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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: There Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | On what day was Jesus crucified? | Bible general Archive 1 | There | 29469 | ||
Hi John, I'm not sure if this has been posted before, but just as the Feast Days of the Lord are a shadow of Jesus death, 3days/nights in the tomb, and resurrection... the Feast of Passover, Unleavened Bread and Firstfruits are also "remembrances" of the Exodus, when the first passover lamb was killed, that first week that the Israelites ate unleavened bread after leaving Egypt, and the Red Sea Crossing... when the Lord saved (delivered) the firstfruits of Israel from death? (Ex. 14:30, 15:2). Below is what I've found. The children of Israel remained in Egypt the (1st) evening/night time after the Passover lamb was killed, and they left Egypt the following day-time. Ex. 12:27 That ye shall say, It is the sacrifice of the LORD'S passover, who passed over the houses of the children of Israel in Egypt, when he smote the Egyptians, and delivered our houses. And the people bowed the head and worshipped. Ex. 12:31 And he called for Moses and Aaron by night, and said, Rise up, and get you forth from among my people, both ye and the children of Israel; and go, serve the LORD, as ye have said. Ex. 12:41 And it came to pass at the end of the four hundred and thirty years, even the selfsame day it came to pass, that all the hosts of the LORD went out from the land of Egypt. They then traveled from Rameses to Succoth where they baked unleavened cakes (because they were driven out of Egypt so quickly). Succoth is where the Feast of Unleavened Bread was first 'instituted' (13:3-10). It doesn't say they "encamped" there, but in verse 20, it says they left Succoth and encamped in Etham on the following (2nd) night. Ex. 12:37 And the children of Israel journeyed from Rameses to Succoth, about six hundred thousand on foot that were men, beside children. Ex. 13:20 And they took their journey from Succoth, and encamped in Etham, in the edge of the wilderness. Then the Lord told them to encamp beside Pihahiroth, before Baalzephon on the following (3rd) night. And this is where the Egyptians overtook them. Ex. 14:2 Speak unto the children of Israel, that they turn and encamp before Pihahiroth, between Migdol and the sea, over against Baalzephon: before it shall ye encamp by the sea. Ex. 14:9 But the Egyptians pursued after them, all the horses and chariots of Pharaoh, and his horsemen, and his army, and overtook them encamping by the sea, beside Pihahiroth, before Baalzephon. The Lord kept the children of Israel all that (3rd) night, and told them to cross the Red Sea in the early morning... and the Lord saved (delivered) the firstfruits of Israel. 14:20 And it (pillar) came between the camp of the Egyptians and the camp of Israel; and it was a cloud and darkness to them, but it gave light by night to these: so that the one came not near the other all the night. 14:21 And Moses stretched out his hand over the sea; and the LORD caused the sea to go back by a strong east wind all that night, and made the sea dry land, and the waters were divided. So the time between the death of the first passover lamb(s) (starting from the evening immediately after the slaughter of the lamb(s)), and the salvation of the firstfruits of Israel was 3 nights and 3 days if you count the "day" that God saved the firstfruits of Israel. And since it seems that Jesus fulfilled the Passover, Feast of Unleavened Bread, and Feast of Weeks to the letter, He probably did this one too. (So I believe He literally fulfilled the sign of Jonah.) Overview: Nisan 14, lamb killed late afternoon (equivalent to Thursday Passover - Christ's death in late afternoon). Nisan 15, night in Egypt, left Egypt in "day time". (Feast of Unleavened Bread instituted during the "day time".) [1st night, 1st day] (equivalent to Friday in tomb). Nisan 16, night in Etham, traveled by "day time". [2nd night, 2nd day] (equivalent to Saturday in tomb). Nisan 17, night beside Pihahiroth, began crossing the Red Sea early "day time". [3rd night, 3rd day] (equivalent to Sunday night in tomb, and early morning resurrection " before sunrise"). Hope this helps. God bless. |
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2 | Will we know our loved ones in heaven? | 2 Sam 12:23 | There | 26183 | ||
One group of verses that I think says something like that is Matthew 22:23-32. Jesus was asked by the Sadducees about marriage in heaven. Jesus response was that there would be no marriage in heaven, but that man would become like the angels. I guess in this case I read what wasn't said in a way. :) Jesus didn't say that the husbands and wife (wives) wouldn't know one another in heaven, but simply that there would be no marriage in heaven. And another small reference is 1Thess. 4:13-15, 18 when Paul was asked by the church at Thessalonia about their loved ones who had died. Paul comforted them by saying "But I do not want you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning those who have fallen asleep (died), lest you sorrow as others who have no hope. For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so God will bring with Him those who sleep in Jesus. For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will by no means precede those who are asleep (dead). For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. Then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And thus we shall always be with the Lord. Therefore comfort one another with these words." It seems to me that Paul was reassuring them that they would be reunited with their loved ones again at the resurrection. Which to me says that we will recognize one another or we wouldn't know the difference whether they were there or not. And another thought that some may disagree with is that our new spiritual bodies will probably look very similar to our physical bodies... for two reasons. If they wouldn't, then there would be no point in my opinion to "raise" up a new spiritual body from our old physical bodies. And my second reason is that Jesus' resurrected body looked like his physical body. God bless. |
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3 | Do we play or pray? | Col 2:16 | There | 25947 | ||
I don't believe any of the ten commandments are "out". I just think we need to be able to look at the 4th commandment from the Lord's perspective. (Just like the 6th and 7th (Matt. 5:21-30), and all the others.) God's understanding of His laws have never changed... only man's understanding has changed because of more in depth teaching. Yet I do not think the 4th commandment says we are to sabbath on Saturday. The Hebrews kept the sabbath on Saturday because they understood the 4th commandment to tell them to do so. Yet I think God's intention (and I said "think") was not that they keep the Sabbath on Saturday, but that they rested every 7th day. God knew man needed physical rest and a time to rest in Him - spiritual rejuvenation -- at least once a week. Here's a bit of Jewish tradition based on their historical accounts. The Ten Commandments were given to Moses on a Sunday -- the same Sunday as Pentecost. The first time God wrote His law on stone (the first time before Moses threw them down and broke them), and the second time (Pentecost) He began writing His law on hearts. If the law was given to the Hebrews on Sunday, would the following Sunday be the 7th day that God was referring to in the 4th commandment?? It is a possibility. Did it matter to God which day they kept... as long as they kept every 7th day?? Again, I don't think so. The 4th commandment basically says to do our customary work for six days and then rest the 7th. I think when the command states "but the 7th is the Sabbath of the Lord"... God is stating that He was making it for man... but it was God doing the making and it was therefore God's Sabbath. He owns it, but he made it for man. And God used the example of creation to show man what He meant. Work six days, rest one. I think it's possible that the millennial Sabbath will be on the Lord's day, just as it is now. |
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4 | Would you kindly explain this text. | 1 Cor 14:34 | There | 25869 | ||
In verses 34 and 35 the same Greek word (2980 "laleo") is translated "speak". It is also used in other verses, but it is not the only word that is translated "speak" in the New Testament. "laleo", preach, say, speak (after), talk, tell, utter. The other Greek word that is generally translated "speak" is "lego", which gives us a better understanding of "laleo" with a comparison included therein. "lego", a prim. verb; prop. to "lay" forth, i.e. (fig.) relate (in words [usually of systematic or set discourse; whereas 2036 and 5346 generally refer to an individual expression or speech respectively; while 2980("laleo") means an extended or random harangue]); by impl. to mean: -- ask, bid, boast, call, describe, give out, name, put forth, say (-ing, on), shew, speak, tell, utter. Repeat: "laleo", preach, say, speak (after), talk, tell, utter. 2980("laleo") means an extended or random harangue [Harangue means a long, blustering or scolding speech, tirade.] So, in my opinion Paul was chastising the women at the "house" churches in Corinth for giving a "tongue lashing" to others in the church. Instead those women were to "keep silent" and learn from their husbands at home. In verse 35, Paul says "... for it is shameful for women to 'give an extended or random haranguing' in church". In doing so they were apparently not only disrupting the meeting, but were also quite high-minded since Paul also admonished by asking "Or did the word of God come originally from you? Or was it you only that it reached?". God bless. |
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5 | Women speak in church? | 1 Cor 14:34 | There | 25851 | ||
Hi, I thought I'd share something I found, and my opinion at the end of course. :) In verses 34 and 35 the same Greek word (2980 "laleo") is translated "speak". It is also used in other verses, but it is not the only word that is translated "speak" in the New Testament. "laleo", preach, say, speak (after), talk, tell, utter. The other Greek word that is generally translated "speak" is "lego", which gives us a better understanding of "laleo" with a comparison included therein. "lego", a prim. verb; prop. to "lay" forth, i.e. (fig.) relate (in words [usually of systematic or set discourse; whereas 2036 and 5346 generally refer to an individual expression or speech respectively; while 2980("laleo") means an extended or random harangue]); by impl. to mean: -- ask, bid, boast, call, describe, give out, name, put forth, say (-ing, on), shew, speak, tell, utter. Repeat: "laleo", preach, say, speak (after), talk, tell, utter. 2980("laleo") means an extended or random harangue Wouldn't that mean that Paul was saying that women were not to give long, huffy, off the point, preachy sermons"?? And since he seemed to need to make the point that women were to be "submissive, as the law" states... and then mentions the fact that the submission he is talking about is that which places her in "submission" to her husband, it seems that the speeches given by those women were possibly good old fashioned "tongue lashings" toward their husbands or men in general before the entire church. By the way, "harangue" means long, blustery or scolding speech; tirade. I certainly understand why Paul would tell women in all the churches of God not to do that. I would suppose he probably would have told men not to do that too if he had come across the same problem with men when he wrote ICorinthians. That type of behavior/talk coming from anyone does not show or promote "love". So I think Paul was telling women to behave themselves. And I don't think Paul was addressing the role of women as elders, deacons, pastors, nor any other role in the church in these verses. I don't think the Lord distinguishes between men and women in the church because we are all "one" in Jesus. Gal. 3:28 "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus." I'd just like to add my opinion quickly about submission. Submission really is two-fold. Submission to husbands is for order within a marriage. "Submit yourselves one to another" is for order (oneness) within the church. That's just the way I look at it. |
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6 | About the Forum | Bible general Archive 1 | There | 24705 | ||
I find at least one those statements very confusing. Such as "it isn't a discussion group". Then what exactly has been going on in this group if it isn't discussion? I understand your interpretation though, and I must have missed the posts where those "rules" were being broken. I really am sorry Steve, but this has hit me as amusing... but of course I probably shouldn't be saying this because it's not pertinent to the group. I'll have to watch my P's and Q's I guess. :) |
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7 | Where's the StudyBibleForum? | Bible general Archive 1 | There | 24672 | ||
Is this suppose to infer that the StudyBibleForum is a place that only the Bible subjects that everyone can agree on should be discussed? Let's hope a Muslim doesn't get on here then... we'd either have to agree or ignore him/her. :):) | ||||||
8 | Please tell me about the goddess Diana | Gen 1:1 | There | 23741 | ||
I only have a little to add to what's already been said about Diana. She was also known as the "queen archer", "moon goddess", "protector of the young", "goddess of the hunt", "goddess of chastity", "virgin goddess". She considered animals to be sacred, and she could punish and kill in agreement with her father's will. |
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9 | Are new worship songs scripturally OK? | Bible general Archive 1 | There | 22102 | ||
Many of the contemporary Christian songs use phrases or whole verses from the Bible. I'm not sure I recognize the three you've mentioned though. Does the "Dance with me Jesus" have any reference to "dancing before the Lord" as David did?? And depending on the words to the song about letting your "fire fall"... it could be speaking of the power of the Holy Spirit coming to believers. I don't know. And the "river flowing", from what Paul says we can "grieve" the Holy Spirit. And if we're doing things our own way, then possibly our "river of love or life" is not flowing very well. I guess it depends on what the actual words are to the songs you mentioned. Below are some contemporary praise and worship songs and their Bible references. Perhaps it will help you to understand the lyrics if you realize where they are coming from?? [This is the Day -Ps.118:24; The Horse and the Rider -Ex.15:1; In Him We Live and Move -Acts17:28; We are a Chosen Generation -1Pet.2:9; I will Enter His Gates -Ps.100:4; It Is A Good Thing To Give Thanks Unto The Lord -Ps.92:1; Thy Word -Ps.119;105; King of Kings -Rev.19:16; Fear Not For I Am With You -Is.41:10; Great Is The Lord -Ps.48:1; Lift Jesus Higher -John12:32; Beauty For Ashes -Isa.61:3; Put on the Garment of Praise -Isa.61:3; We Bring the Sacrifice of Praise -Heb.13:15; Rejoice In the Lord Always -Phil.4:4; Make a Joyful Noise Unto the Lord -Ps.66:1;98:4;100:1; I Will Never Forget You My People -Is.49:15-16; Love, Love -Matt.22:37-39; Know Ye Not 1Cor.3:16; It's Done -John19:30] and many more. |
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10 | Where is the line? | 2 Cor 9:7 | There | 22097 | ||
Hi Prayon, Actually, since the ceremonial/Levitical priesthood has been done away with by Jesus Christ, we no longer are under the laws that apply to ceremonial acts or the Levitical priesthood. In the NT there are examples of showing our love to others through "giving" though... Feed the hungry, clothe the naked, etc. (Matt.25:34-40), Feed and give drink to your enemy (Rom.12:20), Collections for other less fortunate brethren (1Cor.16:1), To share in all good things with him who teaches (Gal.6:6), To aid our leaders to meet their necessities (Phil.4:10-20; 1Peter5:1-4), A worker is worthy of their wages [not necessarily money - see references] (1Tim.5:17-18; Matt.10:9-10; Luke 10:7; 1Cor.9:14), To meet urgent needs (Titus3:14), For the brethren and for strangers (3John5-6). All of those things are not to be done by our pastor or church board either. We're told to do them ourselves. If we look in the Books of the law, what we find though is that the Israelites were to give 10 percent of their increase (tithe of the land; tithe of the herd; tithe of thy corn; tithe of the increase of thy seed; tithe of thy wine and oil, firstlings of your flocks; tithe of the oxen and sheep; etc.) to the priests to provide for their support and to provide for the needy. It wasn't to support the Temple. And it wasn't for the Levite's needs alone. |
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11 | What happened to the Tribe of Dan | Rev 7:5 | There | 19287 | ||
Second post of two. Flavius Josephus also records the letter in his writings: "We have met with a certain writing, whereby we have discovered that both the Jew and the Spartans are of one stock, and are derived from the kindred of Abraham. It is but just, therefore, that you, who are our brethren, should send to us about any of your concerns as you please. We will also do the same thing, and esteem your concerns as our own, and will look upon our concerns as in common with yours. Demotoles, who brings you this letter, will bring your answer back to us. This letter is foursquare; and the symbol is an eagle, with a dragon in his claws." To Dan was given the symbol of Scorpio, which in ancient Egyptian zodiac was a snake. However, when the time came to hoist the symbol of the snake, Ahiezer refused and chose instead the symbol of an eagle -- according to Unger's Bible Dictionary: "The standard of the tribe of Dan was of white and red, and the crest upon it, an eagle, the great foe of serpents, which had been chosen by the leader instead of a serpent, because Jacob had compared Dan to a serpent. Ahiezer substituted the eagle, the destroyer of serpents, as he shrank from carrying an adder upon his flag." Comparing that information with a description by Flavius Josephus of the Spartan's symbol, which was an eagle with a dragon in his claws, we can see that it could represent the tribe of Dan. The dragon, many times is synonymous with the snake. And the Spartans also claimed to be descendants of Abraham. The Spartans lived in Laconia, near Arcadia, in the southern Greek peninsula called Peloponnesus. Over the centuries some of the group migrated northeast across the Aegean Sea to build the city of Troy. Supposedly the remotest ancestor of the Trojan line of royalty was Dardanus. Their insignia contained an eagle, serpent, and sometimes bees/honey. Over the centuries some of the Spartans migrated into southern France, and some of the surviving Trojans moved north and west into Germany, Belgium and northern France, and it is said that it was the Trojans that first settled Rome after defeating the Kittim of Italy. Here too brings again to mind that first verse quoted from Genesis, and the fact that Dan is missing from the tribes mentioned in Revelation. I think it's possible that the Antichrist (represented by the serpent) will come from the line of Dan (and the line of Japheth [Noah's son], as the Danites married into the Gentile descendants of Japheth]. Concerning Dan, this supposition is based also on the verses and testament below: Daniel 11:37 speaking of the Antichrist, "Neither shall he regard the God of his fathers, nor the desire of women, nor regard any god: for he shall magnify himself above all." And again, Jacob's prediction that "Dan shall judge his people" and "Dan shall be a serpent" in "the last days". Another apocryphal writing called the "Testaments of the Twelve Patriarchs" where Dan was suppose to have made certain predictions concerning his offspring, has been dated by scholars to have been written/copied around 150 B.C. Fragments of this writing were found in the Quumran caves as part of the Dead Sea Scrolls. This "testament" is suppose to be the final utterances of the 12 sons of Jacob concerning things that would befall each tribe in the future. According to the "testament" of Dan, he gathered his sons around him when he was 125 years old. One of the things he stated was "I read in the Book of Enoch, the Righteous, that your prince is Satan..." Because of that statement, Jewish scholars, some 150 years before Christ, linked the tribe of Dan with the Antichrist -- "your prince is Satan". Another statement reads "I know that in the last days you will defect from the Lord, you will be offended at Levi, and revolt against Judah; but you will not prevail over them." I hope this helps a bit. |
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12 | What happened to the Tribe of Dan | Rev 7:5 | There | 19286 | ||
First post of two. In Genesis 49 Jacob gathered his sons to tell them what would befall them in the last days. Concerning Dan, Jacob said "Dan shall judge his people as one of the tribes of Israel, Dan shall be a serpent by the way, a viper by the path, that bites the horse's heels so that its rider shall fall backward. I have waited for your salvation, O Lord!" (vs. 16-18) It was also said in the surrounding passages in Genesis that Jacob pronounced national prestige on Joseph's son Ephraim (49:19-22; 49:22-26; 1Chron. 5:1-2). There is no reason given why Jacob gave the eldest son's (Manesseh's) birthright to the younger (Ephraim), but Ephraim is represented in Revelation as the tribe of Joseph, whereas Manesseh (as eldest son) is listed as a separate tribe, replacing the tribe of Dan. (See Numbers 1:32-35) The Danites broke away from the tribe of Judah in the last chapters of the book of Judges. In 1Chronicles 1-8, the tribes of Israel are listed -- all but the tribe of Dan. The date for writing the first 8 chapters of the Chronicles has been placed at 1056 B.C. By then Dan had become a lost tribe (of Israel), although there is some mention of Dan after that. On a map of ancient Israel, the territory of Dan appears like a wing attached to the shoulder of the territory of Judah. Among the possible interpretations of Daniel's vision [Dan. 7:4], we should consider the story of Dan leaving its original territory and moving north into Lebanon. When Moses gave his prophecies of the 12 tribes, he said that Benjamin would "dwell between the shoulders of Judah" (Deut.33:12), and that Dan, "as a lion's whelp, would leap from Bashan" (Deut. 33:22). Bashan was located in ancient Lebanon. Moses prediction came to pass when the tribe of Dan was deprived of its territory adjacent to Judah, moved north to Lebanon, and established its territory in Bashan (Judges 18). From there the Danites made a symbolic leap into obscurity. Also when they migrated to southern Lebanon, they captured the city of Laish and changed it's name to Dan (Jud. 18:27-31). The ancient name "Laish" means "a lion", which fulfills the prophecy of Moses in Deut. 33:22 when he said: "Dan is a lion's whelp: he shall leap from Bashan." The city of the lion (Laish) was located in the ancient province of Bashan, in the territory of Lebanon. According to that same chapter, the Danites established an idolatrous religion -- the worship of the sun and moon, with the summation given in Judges 29:30. According to the story, the tribe of Dan moved into Lebanon and lived there for at least the next 600 years. In the year 721 B.C. the Assyrians took the northern ten tribes captive. Though there is no historical documents to prove that the tribe moved westward into Europe, there are some interesting possibilities. According to the "World Book Encyclopedia", the Celts, in 400 B.C. divided Ireland into small kingdoms called tuatha. Celtic mythology claims that the most important race was the "Tuatha de Danann, or People of the Goddess Danu". There is also a legend written about the son of Belus, king of the Spartans -- in which is given the story of one named "Danaus", who arrived in Greece with his daughters by ship. According to the legend, his daughters called themselves Danades. They introduced the cult of the mother goddess, which became the religion of the Arcadians and developed over the years into the worship of Diana. (Diana may even be another form of "Dan".) The Spartans so loved their king that they called themselves Danaans -- long before they adopted the name of Spartans. Also in the legend is a record of the arrival of "colonists from Palestine", and again -- the expedition was headed by a man named Danaus. In the apocryphal book of 1Maccabees there is an account about the Spartans of southern Greece -- claiming that they were related to the Jewish people and were, in fact, of the stock of Abraham. A letter from the king of the Spartans to the Jewish high priest in Jerusalem: "It has been discovered in a document concerning the Spartans and Jews that they are brothers, and are of the race of Abraham" (1Macabees 12:21). Continued in another post. |
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13 | Did Adam die from eating forbidden fruit | Bible general Archive 1 | There | 18140 | ||
Adam's soul no longer "reflected" the image of God, and was therefore "dead" toward God. God could not have simply meant physical death, because in Gen. 3:17-19 God was not cursing Adam to phsyical death. God was saying that you will now have to work to survive UNTIL you die. The "curse" was that Adam would now have to work to survive. Gen. 1:17-19 "... Cursed is the ground for your sake; In toil you shall eat of it all the days of your life. Both thorns and thistles it shall bring forth for you, and you shall eat the herb of the field. In sweat of your face you shall eat bread TILL YOU RETURN TO THE GROUND, For out of it you were taken; For dust you are, and to dust you shall return." Along with the verses that speak of "renewing the soul" to the knowledge of God, there are other passages that mention the opposite, a soul not alive toward God. Eph. 2:1 "And you He made alive, who were dead in trespasses and sins..." Col. 2:13 "And you, being dead in your trespasses... He has made alive together with Him, having forgiven you all trespasses..." Eph. 4:18 "... having their understanding darkened, being alienated from the life of God, because of the ignorance that is in them, because of the hardening of their heart..." The word dead in those verses (3498) means "dead". Unlike the word "dead" when used in "dead (599) to sin" which actually means the "process of dying". |
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14 | Did Adam die from eating forbidden fruit | Bible general Archive 1 | There | 18139 | ||
Adam's soul no longer "reflected" the image of God, and was therefore "dead" toward God. God could not have simply meant physical death, because in Gen. 3:17-19 God was not cursing Adam to phsyical death. God was saying that you will now have to work to survive UNTIL you die. The "curse" was that Adam would now have to work to survive. Gen. 1:17-19 "... Cursed is the ground for your sake; In toil you shall eat of it all the days of your life. Both thorns and thistles it shall bring forth for you, and you shall eat the herb of the field. In sweat of your face you shall eat bread TILL YOU RETURN TO THE GROUND, For out of it you were taken; For dust you are, and to dust you shall return." Along with the verses that speak of "renewing the soul" to the knowledge of God, there are other passages that mention the opposite, a soul not alive toward God. Eph. 2:1 "And you He made alive, who were dead in trespasses and sins..." Col. 2:13 "And you, being dead in your trespasses... He has made alive together with Him, having forgiven you all trespasses..." Eph. 4:18 "... having their understanding darkened, being alienated from the life of God, because of the ignorance that is in them, because of the hardening of their heart..." The word dead in those verses (3498) means "dead". Unlike the word "dead" when used in "dead (599) to sin" which actually means the "process of dying". |
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15 | How do we know the Bible is the truth? | Bible general Archive 1 | There | 18098 | ||
I've read everyone else's answers up to this point and I think they are all right!! My only comment is that until I met the Lord personally I don't think I was able to realize that His Word is Truth. It was then that all the Biblical truths became "real" to me, in that God continually proved His words to be true. Not sure that makes sense to anyone else, but I know what I mean. :) |
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16 | Where did our souls come from? | Bible general Archive 1 | There | 18097 | ||
Bill explained the "spirit"/"soul" very well. My "personal" understanding of the Hebrew and Greek words are: SOUL - the part of the spirit that can think, reason, and choose good (and was made in the "image" of God). SPIRIT - the actual life essence from God which CONTAINS the soul. Because they are so closely linked, I think that is why these words sometimes seem interchangeable. God's intent was to make man in "the image of God" (Gen. 1:26). Gen. 2:7 "And the Lord formed man of the dust of the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul." If you don't mind I will paraphrase that verse like this "The Lord breathed a "spirit" with the ability to reason, and choose good (soul - "image of God") into man's body of dust". Both the spirit and soul are linked together, but ultimately can be separated by God in the case of unbelief. References: The spirit returns to God who gave it (Ecc. 12:7) Both the bodies of the saved and unsaved return to dust, and their spirits returns to God who gave it. Not the case with the soul. The soul must be conformed to that "image of God" before it can remain a part of the spirit that returns to God. Please see: Romans 12:2 "...be transformed by the renewing of your mind..." Ephesians 4:23 "...be renewed in the spirit of your mind..." Ephesians 4:24 "...put on the new man which was created according to God..." Titus 3:5 "... He saved us by the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit" Colossians 3:10 "... put on the new man who is renewed in knowledge according to the image of Him who created him" If the "soul" part of the spirit is not "born-again" (renewed to conform to the image of God), it will be separated from the "spirit" by God's Word. Hebrews 4:12 "For the word of God is living and powerful, and sharper than any two-edged sword, piercing even to the division of soul(5590) and spirit(4151)..." Jesus said that God is the only one that can destroy a "soul". He did not say God would/could destroy the "spirit(4151)" of man, but only the "soul(5590)". Which also testifies to the fact that the "spirit" and "soul" are 1) closely united; and 2) that they are not the exact same thing. Jesus did not receive His Spirit in the same way Adam did. Jesus and the Father have the same Spirit. John 1:14 "And the Word was made (became) flesh and dwelt among us...". God created Adam and gave him a spirit/soul. The Word (God Himself who IS Spirit) became (was made) flesh (through the seed of a woman), and called Immanuel (God with us) or Jesus (God-saves). Reference John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." |
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17 | WHY WAS JESUS | John 11:15 | There | 17757 | ||
So He could show them He truly did come from the Father by raising Lazarus from the dead. ("that you may believe" - same verse) | ||||||
18 | Divine Healing, True or False? | Matthew | There | 16852 | ||
I think the Prosperity Gospel or the Faith Movement are contrary to God's word. Divine Healing in regards to the above. Generally lack of healing is accredited to the ill person not having "enough faith" to be healed, or that the illness itself is caused by "unbelief" or "sin". But biblically there are examples to the contrary. Check out Acts 3:1-10. Who's faith healed the lame man? And Luke 7:1-10. Who's faith healed the centurion's servant? And when questioned about whether a man's blindness was the fault of sins of the parents or the man himself, Jesus replied "Neither this man nor his parents sinned, but that the works of God should be revealed in Him." John 9:3. The Faith Movement was not the first to think that illness is caused by sin in a person's life apparently. Nowhere does the NT teach that complete physical healing is the right of all Christians. In fact, Paul reports the near death illness of his colleague Epaphroditus (Phil. 2:27), the fact that he had left Trophimus sick in Miletus (2Tim. 4:20), and his encouragement of Timothy to take some wine for his frequent stomach illnesses (1Tim. 5:23). Apparently Paul did not consider facing illness a "negative confession" to be totally avoided and never discussed (as in the Faith Movement's "positive confession" theology). As to the whole of the Prosperity Gospel, again, I believe it contradicts scripture. Generally they base their claim for wealth on several verses. In Gen. 17 God's promise to make Abraham a father of many nations with great wealth. And then Gal. 3:13-14,29; where Paul promises to Christians the "blessing of Abraham". Hagin explains "Abraham's blessing is ours... and the first thing God promised Abraham was that he was going to make him rich." Yet Paul states that "Christ redeemed us... that the blessing given to Abraham might come to the Gentiles" (Gal. 3:13-14). The context shows that the only part of Abraham's blessing of concern to Paul is that the Gentiles would be included in God's people. By faith they would be justified and "receive the promise of the Spirit" (v. 14). Nothing is said about poverty or sickness. In Mark 10:29-30 Jesus promises that those who leave home and fields for him will receive a hundred times as much. Gloria Copeland explains this "spiritual law" or "seed money". "You give 1 dollar for the Gospel's sake and 100 dollars belongs to you; give 10 dollars and receive 1000 dollars... In short, Mark 10:30 is a very good deal." They need to misinterpret or leave out a lot of scripture to come up with their theology. *Quote by Kenneth Hagin, from "Redeemed" p, 5. *Quote by Gloria Copeland, from "God's Will Is Prosperity" p. 54. |
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19 | did adam and Eve ever get forgiveness? | Matthew | There | 16850 | ||
Good question! The Bible does not say whether Adam and Eve ever repented of their sin. The one sad thing is that both Adam and Eve, when confronted by God after their sin, made excuses for their actions but never told Him they were sorry for disobeying Him. There are other possible references by which one could make the assumption that they did not repent, but it is not stated in so many words. If they did not, then they were not forgiven. As to the angels, it is my understanding that the angels who rebelled against God KNEW exactly WHO they were rebelling against... and for that reason those angels will spend eternity in everlasting fire (Matthew 25:41). I'm reminded of Paul's words in Hebrews 6:4-6. It speaks of "people" but is also pertinent I think, as far as the angels are concerned too. |
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20 | matthew chapter 24 what does is mean | Matthew | There | 16847 | ||
The apostles asked Jesus what the "sign of His coming and the end of the age" would be. His answer to them is in chapter 24. First will be the beginning of sorrows (vs. 5-8) leading up to Daniel's 70th week (the 7 year tribulation period). Then there will be tribulation (vs. 9-14). Verse 15 depicts the middle of the tribulation period (3 1/2 years into it), when the Jews will recognize the Antichrist, and flee into the wilderness. Christ goes on to explain that the last 3 1/2 years will be such "great tribulation... as has not been since the beginning of the world until this time". Then states that at the end of the period of tribulation (v. 29), the sign of his coming will appear (v. 30) and the rapture will take place (v.31). Verses 32-35. Jesus explains that the people alive when these things begin to happen, will see them unfolding, and recognize that He will be returning soon. Verses 36-44, Here Jesus explains that no one knows exactly when that day will occur, except for the Father in heaven. People will generally will be doing all the normal things just as they did up to the time of the great Flood. We're warned to be ready at all times. Verses 45-51. He's telling us to behave as a Christian... in season and out, or He will leave us behind when He comes for His own. The tribulation period and Christ's return is told in more detail in Daniel, Isaiah, Ezekiel, and Revelation (along with others mentioned by Steve and CDBJ). |
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