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Results from: Notes Author: Holmes Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Dose the bible note angels by gender? | Bible general Archive 4 | Holmes | 228926 | ||
Matthew 5:9 “Blessed are the peacemakers, for they shall be called sons of God. Luke 20:36 for they cannot even die anymore, because they are like angels, and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection. Romans 8:14 For all who are being led by the Spirit of God, these are sons of God. Romans 8:19 For the anxious longing of the creation waits eagerly for the revealing of the sons of God. Galatians 3:26 For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. There is nothing to support your contention that "sons of God" as used in Job 1.6 and 2.1 are referring to demons. Even when "sons of God" makes reference to angels in Job 38.7 it is not referring to fallen angels. Fallen angels or demons would never be referred to as "sons of God." It is not in harmony with scripture. The "Godly" were not destroyed in the flood. The Godly line was destroyed when it became corrupted by intermarriage with the corrupt. All except for Noah and his family. Holmes |
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2 | Is Belief in the Trinity Required? | Bible general Archive 4 | Holmes | 230186 | ||
Hi ewg1938, Thank you for directly answering the two questions I asked. It is obvious that your answer to both is no. Thanks, Holmes |
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3 | Is Belief in the Trinity Required? | Bible general Archive 4 | Holmes | 230188 | ||
Hi justme, You obviously have different beliefs from ewg1938 on the subject of the Trinity. It would seem reasonable then for you to directly answer the two questions I asked. Thanks, Holmes |
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4 | Is Belief in the Trinity Required? | Bible general Archive 4 | Holmes | 230190 | ||
Hi Beja, Your exchange of scriptures with ewg1938 was very interesting. I appreciate your comments and use of scripture. I would like to see your answers to the two questions that I asked. Thanks, Holmes |
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5 | Is Belief in the Trinity Required? | Bible general Archive 4 | Holmes | 230191 | ||
Hi Searcher, Do you think that belief in the Doctrine of the Trinity and the elements as stated should be required for church membership and is it necessary for salvation? Thanks, Holmes |
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6 | Is Belief in the Trinity Required? | Bible general Archive 4 | Holmes | 230210 | ||
Hi Beja, Thank you for your thoughts. I think your answer in regards to church membership is clear. Your answer is yes, belief in the Trinity, and all of the elements thereof, should be required before a person can become a member of the church. I believe this is the actual policy of most Protestant churches. Your answer as to salvation is murky. My question is easily answered yes or no. There is no gray area. So let me rephrase the question. A person believes that Jesus is the Son of God the Father. That Jesus was crucified for our sins, was buried and arose from the dead after 3 days, ascended into heaven and sits at the right hand of the Father. The same person believes in the Holy Spirit, but as the spirit of God the Father and not as a separate person. Is that person denied salvation because he does not believe that the Holy Spirit is a separate person? Holmes |
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7 | Is Belief in the Trinity Required? | Bible general Archive 4 | Holmes | 230215 | ||
Hi Beja, I appreciate your attempts to answer the question. This seems to me to be very important, a matter of salvation. So let me rephrase the questions to see if I can get a yes or no, then you can explain all you want. Please do not read anything into the questions beyond what is asked. A person believes in the Holy Spirit, but as the spirit of God the Father and not as a separate person. The Doctrine of the Trinity is explained to him and he rejects that the Holy Spirit is a separate person. He does not reject anything else about the Doctrine. Could that person be denied salvation solely because he does not believe that the Holy Spirit is a separate person? A person believes that Jesus is not co-equal with God the Father. The Doctrine of the Trinity is explained to him and he rejects that Jesus is co-equal to God the Father. He is not denying that Jesus is God or any other part of the Doctrine. Could that person be denied salvation solely because he does not believe that Jesus and God the Father are co-equal? Thanks, Holmes |
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8 | Is Belief in the Trinity Required? | Bible general Archive 4 | Holmes | 230222 | ||
Hi Beja, You wrote: “With regards to the Christ question you are going to have to clarify. In my ears you are saying contradictory remarks. They are acknowledging that Jesus is God yet not equal? You'd have to explain in what sense He is God and in what sense He is not equal. To me you are saying, lets begin with assuming there is a square circle. I can't get around the assumptions of the case in order to be able to answer you.” In what sense is Jesus God? I don’t think there is any disagreement here. In what sense is Jesus not equal to the Father? In the sense that Jesus stated this Himself and that He has a God and that God is His Father. Are there any scriptures that state that the Father or Holy Spirit have a God? Can you admit that some may read these verses and conclude that God the Father is greater than Jesus the Son, who is also God? Was Jesus making a contradictory remark and assuming there is a square circle? John: 14:28 “I go to the Father, for the Father is greater than I.” John: 20:17 “I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.” Ephesians 1:3 "Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ" and again in verse 17: "That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him." I hope this helps you get around the assumptions so that you can answer the question, that is, must one believe that God the Father and Jesus are equal to gain salvation? Holmes |
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9 | Is Belief in the Trinity Required? | Bible general Archive 4 | Holmes | 230229 | ||
Hi Beja, OK, I forgive you for being wrong. No predetermined course, just a couple of simple questions. It seems to me that these scriptures are speaking of authority. If the Father is greater in authority, then they are not co-equal. Or is there something in the Doctrine that I am missing? Is there an exception for authority? Holmes |
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10 | Is Belief in the Trinity Required? | Bible general Archive 4 | Holmes | 230231 | ||
Beja, Thank you for your thoughts. Holmes |
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11 | Is Belief in the Trinity Required? | Bible general Archive 4 | Holmes | 230261 | ||
Hi lionheart, You wrote: “Would you please then share scripture where it says the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are not co-equal.” In my note of November 10 I offered the following scripture: John: 14:28 “I go to the Father, for the Father is greater than I.” John: 20:17 “I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.” Ephesians 1:3 "Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ" and again in verse 17: "That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him." In addition, consider Matthew 28:18 “And Jesus came up and spoke to them, saying, “ All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth.” Or John 10:29 “My Father, which gave them Me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of My Father's hand.” God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ are both Gods. Logic dictates that they can be either “co-equal” or God the Father is greater. They cannot be both! So my question remains. If a person does not believe that the two are “co-equal” as stated in the Doctrine of the Trinity, will that person be denied salvation? Holmes |
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12 | Is Belief in the Trinity Required? | Bible general Archive 4 | Holmes | 230283 | ||
Hi Tim, It is an interesting argument that God the Father was only the God of the Lord Jesus Christ during a 33-year span while Jesus was alive as a man. Also, that this is the only time that God the Father was greater than the Son. Sounds like they were “co-equal” except when they weren’t. However, I do not see this supported by scripture. John 6:38 “For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.” This was, of course, pre-incarnate and clearly shows a line of authority from the Father to the Son. 1 Corinthians 11:3 “But I want you to understand that Christ is the head of every man, and the man is the head of a woman, and God is the head of Christ. This is post-incarnate and the line of authority remains. I see the relationship between the Father and the Son as constant. And when Christ was here, he was “God with us.” None of this diminishes Christ one iota. What brings Him honor and praise is His absolute submission to the Father. This is the lesson for us, the path that Christ followed is the one we are to follow. Holmes |
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13 | I would like an explination of Geneis 6. | Gen 6:1 | Holmes | 228444 | ||
(Genesis 6:1-4) Now it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born to them, that the sons of God saw the daughters of men, that they were beautiful; and they took wives for themselves of all whom they chose. And the Lord said, "My Spirit shall not strive with man forever, for he is indeed flesh; yet his days shall be one hundred and twenty years." There were giants on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of men and they bore children to them. Those were the mighty men who were of old, men of renown. You wrote: - “What has to be recognized is that there was no 'godly line of Seth'. Seth's descendants were as ungodly as Cain's.” Please note the Godly line of Seth: Genesis 4:26 To Seth, to him also a son was born; and he called his name Enosh. Then men began to call upon the name of the LORD. Luke 3:38 . . . the son of Enosh, the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God. You wrote: - “Why on earth should a line which was to be largely destroyed for sin be called 'sons of God'? And why should their subsequent offspring have been so unique as to be 'men of renown'?” Does it make more sense that demons should be called “Sons of God?” You wrote: - “The only way to remove the effects of these unions was total destruction.” Ever heard of Goliath? Guess that destruction was not total! Read the verses carefully. It says there were giants in those days and also afterward, mighty men, men of renown. It does not say they were the result of the sons of God being united with the daughters of men, but actually existed before that time. The LORD said, “My Spirit shall not strive with MAN forever,” not Man-Demons. Women are human and angels are spirit beings, angels cannot cohabit or reproduce with women. Each kind is to produce after it’s own kind. Do angels reproduce? For your consideration, Holmes |
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14 | How long is a Biblical Generation ? | Gen 15:16 | Holmes | 229139 | ||
Biblicalman, You stated, “It is not easy to answer your question because the concept changed over the centuries.” That’s is not what you state next. You change the meaning of Generation from meaning 100 years before Passover to 40 years after Passover. That’s one day, not over the centuries. You stated, “We know this because they would be strangers in the land of Egypt for 400 years, and would return in the fourth generation (Gen 15.13, 16). You are misquoting scripture here. It does not say Egypt, it says “strangers in a land not theirs.” This includes Canaan and Egypt. You stated, “So from Joseph to Joshua there were 11 generations inclusive. At 40 years per generation that would give us 400 years, agreeing with Genesis 15.” Here you are using 100 years and 40 years during the same time period! You stated, “Moses and Aaron's genealogy was clearly foreshortened.” Clearly you are in error. Holmes |
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15 | How long is a Biblical Generation ? | Gen 15:16 | Holmes | 229198 | ||
Hi biblicalman, - You wrote, “I don't remember mentioning Passover? You must have misread what I said.” You cited the 400 years that ended in Egypt and in the next line you cited the 40 years in the wilderness. In the former you said a generation was 100 years and in the latter 40 years. These two periods of time were separated only by the Passover. Then you cited the genealogy of Joshua as representing 40 years as a generation. This genealogy includes both the 400 years that ended in Egypt and the 40 years in the wilderness. Your interpretation of these verses is contradictory and confusing. You are reading a definition of “generation” into the scriptures that simply does not exist. - You wrote: “I fail to see where I am misquoting Scripture. It says 'strangers in a land (singular) which is not theirs where they would serve them and would be afflicted for four hundred years, and also THAT NATION whom they serve will I judge, and afterward they will come out with great substance '. Clearly one nation was in mind.” I will agree with you that “on the face of Genesis 15:13” it appears that the Israelites were strangers in Egypt on land not their own and were enslaved and oppressed for 400 years. However, other scriptures contradict this interpretation. It seems that you recognize this because you understand that the generations of Moses, as written in Ex. 6:16-20 could not extend over 400 years. Therefore, you came to the conclusion that the genealogy of Moses and Aaron was shortened. It is also contradicted by Paul in Gal. 3:16-17 where it confirms that from God’s covenant with Abraham, made at the time of his offer of Isaac, till the time of the Passover was 430 years. Also, see Ex. 12:41. The Israelites were not strangers (sojourners) nor did they travel from place to place in Egypt. They came to Egypt as the invited guest of the Pharaoh himself and were given the best land on which to live. They did not fall into oppression until after the death of Joseph at the age of 110 years (Ex 1). How then can Genesis 15:13 be interpreted to be consistent with the other scriptures? The Bible does this itself in Ex 6: 4-5. Read these scripture together: - Genesis 15:13 “God said to Abram, ‘know for certain that your descendants will be strangers in a land that is not theirs, where they will be enslaved and oppressed four hundred years’. “ - Exodus 6:4 “I also established My covenant with them, to give them the land of Canaan, the land in which they sojourned.” - Exodus 6:5 “Furthermore I have heard the groaning of the sons of Israel, because the Egyptians are holding them in bondage, and I have remembered My covenant. See also: - Genesis 17:8 “the land of your sojourning, all the land of Canaan” - Genesis 23:4 “I am a stranger and a sojourner among you” - Genesis 28:4 “the land of your sojournings, which God gave to Abraham - Genesis 37:1 “where his father had sojourned, in the land of Canaan. For your consideration, Holmes |
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16 | How long is a Biblical Generation ? | Gen 15:16 | Holmes | 229202 | ||
Hi CDBJ, That would be wishful thinking. Holmes |
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17 | How long is a Biblical Generation ? | Gen 15:16 | Holmes | 229205 | ||
1 Chronicles 7:22-27 New American Standard Bible (NASB) 22 Their father Ephraim mourned many days, and his relatives came to comfort him. 23 Then he went in to his wife, and she conceived and bore a son, and he named him Beriah, because misfortune had come upon his house. 24 His daughter was Sheerah, who built lower and upper Beth-horon, also Uzzen-sheerah. 25 Rephah was his son along with Resheph, Telah his son, Tahan his son, 26 Ladan his son, Ammihud his son, Elishama his son, 27 Non his son and Joshua his son. Hi biblicalman, You have made much of the genealogy of Joshua as compared to Moses and I failed to address that issue, so let me do so now. The “fourth generation” would return to Canaan. What is the “fourth generation?” Joseph would be 1st generation, his children would be 2nd generation, his grandchildren would be 3rd generation and his great-grandchildren would be “fourth generation.” The “fourth Generation” returning would also include the generations of their descendants, however many that might be. In the case of Joshua, it was the eleventh generation. Now let us look closely at these verses. Joseph was the 1st generation and his son Ephraim was the 2nd generation. In verse 23, Ephraim had a son, Beriah, and he was the 3rd generation and the grandson of Joseph. Beriah’s children would be “the fourth generation.” Did any of Beriah’s children (fourth generation) return to Canaan? Please note verse 24 and his fourth-generation daughter “Sheerah, who built lower and upper Beth-horon, also, Uzzen-sherrah.” Beth-horon and Uzzen-sherrah are in the land of Canaan. For your consideration, Holmes |
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18 | How long is a Biblical Generation ? | Gen 15:16 | Holmes | 229214 | ||
Hi CDBJ, Sorry, that would be no, my first name is not John. Holmes |
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19 | How long is a Biblical Generation ? | Gen 15:16 | Holmes | 229227 | ||
Hi biblicalman, - You wrote: “But you are surely not suggesting that she returned with Moses and with her great great great great great grandson Joshua? That would be stretching credulity too far.” I would be suggesting that. However, as you have pointed out the 7 generations between Sheerah and Joshua stretches credulity and I must agree. Especially since Sherrah and Joshua would have to be approximately the same age when they entered Canaan. It would seem to me that these passages may have a different meaning than what they say on their face and must be interpreted elsewhere in scripture. One correction, Joshua is the 5th great grand nephew of Sheerah. I cede this point to you, pending further study. Holmes |
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20 | How long is a Biblical Generation ? | Gen 15:16 | Holmes | 229228 | ||
Hi biblicalman, I concur with your comments, well said. We disagree on many positions regarding scripture. However, I appreciate other points of view and like to know why those views are held. You have offered scripture that I had not fully known or taken into account and hold me to account to represent my own views as supported by scripture. This helps me to learn and grow and hopefully gives others the opportunity to consider different viewpoints and make their own judgements. Holmes |
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