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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: tomsweetstir Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | RAPTURE: PRE-TRIBULATION OR NOT? | Bible general Archive 2 | tomsweetstir | 108080 | ||
REX, your first question: “at what point will the rapture take place? with the tribulation period being the reference point”, is easy. The full tribulation period precedes Christ coming again for His people. Your claim: “I have approached this subject as if I have never heard a study on it before,” will help you grasp the truth. Too many have read the footnotes in their Bibles, which often drastically contradict Scripture. For instance, Scofield Reference Bible’s footnote concerning Matt 13:40, states: “At the end of the age (v. 40) the tares are set apart for the burning, but FIRST the wheat is gathered into the barn.” (Emphasis mine.) HOWEVER, Scripture states just the opposite. Matt 13:30 “Gather together FIRST the tares for destruction…” Note WHEN this happens – “At the end of the age”. Not seven years or 3 and a half years before the end, but AT the end of the age. Your last question, “Can anyone tell me where the pre-rapture theory came from?” is also easy. For 1800 years, no believers ever taught, thought, or wrote about any such thing such as those who claim “rapture” assume. Justin Martyr (100-165), Irenaeus (130-202), Tertullian (160-240), Hippolytus (170-236), Cypian (200-258), Lactantius (260-330), Luther, Wycliff, Tyndale, Huss, Knox, the Newtons, Wesley, Lataimer, Calvin, etc. etc. ALL WROTE that the church would suffer at the hands of the antichrist. From the days of the apostles until 1830, the message that Jesus, Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Peter and Paul taught was what the church believed. Margaret McDonald gave a “prophecy” early in 1830 in Richard Irving’s church. In 1840, the book, “The Restoration of Apostles and Prophets In the Catholic Church" included her “revelation”. It was authored by Robert Newton. It wasn’t long before this "new revelation of a secret rapture” from Hell's pit spread. Some members of The Plymouth Brethren accepted it and some rejected it. It wasn’t long before the “two parts of Jesus' second coming” was instituted into Bible footnotes. John Nelson Darby (1800-1882, sometimes called, “the founder of modern dispensationalism” got Satan’s ball rolling. Even though Godly men, such as George Muller, William Booth, Charles Spurgeon, etc. challenged the unscriptural doctrine, Cylus Scofield (1843-1921) picked up the ball and now, those who deny what Scripture teaches in easy to understand language, discount truth in favor of some “secret rapture.” I find it interesting that believers of "that lie" refer to it as “the Pre-trib THEORY”. It is believed in spite of all the evidence that disproves the "THEORY". Oswald J. Smith USED to believe the rapture lie, because he was taught it at conferences and in Bible School. In “Tribulation or Rapture-Which?” , Smith wrote “…….when I began to search the scriptures for myself I discovered that there is not a single verse in the Bible that upholds the pre-tribulation theory." There is so much more good, solid information out there, if you desire, ask. May He guide you into ALL truth, Tom |
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2 | Which words of Jesus are literal? | 2 Tim 3:16 | tomsweetstir | 99453 | ||
TommyS, I figure I might also take a swing at this GREAT question. Jesus talked allegorically OFTEN. In each of the Gospels, much is devoted to things Jesus said, which cannot be taken “literally” for very simple reasons. Like the Old Testament language, “Parables” and “Allegories” were used by Jesus and, even in John’s Revelation, figurative language is used. Until shortly before Jesus’ death, the Scriptures states “Jesus spoke all these things to the crowd in parables; He did not say anything to them WITHOUT using a parable. So was fulfilled what was spoken through the prophet, ‘I will open my mouth in parables, I will utter things hidden since the creation of the world’” (Matt 13:34-35) In Matthew 13:10, His disciples, who listened to Jesus tell allegory after parable, finally asked Him – why? He told them it’s for “them” to understand – not the world.” John 16:25 was AFTER the Last Supper, which means it was AFTER Matthew 24 because the Lord’s Supper in Matthew 26. Which told the disciples and it tell us, Matthew 24 is NOT TO BE TAKEN LITTERALLY. I don’t know what you believe about that – but. John 16:25 says: "Though I HAVE BEEN speaking FIGURATIVELY, a time is coming WHEN I WILL NO LONGER use this kind of language." TommyS, once you understand EXACTLY WHAT Jesus means by “Heaven and earth” – you will understand HOW it was fulfilled. Just remember, TommyS, there will be those who don’t take Jesus at HIS WORD, by claiming He meant only what He said, how He said it, etc. etc. There is more meat to this topic, but lunch hour is almost over. Discovering these simple truths has set me free. Tom |
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3 | Which chapters in Job ARE NOT true? | 2 Tim 3:16 | tomsweetstir | 99438 | ||
TommyS, if you are thinking about that place where God told one of the friends of Job "MY wrath is kindled against thy two friends: for ye have not spoken of me RIGHT, as my servant Job." If that is what you mean by "which chapters are not true" than those "NOT TRUE" chapters would be 4, 5, 8, 11, 13, 15, 18, 20, 22 and 25. God didn't comment on what the fourth friend, Elihu, said, BUT God did tell everyone that what JOB SAID ABOUT GOD WAS RIGHT. If, by chance, this IS NOT what you had in mind -sorry, but I have no idea what you are asking. :) Tom P.S. Read Job 42:7-9, if you desire to know "where" I obtained this answer. |
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4 | Why does Israel use occult symbolism? | 1 Kin 11:6 | tomsweetstir | 98078 | ||
TommyS, why does Israel use what many mistakenly believe came from King David, I’m not sure. Although, every Jewish person I have meet is heavily involved in Cabala – ultra-satanic. So, you are absolutely correct – IT IS OCCULTISH! According to “The Sorcerer’s Handbook” the author explains how Solomon used it, as he was definitely involved heavily into witchcraft and occultism. In many other books on the Occult, it explains how the Hexagram, seal of Solomon, star of David, whatever anyone wants to call it, originated long before Solomon dabbled. Every Jewish book, which I have studied about this very subject, all confirm that the “David” in “Star of David” is often inappropriately credited to King David, Solomon’s father. But the “real David” is Magen David, from the 12th century. Either way, the triangles ARE STILL the chief articles for pagan worship. China, and Hindus have used this symbol for 1,000s of years. Why do you ask? Tom |
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5 | Does most of the Gospel say women teach? | 1 Cor 11:5 | tomsweetstir | 79401 | ||
Sir, do you make it a habit of twisting Scriptures until they fit “your doctrine”? Because, I have noticed that by the time they are twisted to fit “your doctrine” they don’t fit Scripture anymore. You neglected to mention ANY pertinent ones that HELP explain so many of the ones you twist. Acts 2:17-18 says what about the Holy Spirit will have women, daughters, GOD'S HANDMAIDS do? Where exactly will this take place? Won't that help "perfect the saints as Eph. 4 describes? How CAN a woman prophecy in church as Peter said she WOULD, – if she is to remain silent? Did you also fail to notice that Paul told MEN to be silent in that chapter? Do you know where in the “law” it is written for woman not to speak in church? Book, chapter and verse please? Doesn’t YOUR Bible have the same verses that mine has about woman? Are you going to pass on "other scriptures" in an attempt to twist away my questions, or will you act upon what your profile declares? |
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