Results 1 - 4 of 4
|
|
|||||
Results from: Notes Author: jw1 Ordered by Verse |
||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Who wrote the Book of James? | James 1:1 | jw1 | 53168 | ||
There are only two James' in the NT. The son of Zebedee and the cousin of the Messiah. All references to "James" without the phrase of "John" or "Zebedee" near it can basically be thought of as referring to James-the-less. | ||||||
2 | Who wrote the Book of James? | James 1:1 | jw1 | 53209 | ||
ok...I'll agree that there are 3 James' in the NT, but not 4. James the father of Judas (Acts 1:13, Luk 6:16) is not a figure of any real importance. It is well known that James the son of Zebedee did not write the Book of James. James-the-less is the son of Mother Mary's sister and hence he is the Messiah's cousin. He is also a "pillar" of the church in Jerusalem and the author of the book of James. The reference of "brother" in the NT when used to identify this James is the older Jewish custom of referring to any "near kinsman" as a brother. Mary and Joseph may have had children, but this James is not one of them. | ||||||
3 | Who wrote the book of James? | James 1:1 | jw1 | 53325 | ||
Mark 15:40 establishes "Mary" as the mother of "James and Joses". Mark 6:3 has "James and Joses" refered to as our Messiah's brothers. Now, because they are "brothers" of Jesus, they must be very closely related to him. John 19:25 establishes that Mother Mary's sister was present at the cross. That would be the tie-in that establishes the close relationship (that warrent's the use of "brother"). Also, when Jesus commits his spirit, he tells the apostle John that Mary is now his mother. If mother Mary actually had children, then Jesus would not have turned over the care of Mary to someone else. | ||||||
4 | Who wrote the book of James? | James 1:1 | jw1 | 53706 | ||
I'm not questioning weather or not Mary had children. It doesn't matter to me one way or the other. We are not told that she did, we are not told that she didn't. The question at hand is simply one of the interpretation of "brother". If it is only used in the familiar usage, then we must interpret it as Jesus' younger sibling. However, my argument here is that the passages could identify the usage of "brother" to indicate a near kinsman. The passages indicated earlier do show James to be Jesus's cousin. This James was the only James who could have written the Book in the NT bearing his name. For me to accept your argument that Jesus's younger brother actually wrote the general epistle, then I would have to accept the following statements: 1. The NT identifies 6 James' (a, son of Zebedee, b, James-the-less, c, James the brother of Joseph, d, James the brother of Joseph, e, James the brother of Jesus, f, James the father of Judas). (I have never heard of anyone making this statement before and I am inclined to think it is not true.) 2. Jesus brother James is an unbelieving Jew at the time of Jesus's death, but eventually becomes a pillar of the fledgling Christian church. (this is quite amazing since I only know of this happeneing to Paul, and even then Paul needed James assistance for the rest of the apostles to accept Paul) 3. At the time of Jesus death, he know that his brother will become a pillar of the church and STILL commits the care of his mother to someone outside of the family. (now that just doesn't make sense at all) Contrast those three unbelievable statements with the argument of James being our Messiah's cousin. |
||||||