Results 1 - 11 of 11
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: yokefellow Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is 'once saved always saved correct? | John 6:37 | yokefellow | 31316 | ||
Ka Lynn, Thank you for your desire to study the Bible and see what God has to say about a matter (Acts 17:11). When we look at the doctrine of "once saved always saved" we need to first ask ourselves, "Is this phrase located anywhere in the Bible"? Get a Young's or Strong's concordance and look up the word "once" and see if that phrase is located anywhere in the Bible. If it is not - then we need to reject the doctrine - it's not a teaching of God's Word. Now, after saying that we see that as a result of your study of Heb. 6:4-6 and 10:26-31, you came to the conclusion that we can loose our salvation if we turn from God. Your question was, "Is this correct?" The answer you received through your study of God's Word was "YES", a Christian CAN loose his salvation IF we turn from God (Heb. 6:4-6; 10:26-31); and other passages as well (Numbers 15:30-31; Deut. 17:9-13). Let's examine the scriptures that Lionstrong (who gave you an opposing answer) quoted from John 6:37-40 as his "proof" of the doctrine "once saved always saved". (In other words, you can't "loose" your salvation no matter how much you sin). Let's see if he's correct in his interpretation. Remember, one of the rules of correct interpretation of the Bible is to include the "total" body of scripture in your interpretation (Psa. 119:160; 139:17; Matt. 4:4; 2 Tim. 3:16). 1) Vs. 37a - "All that the Father giveth me shall come to me" - There is a recognition in the scripture that is a certain "class" of people with honest hearts desirous to know and to do God's Will. This "class" (those who are obedient) of people is here represented as given to Christ by God. In the tenth chapter, Christ speaks of having sheep not of the flock then with him (John 10:16), referring to the Gentiles who would receive him when His Gospel was preached to them (Eph. 3:6). Again, at Corinth God told Paul, "I have much people in this city" (Acts 18:9-10). This statement was made BEFORE any of them had confessed and rendered obedience to Him. Some of the Corinthians had already rendered obedience to the word of God (Acts 18:7-8). God has called and predestinated (2 Thess. 2:14; Rom. 8:29-30; Eph. 1:4-5) to eternal life the "class" of people who display a "willing" mind in being "obedient" to His Will (Matt. 7:21; Rom. 6:17). 2) Vs. 37b - "and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out." - All that "class" (the obedient) Jesus receives. Some who are of this "class" are obedient only for a "temporary" period of time (Judas who betrayed our Lord is an example of this type of character - Matt. 13:20-21). Christ will "in no wise cast out" those who are obedient and who continue to remain obedient and faithful) to His Gospel (Matt. 24:13; Rev. 2:10). 3) Vs. 38 - "For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me." - The end of all God's dealings with men is to bring them to DO the will of God. Jesus came down from heaven to earth to lead men in this way. He had no will of his own (his own agenda) apart from the will of his Father (Note Jn. 4:34; 5:30). To accomplish his Father's will was the supreme and only object of Jesus and should be the exact same object of his followers. 4) Vs. 39 - "And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day." - God's will was that Jesus should save all who would believe and follow him (be obedient to his will)(Rom. 2:4; 1 Tim. 2:4; 2 Peter 3:9). However, like Judas, some people start out to follow the Lord's teachings and render obedience to his teachings but when persecutions and trials begin to "test" their "faithfulness" to the Lord, they turn back to the ways of the world, and walk with him no more (Matt. 13:20-21); also note Demas (2 Tim. 4:10). 5) Vs. 40 - "And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day." - It is God's will that all who will OBEY Jesus (John 15:7-10) should have eternal life (1 John 5:1-13). These Jesus will raise up at the last day (judgment day - 1 Thess. 4:14-16). The obedient "class" of people have the spiritual insight and faculties to "see" and "believe" (Matt. 13:10-16; Mark 4:11-12) God's Truth that He presents to them through the saving Gospel of His Son, Jesus (Rom. 1:16). If people refuse or reject that saving Gospel (Acts 28:23-27), they will be eternally lost (Rom. 2:1-11; 2 Thess. 1:8-9). May the Lord richly bless you as you continue to study His Word! Mike |
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2 | How old was Moses when he died | Genesis | yokefellow | 31289 | ||
Dear Keng, Thank you for your Bible question. According to Deuteronomy 34:7, Moses was a hundred and twenty years old when he died. Mike |
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3 | I DO NOT UNDERSTAND WHAT 42;6-7 . | Isaiah | yokefellow | 31086 | ||
Dear Smartcats, Thank you for your question concerning the meaning of Isaiah 42:6-7. The following answer is provided from scripture: 1) The whole chapter of Isaiah 42 focuses on the prophecy of the Messiah, His character, and the spiritual blessings of His kingdom, particularly among the Gentiles. Vs. 6 - "I the Lord have called thee in righteousness" - We ask, who is the "thee" that Isaiah is speaking of? It's the Lord's "servant" (Isa. 42:1; Matt. 12:14-18). "and give thee for a covenant of the people" - The nation of Israel was the instrument through which the Messiah was to appear (tribe of Judah - Heb. 7:14). He was to spiritually fulfill God's covenant to Abraham in Genesis 12:3 that "all nations of the earth be blessed." This covenant was to include BOTH Jew and Gentile "through faith" (Galations 3:6-9; (Heb. 11:6). The Jews were the first to be offered the blessings of the Gospel (Acts 3:25-26) but they rejected it (Acts 13:44-49). As a result, the Gentiles were offered the "light" of the Gospel and they accepted it (Acts 13:48; 28:28). In your Bible margin next to Acts 13:48, you should see a scripture reference to Isaiah 42:6 and 49:6. Vs. 7 - This is a reference to the spiritual characteristics or qualities of the Messiah in fulfilling the purpose for which He came. He was "To open the blind eyes" (spiritually blind as well as physically blind - Isa. 29:18; 35:5; Matt. 11:5); "to bring out the prisoners from the prison" (bring out the prisoners from the prison of sin). Sin "enslaves" (Rom. 6:16-18; 22) but the Gospel "frees" us from sin (Rom. 6:18); "and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house." Isaiah 9:2 describes their spiritual condition as "people that walked in darkness" but "have seen a great light". This prophecy was fulfilled in Matt. 4:16 as Jesus began His ministry in the area around Capernaum and also as the Apostle Paul spoke to the Ephesian church (Eph. 5:8-14). We also see a similar reading of Verse 7 in Isaiah 61:1 with the fulfillment found in Luke 4:16-21 referring to the Messiah (Christ). Since Christ has "reconciled" both Jew and Gentile through His blood (Eph. 2:13), we Gentiles (along with obedient Jews) are the spiritual "offspring" or "heirs" of the promise made to Abraham (Gen. 12:3; Gal. 3:16; 26-29). 2) God is simply saying to His people, Israel, in Isaiah Chapter 42 that through the "covenant" given to Abraham (Genesis 12:3), not only His people Israel would be spiritually blessed but the Gentiles would be spiritually blessed as well (Isa. 49:6; Luke 2:32; Acts 13:46-48). In your Bible margin next to Luke 2:32, you should see scriptures references to Isaiah 9:2; 42:6; 49:6; 60:1-3; Matt. 4:16; Acts 13:47; 28:28). In Christ, all obedient children of God through faith have all spiritual blessings (Eph. 1:3-7). May the Lord continue to bless your study of His Word. Mike |
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4 | Was Paul martyred? Or, did he live long | Acts 28:16 | yokefellow | 31062 | ||
Greetings, Marj, The following information is taken from Peloubet's Bible Dictionary, Pgs. 494-495: 1) Paul was imprisoned twice, the first imprisonment being recorded in Acts 28:16-31. This occurred A.D. 60-62. His "prison epistles" were written during this time - Philemon; Colossians; Ephesians; Philippians. According to the general opinion the apostle was liberated from imprisonment at the end of two years, having been acquitted by Nero A.D. 63, and left Rome. He spent some time in visits to Macedonia, Greece, Asia Minor and Spain, and during the latter part of this time wrote the letters to Timothy and Titus from Macedonia. After these were written he was apprehended again and sent to Rome. 2) The second imprisonment at Rome occurred, A.D. 66-67. The apostle appears now to have been treated not as an honorable state prisoner, but as a felon (2 Tim. 2:9); but he was allowed to write the second letter to Timothy, A.D. 67. For what remains we have the concurrent testimony of ecclesiastical antiquity that he was beheaded at Rome, by Nero, in the great persecutions of the Christians by that emperor, A.D. 67 or 68. 3) The following websites are provided for additional reference/information: 1) http://www.geocities.com/Athens/Ithaca/7730/Christian_martyrs/Paul.html 2) http://www.yfiles.com/disciples.html 3) http://www.direct.ca/trinity/disciples.html Mike |
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5 | Read full question! | Bible general Archive 1 | yokefellow | 30016 | ||
Good day to you BF and thank you for your response. Romans 8:1 is not a contradiction at all but is supportive of the scriptures that I gave in my last posting. The "no condemnation" in this verse is in reference to being "in Christ", freed from the condemnation produced by the law (of Moses), as well as the grip of sin. How does one get "into Christ"? By being baptized into his death (Romans 6:3; Gal. 3:27). All spiritual blessings are found "in Christ" (Eph. 1:3). Let us, however, realize that this "freedom" from condemnation is NOT in a comprehensive, complete, and total sense. Getting "into" Christ and "remaining" faithful "in Christ" are "conditional" in nature, and those requirements and restrictions must be both "met" and "continually kept". This "no condemnation" is certainly not an area of logical, valid reasoning for the doctrine of the "impossibility" of apostasy. The following is a four-point, simple outline illustrating this fact: 1) The Bible warns us against falling away (1 Cor. 10:5-12; 2 Pet. 2:20-22; Gal. 5:4; Heb. 4:1, 11; 6:4-6). 2) The Bible tells us how to keep from falling away (2 Pet. 1:5-10; Jude 21; Acts 13:43; Heb. 10:39). 3) The Bible tells us what to do when we fall away (Acts 8:20-24; Rev. 2:5; 1 John 1:9; 2:1-2; James 5:16). 4) The Bible gives examples of those who have fallen away (Acts 8:13-24; Gal. 2:11-14; 2 Tim. 4:10). Let's look at Jude vs. 24 - Reading from the American Standard Version - 1901. "Now unto him that is able to guard you from stumbling, and to set you before the presence of his glory without blemish in exceeding joy". The doxology is to Jesus Christ. Jude here affirms that Christ was (a) able to guard Jude's readers from stumbling; and (b) to set them before the presence of his glory without blemish in exceeding joy. The word "guard" indicates the protection which the Lord extends to his saints who "keep themselves" in God's love (vs. 21), a protection which extends even to "stumbling", an act to be distinguished from "falling", since it is possible for one to "stumble", and not necessarily to "fall". To "stumble" is a step short of "falling", and a condition precedent to it. It follows, therefore, that if one NEVER stumbles, he will NEVER fall. This passage does NOT teach the impossibility of apostasy; it is not here affirmed that God guards all whether they keep themselves in his love or not; on the contrary, only those who AVAIL THEMSELVES of the means of escape provided (1 Cor. 10:12-13) are thus protected. The verb "to set" means, literally, "to cause to stand," and this the Lord will do for those who are "faithful" to him to the end (Rev. 2:10). Such shall stand before him "without blemish" (i.e., blameless, faultless, pure), because they have kept themselves from defilement and have lived in such fashion as to merit his approval. These "faithful" shall experience "exceeding joy" because of the marvelous blessings that shall be given them (Rev. 7:13-17; 21:3-4). The idea of "once saved always saved" is not supported in the Bible thus it is a false teaching. Mike |
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6 | Demons or Sin? | James 3:15 | yokefellow | 29942 | ||
Greetings, Kaman: Thank you for your questions: 1) "Do demons exist today and in what form." Demons and their ability to inhabit the bodies of men no longer exist. Their evil "influence" (along with Satan's influence), however, does still exist (John 8:44; Eph. 6:12; 1 John 3:8). Our Lord "bound" Satan in his own house or domain (Matt. 12:22-30), and the Gospel of Christ is the "chain" which restrains him and his servants or demons (Rev. 20:1-4). During the first century, those people who were seized by these agents of Satan were "powerless" to remove these demons. Only Christ and His disciples had the power to remove them (Mark 5:1-15; Luke 10:17). Today ALL men, through the help of the Lord, have the power to repel Satan's influences. The Lord met Satan in his own domain and triumphed over him (1 Cor. 15:54-58; 1 John 5:4;Heb. 2:14-15). Today, the devil's power over men is "limited" to deceit (Rev. 12:9; 20:3) and temptation (Matt. 4:1-11; James 1:13-15; 1 John 2:14-16) both of which may be resisted by the help of God and the sword of the Spirit (Matt. 4:1-13; 1 Cor. 10:13; Eph. 6:10-18). If we "resist" the devil, he will "flee" from us (James 4:7), because he is afraid of any one who wields the weapon of the Holy Spirit - the word of God (Heb. 4:12). 2) You stated, "Evil in the world comes from sin and not from demons." Evil originates in the heart of man (Matt. 15:18-19; Mark 7:20-23) when he is influenced by Satan (Eph. 2:2-3) and the “world” (James 4:1-4; 1 John 2:15-16) to transgress God’s law (1 John 3:4). Satan tempts man in three areas: (1) lust of the flesh; (2) lust of the eyes; (3) pride of life (1 John 2:16). He tempted Eve and Christ in the same three areas (Gen. 3:6; Matt. 4:1-11). Sin and death entered the world through Adam. The phrase “by one man” refers to the sin of Adam in the Garden of Eden (Gen. 2:17). Through this transgression by Adam against the law of God, sin and death entered into the world (1 Cor. 15:21-22). Paul points out in Romans 3:23 that “all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God.” All men will have to bear the “consequence” of Adam’s sin which is physical death (Romans 5:12). When man freely “chooses” to transgress God’s law, that man dies spiritually as well as physically (Romans 6:23). The “spiritual death” of each accountable individual is not because of Adam’s sin but because, “all have sinned” (Romans 3:23). It is due to the sin of each individual who is himself responsible for his own spiritual condition before God. The Bible makes it clear that man is responsible only for what he does or does not do (Isa. 59:2; Eze. 18:4; Rom. 6:23) and nowhere teaches that man is born with a “sinful nature” (Matt. 19:14; Heb. 12:9). All men are guilty of sin before God because they continue to “choose” succumb to evil influences (Satan and the world) and commit sin (Romans 3:23; Gal. 3:22). Mike |
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7 | Can you lose your salvation? | Bible general Archive 1 | yokefellow | 29926 | ||
Dear BF Kratz, Thank you for your question concerning your salvation. A Bible answer is of utmost importance since our eternal souls are at stake. 1) "Is salvation something that must be earned each day?" - The answer is: NO! a. Eternal salvation cannot be "earned" by man - not by works of the Jewish law of Moses, or by any works of man's invention or device (Eph. 2:9; 2 Tim. 1:9) because sin has separated him from God (Isaiah 59:1-2). However, because of God's eternal love for man, salvation is extended to man by God's grace (unmerited favor) (Eph. 2:8; John 3:16-17; Rom. 5:6-10). Without God's grace, man would be eternally lost! This is God's part in man's salvation process. b. Man's part in his salvation process is accepting God's grace "through faith" (Eph. 2:8; Rom. 10:17). God puts no difference between Jew and Gentile, saving both by grace through faith in Jesus Christ (Rom. 10:12; Gal. 3:26-28). Faith is the medium through which all accept His salvation. On the part of God salvation is by grace; on the part of man it is his acceptance of God's grace through an obedient faith (Rom. 6:17; 10:17; 2 Tim. 1:13). God gives man the capacity to believe (Rom. 10:17), reveals to him the things to believe, and ample testimony to produce the faith required (John 20:30-31; Mark 16:15-16; Rom. 1:16; Gal. 3:26-29). 2) "If you sin (which we do each day) and die before asking for forgiveness, will you go to heaven or hell?" The answer is: Any sin that is unrepented of will cause a child of God to be lost eternally. In the New Testament, any sin that is unrepented of is referred to as "a sin unto death" (1 John 1:16). This "death" is referring to spiritual "death" or eternal separation from God (Isaiah 59:2). Anyone whose heart is hardened to the point of not ever wanting to repent of his sins, the Bible says, "it is impossible" (Heb. 6:4) "to renew them again unto repentance" (Heb. 6:6). We must, therefore, be willing to "continually confess" our sins before God. In 1 John 1:9, the verb "confess" is translated from a "present active" subjunctive and literally translated means "If we keep on confessing our sins" indicative of a continuous process. Notice in 1 John 1:7 the little word "if". Our salvation is "conditioned" on our "walking in the light" and "confessing our sins" (vs. 9). The word "light" is a figurative word used in the Bible representing God's Word (Psa. 119:105; Prov. 6:23). In other words, we must always be willing to "continue" walking in the "light" of God's Word or being obedient to God's Word. If we are unwilling to confess our sins, God will be unwilling to forgive us our sins and we will be eternally lost (Isaiah 59:1-2; Prov. 28:13; Rom. 6:23; 1 John 1:9). The New Testament teaches that a child of God can fall from grace (Gal. 5:4), or fail, i.e., fall back from, the Lord’s favor (Heb. 12:15 - ASV). It is possible to deny the Master who bought (purchased) you (1 Cor. 6:20; Acts 20:28; Gal. 3:13; Heb. 9:12; 1 Pet. 1:18-19; 2 Pet. 2:1; Rev. 5:9); and so be destroyed (2 Pet. 2:1). It is also possible to turn the grace of God into lasciviousness and deny Christ (Jude 4). Thus, we must keep ourselves in God’s love (Jude 21), and give diligence to make our calling and election sure (2 Pet. 1:10). We accomplish this by obeying and making application of God's Word in our lives (John 15:9-10; Rom. 6:17; Gal. 5:6; 2 Tim. 1:13; James 1:21-25; 1 John 2:3-6; 3:18-21) lest our reception of divine grace be in vain (2 Cor. 6:1). May the Lord continue to bless you in the study of His Word. Mike |
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8 | AntiChrist | 1 John 2:22 | yokefellow | 29738 | ||
Dear Sue, Thank you for your question, "What are some basic characteristics of the AntiChrist?" According to the scriptures: 1) He is a liar - 1 John 2:22. 2) He is a deceiver - 2 John 7. 3) He is a denier that Jesus is the Christ - 1 John 2:22. 4) He is a denier of both the Father and the Son - 1 John 2:22. 5) He refuses to acknowledge that Christ has come in the flesh - 1 John 4:3; 2 John 7. Mike |
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9 | 'Practical' service? | Mark 9:35 | yokefellow | 29616 | ||
Charis, I appreciate your response, however, in my previous posting, I gave you scriptural answers to the specific questions YOU ASKED! I'm afraid that I'm not into philosophical ideolgies when it comes to God's Word. If that's what you're looking for you might want to allow someone else to answer them. I'm only interested in a "thus saith the Lord" and in following the principle found in 1 Peter 4:11 when answering questions pertaining to the scriptures. To follow any other method would be spiritual suicide (Gal. 1:6-9). With the above in mind, let me address your present questions: 1) "Where does the Bible tell us that we all must serve?" Christ stated in John 12:26, "If any man serve me, let him follow me". The phrase, "any man" means exactly what it says. John tells us in Rev. 1:5 that Christ is "the prince of the kings of the earth". He is "Lord of lords, and King of kings" (Rev. 17:14). We are "kings and priests" in His kingdom (Rev. 1:6,9). His kingdom is a spiritual kingdom (John 18:36) or "spiritual house" (1 Pet. 2:5) "built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone" (Eph. 2:20-22). His spiritual kingdom and His church are one and the same (Matt. 16:18-19). This is the kingdom (church) that He purchased and died for (Acts 20:28). He is the head of the church (kingdom) - his body (Eph. 1:22-23) and believers are members of it (Acts 2:47; 5:14; Eph. 5:30). We as "priests" in His kingdom must offer up spiritual sacrifices to God (1 Peter 2:5), sacrifices of praise, the fruit of lips (Heb. 13:15), having first presented our bodies as "a living sacrifice", holy and acceptable to Him (Rom. 12:1). This sounds like something a "servant" would do, doesn't it you? 2) "Where do Christians serve in the here and now?" Specific areas of service would be: (1) Evangelization (Matt. 28:19-20; Mark 16:15); Benevolence (Matt. 25:35-36; Rom. 12:13; 2 Cor. 8; Gal. 6:10; James 1:27; 2:15-17; 1 John 3:17-18); Edification (Acts 2:42; 1 Cor. 14:26; 2 Cor. 12:19; Col. 3:16; Heb. 10:24-25). 3) "Do we serve only God?". We serve God, Christ, and the Holy Spirit because all three persons of the Godhead testify to the validity of the Word (1 John 5:1-10) that we (servants and priests) are to obey (Matt. 7:21; Rom. 6:16-18; James 1:22) and to "hold fast" to (2 Tim. 1:13; Titus 1:9; Heb. 10:23). When we "obey" God's Word, the Holy Spirit "beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God" (Rom. 8:16). If we "disobey" God's Word, that Word will judge us in the last day (John 12:48). One last thought. In order to serve God "acceptably", we must serve Him "with reverence and godly fear" (Heb. 12:28) or we will suffer the consequences (Heb. 12:29). This answer is about as "in-depth" as I can give. I pray that this answer will be scripturally sufficient for you. Mike |
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10 | Are all servants? | Mark 9:35 | yokefellow | 29542 | ||
Charis, Thank you for your questions. Here are your answers by scripture: 1) "Are all servants?" - Yes - (Romans 6:18, 22; 1 Corinthians 9:19-23). 2) "Where do we serve?" - We serve in the "kingdom" of our Lord (Colossians 1:13; 4:11; 1 Thess. 2:12; 2 Timothy 2:12; Revelation 1:9). 3) "Who do we serve?" - We serve God (Acts 27:23; Romans 1:9; 2 Timothy 1:3; Hebrews 9:14; 12:28; Revelation 7:15; 22:3). |
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11 | matthew 12-43 | Matthew | yokefellow | 29350 | ||
Thank you for your question concerning Matthew 12:43. You can understand verses 43-45 when you understand the overall context of what Jesus is saying beginning in vs. 38. Vs. 38 - The Jews had asked a sign "from thee" that should decisively prove that he was the Messiah, and satisfy their unbelief. He replies that, though he should give them a sign or a conclusive and satisfactory "proof", they would soon return to their former course of unbelief and wickedness and become worse and worse. Vs. 39-40 - He then states that the only "sign" they would receive was the sign of Jonah (speaking of his resurrection - which they never believed). Vs. 41-42 - Christ then gives two examples for their benefit. The men of Nineveh "repented" at the preaching of Jonah - this generation would not (vs. 39). Therefore, by their evil and adulterous actions, they would be condemned; the "queen of the south" - Sheba (1 Kings 10:1-13)came "to hear the wisdom of Solomon". She obviously was seeking a greater knowledge of God (Jehovah) - these Jews did not display this attitude and were here condemned by Jesus. Vs. 43 - Jesus here warns the Jews that the evil spirits which he had cast out would return, and if they found the man impenitent (as these Jews were), they would take possession of his heart with greater malignity than ever and would hasten him on to ruin. The unclean spirit is here represented as going "through waterless (dry) places, seeking rest, and finding none". The Jews, Arabs, and Egyptians believed that deserts were the haunts of evil spirits. Hence, the evil spirit finds habitation in the desert; it is "represented" here as a man in a fever, who in vain turns to every side for ease, but finds none. His nervous system is disorganized and cannot remain still. It is driven by restless madness. The demon, driven by divine power from the hearts of men, is pictured by Jesus as going about searching for a fit abode and restless because no human heart is found for residence. Vs. 44 - "Then he saith, I will return into my house from whence I came out". The man is called his "house" because the evil spirit had dwelt in him. "and when he is come, he findeth it empty, swept, and garnished." By the absence of the evil spirit the house is represented as unoccupied or "empty", "swept", and "garnished". In other words while the evil spirit was away, the man was restored to his right mind, or was freed from the "influence" of the evil spirit. The word "garnished" means "adorned, put in order, furnished". Applied to the man, it means that his mind was sane and normal when the evil spirit was gone. Vs. 45a - "Then goeth he, and taketh with himself seven other spirits more wicked than himself, and they enter in and dwell there" - The number "seven" represented to the Jews of that day any "finished, perfect, or complete" number. The evil spirit will not reenter a man weak and alone; he will take with him a strong reinforcement so as not again to be ejected. Vs. 45b - "and the last state of that man is worse than the first" - This statement seems to indicate that there are different "degrees" of depravity among demons as well as among men; they are worse after having returned, and the man into whom the reenter is "sevenfold" worse. Vs. 45c - "Even so shall it be also unto this wicked generation" - These words show Jesus' application of the parable; we can now say so it "was with that generation" (vs. 39). This parable refers to not merely to verses 38-45, but to the whole narrative (verses 22-42) which was occasioned by the miracle in verse 22. To summarize the above: There were evil spirits in the days of Jesus who took possession of men's minds (hearts). When Jesus cast them out, they were supposed to inhabit dry desert places (vs. 43). When the demons did not find rest in those places, they wanted to once again inhabit the "house" (or mind) that Jesus had cast them out of. This evil spirit returns to the same mind finding it unoccupied with a "good spirit". He enters the man's mind and takes with him "seven" other spirits more wicked than himself, and the "last state" of that man is worse than the first because he did not "fill" his heart with "good" when the "evil" was cast out. Jesus said, "Even so shall it be also unto this wicked generation." The Jews he was speaking to (and those of like mind) would be the "worse" for having known and rejected Jesus. This same principle applies to men today. If we know God's truth (John 17:17), and fail to practice and obey it (James 1:23-25; Romans 6:17), the heart (mind) is hardened (Hebrews 3:13). We are the "worse" for having known it (2 Peter 2:20-22). The gospel of Christ presents to believers eternal life. Rejection of that gospel will result in eternal death or damnation (2 Thess. 1:7-10). Mike |
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