control your body. Sperm production doesn't stop just because your away from your wife. And the higher the sperm count the more likely you are to lust. Still, you've yet to provide a Bible reference to prove masturbation equals lust -- or that masturbation itself is sin. If a man has problems with lust it is a problem of the heart. I suppose most men are afflicted by this lust issue you are talking about and that is why you and Makarios bring it up. After all, our society is littered with sex ads and all sorts of lewd materials that we encounter from the grocery store checkout to bill boards and television commercials. But I am referring to the healthy adult male unaffected by these things. |
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12 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47138 | ||
Retxar: I too am glad that the truth of God's Word is not established by my experience, my lack of experience, my observations, or the way I try to live it ... yes, we would all then be in trouble then. But the answer to the question you asked can only be answered through a discernment of the spirits. This is a gift of the Spirit mentioned in 1 Cor. 12:10 "To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues:" And a very necessary gift to, because 1 John 4:1 says: "Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world." Jesus said, Ye shall know them by their fruits. Do men gather grapes of thorns, or figs of thistles? Matthew 7:16. Now, all these things require observation, do they not? And so does the answer to your question. Since there is not a case in the scripture that tells us whether speaking in tongues is for today. We know for sure it was for the Apostalic times. But is it for today? It was your question, after all. How do you expect to find the answer without observation or discernment. Have you seen any real evidence of this? Have you experienced this? If so discern what you've seen or experienced. But if you have no discernment, and do not sensibly use the 5 senses God gave you in order to discern, and use His Word to guide you ... you will be led around by every wind of doctrine whether it be true or false. God does not expect us to be blind, deaf, or dumb -- as some Christians feel they must be lest they offend someone. I am not afraid to offend those who have faked it or those who operate through counterfeit spririts. I know the Word of God because the Holy Spirit has revealed it to me because of constant seeking and humbleness of spirit. The Holy Spirit also gave unto me a gift of discernment. I know truth from falsehood. And I am bold to proclaim the truth or expose a lie. I have proclaimed to you that I have seen the lie. This I know for certain. I have asked God the same thing. Is speaking in tongues for today? His answer to me is that he will not glorify man. But he will honor the humble in spirit who seek to glorify Him. Perhaps you should ask God for yourself. He does speak to you doesn't He? Praise God! Biynah |
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13 | Is speaking in tongues for today? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47131 | ||
When the apostles were gathered together and first spoke in tongues they spoke in discernable languages. The Bible says, "every man heard them speak in his own language." (Acts 2:6) Paul later tells us that some speak in an unknown tongue. Is the gift of speaking in tongues for today? This is hard to say. All the gifts of the Spirit were given to fulfill the purpose of spreading the gospel - and to cause others to believe. I have attended pentacostal meetings that claimed to speak in tongues -- but did they really? I sensed a spirit of confusion and not the Holy Spirit whom I know personally. I saw pentacostals act in ways unbecoming and disorderly. I saw them live like devils all week and become holy on Sunday. I saw them claim to heal sickness that was never truly healed. I saw them ask for healings for headaches. If I were the pastor I would have said take an asprin. Can God do all these things. Yes! Will he do it to glorify man? No! Through a truly humble man who ministers in humility, and when there is a need to further the gospel, He will do these things. But to the proud and the arrogant and the haughty he will allow them to be caught up in their own folly and foolishness. Because of this, these things, if present, will be seen seldom in today's church. | ||||||
14 | 2 followups, masturbation and 1Cor7:2-5 | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47057 | ||
Markarios: You used the following verses to support your position that the Bible says that masturbation is sin: 1 Corinthians 6:18 "Flee immorality. Every other sin that a man commits is outside the body, but the immoral man sins against his own body I am sure you are aware that the New Testament was not written in English. It was written in Greek and later translated into English. The Greek word for immorality is "pornea". The English word immorality is not an equivalent to "pornea". The term immorality is vague and tends to lead one to think in a broader sense. The Greek word that Paul used denotes incest, adultery, and whoredom. It does not mean masturbation. To include masturbation under the umbrella of immorality is a language error. Sinning against your own body means engaging in the immoral conduct herein mentioned. That conduct specifically refers to whoredom, but could rightly include adultery and incest. But not masturbation. In your reference to Genesis 39:12, you are reading more into it than there is. Joseph fled from the temptation of adultery not the temptation to masturbate. Your use of Proverbs 7:23 to prove that masturbation is a sin is inappropriate because this scripture speaks of a man yielding to a harlot--not to masturbation. In 1 Corinthians 7:8-9, Paul is instructing those unable to contain themselves from sexual relationships. He advises that such people should marry. There is no hint he is talking about masturbation. And Matthew 5:27-30 is a teaching of Jesus, which basically teaches that the sin of adultery starts in a lustful heart. Jesus is not discussing masturbation but adultery. 1 Cor. 6:18 Fleeing sexual immorality here is talking about engaging with a prostitute which is a sin against your own body. Again, nothing about masturbation. 1 Corinthians 7:4 Paul addresses the fact that it is not right for a man or woman to deny each other sexual relations after marriage. Nothing is said or implied about masturbation. Now my friend, the scriptures you used do not in any way address masturbation, and so they do not in any way support your belief that masturbation is a sin. Your error appears to be a simple misunderstanding of words and terms. You have interpreted sexual immorality to include masturbation. And perhaps your experience justifies such an interpretation. But sexual immorality does not include masturbation. For the Bible clearly makes known in the Law of Moses what sexual immorality is. Anything not specifically mentioned cannot be included as immoral. Masturbation does not have to include lust. It can act as a release mechanism to keep one from lusting. But my intent is not to dissuade you from believing that masturbation is a sin. For you it is a sin. The Bible never says that masturbation is sin. This is what I want you to see. We must not preach the Word of God out of context. It is most Holy. And we cannot use it to stretch our position or prove a point that it does not say. God's Word is very plain. We must take it for what it says. We get into trouble, when we add or subtract to it, or try to make it mean what we want it to mean. Biynah |
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15 | Is Hades Hell? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 47015 | ||
Dear Cyclist: I have updated my profile. Thanks for telling me how. Biynah |
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16 | Is Hades Hell? | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 46240 | ||
Dear Cyclist: I'm glad to hear from you. I am not aware of a personal profile. But of course, I will fill it in if you instruct me on how to find it. I only check into this forum on Fri., Sat., and Sun. So be patient in waiting for my answer if you leave a note for me before then. Your brother in Christ, Biynah |
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17 | 2 followups, masturbation and 1Cor7:2-5 | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 46239 | ||
Dear Makarios: Masturbation is certainly nothing new. And of course they had a word for it back then. Yes, sexual immorality is considered sin in the Bible. But the immorality is always mentioned between two participants -- homosexuals, man and animal, adultery, whoredom, etc. The Bible never mentions anything about masturbation. I would say that your personal bias lends to your strong point of view on this. But we should all be very careful about adding to God's Word. Which of us have the mind of God that we can fill in the blanks for Him? If He didn't say it -- we can't say that He did. Many false doctrines abound on filling in those blanks and taking scripture out of context. The Bible says, "Work out your own salvation with fear and trembling." Each of us are on this path. And where God is silent on certain issues we must decide for ourselves if it is pleasing to Him or not -- or if it is a personal matter that God gives us liberty in deciding for ourselves. Paul addressed this when he spoke of eating meats that were sacrificed to idols. For those who believed it was sin -- to him it was sin. For those who exercised liberty -- to him it was permitted. This my friend is one of those issues. If it is sin to you -- indeed it is sin to you. But if our brother who posed the question has liberty in this thing -- then we should not cause him to fall because of our personal feelings. You have offered no scripture that proves God meant or inferred that masturbation is a sin or sexual immorality -- although it is clear that you strongly feel in yourself that it is. You cannot rationally link masturbation to sexual immorality -- it involves no other person. But it basically boils down to what Paul was asked about eating meat sacrificed to idols. This appears to some men to be sin. To others it appears to be no problem at all. So this to is an individual issue. If you are convicted that this is sin then it is sin for you. But to our friend who sees nothing wrong with it -- should we undermine his faith and perhaps cause him to err? I appreciate your answer to my comment. I was hoping that you would answer. And I accept your position as being right for you. But I think too, that the Holy Spirit will guide our brother into the path that he should go. He now has two opinions. I hope that he is edified in what we have shared with him. And I hope to hear from you again. I only check into this forum on Fri, Sat, and Sun. So be patient in hearing from me if you still wish to challenge this position. |
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18 | 2 followups, masturbation and 1Cor7:2-5 | Bible general Archive 1 | Biynah | 46168 | ||
Contrary to the opinion of Makarios I must submit my response. Masterbation is not a sin. The Bible never calls it a sin. If anyone calls it a sin he adds to God's word. And we ought to be careful not to do that. In the sight of Makarios, not God, masturbation is sinful. If it were sinful then God would have specifically told us so. Would he omit that if it was something we could be damned for. Of course not. Does God leave it up to us to decide what is sin or not? Of course not. But There hath no temptation taken you but such as is common to man: but God is faithful, who will not suffer you to be tempted above that ye are able; but will with the temptation also make a way to escape, that ye may be able to bear it 1 Corinthians 10:13. Now it is a sin to fornicate. But God provided us an escape from fornication and that is masturbation. Would God have given us so great a sex drive if we could not bear the temptation. And indeed that temptation could be unbearable if it were not for our ability to release the pressure on our bodies by masturbation. Masturbation is not a sin. There are enough sins for us to avoid without us making up more sins to deal with. But this we know, "If any man thinks it a sin and then does it ... for him it is a sin" Paul says this somewhere. Now masturbation in connection with pornography adds the element of lust -- which is a sin. But masturbation soley for the relief of sexual frustration is not a sin. |
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