Results 1 - 20 of 27
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: JRdoc Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | is there a god | Gen 1:1 | JRdoc | 61414 | ||
Ask him what makes him believe there is no God. Answer his question with a question. Get to the root of the problem. It is easy to make a statement "like there is no God" what they can not get out of is their reasons "why." Get to the "whys" as soon as possible and uncut his unbelief with Scripture. Slowly but surely the Word of God as a sharp two-edged sword will defeat each premise and of course send you back for more Bible Study and prayer if he has any "ability" to defend his position at all. Of course God's grace is what will change his belief, not you or I. But, you are not given the privilege of the conversation with him by accident either. |
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2 | What are God's Names? | Gen 1:1 | JRdoc | 61528 | ||
• Elohim (God) • Jehovah/Yahweh (the self-existent one: I AM) • Jehovah-jireh (the Lord will provide) • Jehovah-rapha (the Lord who heals) • Jehovah-nissi (the Lord our banner) • Jehovah-Shalom (the Lord our peace) • Jehovah-ra-ah (the Lord my shepherd) • Jehovah-tsidkenu (the Lord our righteousness) • Jehovah-shammad (the Lord is present) • Jehovah-Elohim (the Lord God) • Jehovah Sabaoth (the Lord of hosts) • El Elyon (the most high God) • Adonai (our master) • El Shaddai (Almighty God, the strength giver) • El Olam (everlasting God) (1) Elohim: The plural form of EL, meaning “strong one.” It is used of false gods, but when used of the true God, it is a plural of majesty and intimates the trinity. It is especially used of God’s sovereignty, creative work, mighty work for Israel and in relation to His sovereignty (Isa. 54:5; Jer. 32:27; Gen. 1:1; Isa. 45:18; Deut. 5:23; 8:15; Ps. 68:7). Compounds of El: • El Shaddai: “God Almighty.” The derivation is uncertain. Some think it stresses God’s loving supply and comfort; others His power as the Almighty one standing on a mountain and who corrects and chastens (Gen. 17:1; 28:3; 35:11; Ex. 6:31; Ps. 91:1, 2). • El Elyon: “The Most High God.” Stresses God’s strength, sovereignty, and supremacy (Gen. 14:19; Ps. 9:2; Dan. 7:18, 22, 25). • El Olam: “The Everlasting God.” Emphasizes God’s unchangeableness and is connected with His inexhaustibleness (Gen. 16:13). (2) Yahweh (YHWH): Comes from a verb which means “to exist, be.” This, plus its usage, shows that this name stresses God as the independent and self-existent God of revelation and redemption (Gen. 4:3; Ex. 6:3 (cf. 3:14); 3:12). Compounds of Yahweh: Strictly speaking, these compounds are designations or titles which reveal additional facts about God’s character. • Yahweh Jireh (Yireh): “The Lord will provide.” Stresses God’s provision for His people (Gen. 22:14). • Yahweh Nissi: “The Lord is my Banner.” Stresses that God is our rallying point and our means of victory; the one who fights for His people (Ex. 17:15). • Yahweh Shalom: “The Lord is Peace.” Points to the Lord as the means of our peace and rest (Jud. 6:24). • Yahweh Sabbaoth: “The Lord of Hosts.” A military figure portraying the Lord as the commander of the armies of heaven (1 Sam. 1:3; 17:45). • Yahweh Maccaddeshcem: “The Lord your Sanctifier.” Portrays the Lord as our means of sanctification or as the one who sets believers apart for His purposes (Ex. 31:13). • Yahweh Ro’i: “The Lord my Shepherd.” Portrays the Lord as the Shepherd who cares for His people as a shepherd cares for the sheep of his pasture (Ps. 23:1). • Yahweh Tsidkenu: “The Lord our Righteousness.” Portrays the Lord as the means of our righteousness (Jer. 23:6). • Yahweh Shammah: “The Lord is there.” Portrays the Lord’s personal presence in the millennial kingdom (Ezek. 48:35). • Yahweh Elohim Israel: “The Lord, the God of Israel.” Identifies Yahweh as the God of Israel in contrast to the false gods of the nations (Jud. 5:3.; Isa. 17:6). (3) Adonai: Like Elohim, this too is a plural of majesty. The singular form means “master, owner.” Stresses man’s relationship to God as his master, authority, and provider (Gen. 18:2; 40:1; 1 Sam. 1:15; Ex. 21:1-6; Josh. 5:14). (4) Theos: Greek word translated “God.” Primary name for God used in the New Testament. Its use teaches: (1) He is the only true God (Matt. 23:9; Rom. 3:30); (2) He is unique (1 Tim. 1:17; John 17:3; Rev. 15:4; 16:27); (3) He is transcendent (Acts 17:24; Heb. 3:4; Rev. 10:6); (4) He is the Savior (John 3:16; 1 Tim. 1:1; 2:3; 4:10). This name is used of Christ as God in John 1:1, 18; 20:28; 1 John 5:20; Tit. 2:13; Rom. 9:5; Heb. 1:8; 2 Pet. 1:1. (5) Kurios: Greek word translated “Lord.” Stresses authority and supremacy. While it can mean sir (John 4:11), owner (Luke 19:33), master (Col. 3:22), or even refer to idols (1 Cor. 8:5) or husbands (1 Pet. 3:6), it is used mostly as the equivalent of Yahweh of the Old Testament. It too is used of Jesus Christ meaning (1) Rabbi or Sir (Matt. 8:6); (2) God or Deity (John 20:28; Acts 2:36; Rom. 10:9; Phil. 2:11). (6) Despotes: Greek word translated “Master.” Carries the idea of ownership while kurios stressed supreme authority (Luke 2:29; Acts 4:24; Rev. 6:10; 2 Pet. 2:1; Jude 4). (7) Father: A distinctive New Testament revelation is that through faith in Christ, God becomes our personal Father. Father is used of God in the Old Testament only 15 times while it is used of God 245 times in the New Testament. As a name of God, it stresses God’s loving care, provision, discipline, and the way we are to address God in prayer (Matt. 7:11; Jam. 1:17; Heb. 12:5-11; John 15:16; 16:23; Eph. 2:18; 3:15; 1 Thess. 3:11). http://www.bible.org/index.htm |
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3 | Exactly where was Adam's present ? | Gen 3:6 | JRdoc | 61479 | ||
Yes, at least in the general area.....theologians argue exactly how close in proximity, ("with her" is pretty clear to me though) but Eve decided that Satan was telling the truth and she had misunderstood God, but she didn’t know what she was doing. It was not overt rebellion against God, but seduction and deception to make her believe her act was the right thing to do (v. 13). The NT confirms that Eve was deceived (2 Cor. 11:3; 1 Tim. 2:14; Rev. 12:9). But Adam made a direct transgression without deception (1 Tim. 2:13-14). | ||||||
4 | Why were Adam and Eve unable to resist? | Gen 3:6 | JRdoc | 61492 | ||
The Scripture asserts that it was part of God's plan, though He did not sin in the process. Ephesians 1 is very clear on this. Christ was predestined to die before the foundation of the world. In other words God knew they were going to fall before they were formed and thus could have stopped if He had desired--He is God afterall.... For a deeper study on this you need to look up the terms "Infralapsarianism" and "Supralapsarianism" though I agree with neither, it does give some revelance to the issue. The question normally arises "why?" Very briefly Adam and Eve had a good relationship with God. They walked with Him in the Garden. They saw Him, they knew Him, but they did not "know" Him the way He was intending for them to know Him in all eternity..... They did not know the totality of His love.... No greater lover hath a man than this than that HE lay down His life .... Thus, because of Calvary (while we were "yet" sinners Christ...), now man can see this (that is His elect can see it) and one day we will be able to enjoy God's love and understand it even more fully than Adam and Eve did originally. May God Bless. |
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5 | Did Noah's son Put have any descendants? | Gen 10:6 | JRdoc | 61088 | ||
KJV Phut The third son of Ham (Gen 10:6; I Chr 1:8), “brother” of Cush, Mizraim, and Canaan. The Wycliffe Bible encyclopedia. 1975 (C. F. Pfeiffer, H. F. Vos J. Rea, Ed.). Chicago: Moody Press. |
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6 | what does the burning bush symbolize? | Exodus | JRdoc | 61083 | ||
A real bush was illumined with fire--supernatural fire. This reveals that God is transcendent. It also reveals that He revealed Himself in the bush to call Moses to the ministry He was/had appointed him to. God reveals Himself today as well to His own elect. As in salvation God initiates His relationship to His own elect first! |
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7 | Please define Jehova Nissi and Jehova Sa | Ex 17:15 | JRdoc | 61196 | ||
Jehovah-nissi Meaning: Jehovah my banner the title given by Moses to the altar which he erected on the hill on the top of which he stood with uplifted hands while Israel prevailed over their enemies the Amalekites (Ex. 17:15) Jehovah-shalom Meaning: Jehovah send peace the name which Gideon gave to the altar he erected on the spot at Ophrah where the angel appeared to him (Judg. 6:24) http://www.christiananswers.net/dictionary/home.html |
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8 | tearing of clothes | 2 Kin 19:1 | JRdoc | 61085 | ||
Tearing of clothes was "often" a sign of grief (2 Kings 6:30) or of sorrowful repentance (Joel 2:12-13). There are several other places as well such as 2 Sam 3:31-32, Job 1:20-22. Additionally, Acts 14:14 where their tearing of clothes was a way of showing strong aversion to blasphemy. What is the specific purpose of your study here? | ||||||
9 | angered at God?? | Jon 4:1 | JRdoc | 61226 | ||
What specific verse are you studying to say Jonah was angry at God? |
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10 | inheavenseyes, why 2300 years? | Matt 24:29 | JRdoc | 61086 | ||
It appears to me that all your answers revolve around the faulty assumption of dispensational theology? Have you ever considered the A-Mil version of the End TImes? | ||||||
11 | Predestination: scriptures meaningless? | John | JRdoc | 61256 | ||
YOU STATE: Also, it is clear that all men DO have a small amount of light. No one is in total darkness:.. John 1:9 There was the true Light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man. So you think just because a light shines that a blind man can see it? It does not work that way naturally or spiritually, that is why you need a Great Physician! Just because a light shines DOES NOT mean one can see it (2 Cor 4:4). Even the verses surrounding your proof text (John 1:9) are intriguing and disprove what you say: John1:5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not…. Notice it was not comprehended. Why, because they are blind and dead…. John 1: 11-13 He came unto his own, and his own received him not. But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. How does one receive Christ? The Scripture itself explains: not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God—One may see and believe and enter into the Kingdom of God because of the work of God John 3, not of works lest any man should boast (Eph 2:8-10). Please note it is important to keep CONTEXT with the verses you quote for you assertions. ---- YOU SAID: God has dealt every man the measure of faith needed for a fair choice: …Rom 12:3 For I say, through the grace given unto me, to every man that is among you, not to think of himself more highly than he ought to think; but to think soberly, according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith. Who is Paul writing to? The CHURCH—notice the terms --every man among YOU! -- CONTEXT, CONTEXT! You may prove any faulty argument if you remove the context of the verses citied. --- YOU SAID: Does'nt predestination make these scriptures meaningless? No, it just affirms its need! Rom 5:8 But God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. The word is US (toward US, for US) and not ALL. Again, CONTEXT. Rom 10:13-18 for "WHOEVER WILL CALL ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED." How then will they call on Him in whom they have not believed? How will they believe in Him whom they have not heard? And how will they hear without a preacher? How will they preach unless they are sent? Just as it is written, "HOW BEAUTIFUL ARE THE FEET OF THOSE WHO BRING GOOD NEWS OF GOOD THINGS!" However, they did not all heed the good news; for Isaiah says, "LORD, WHO HAS BELIEVED OUR REPORT?" So faith comes from hearing, and hearing by the word of Christ. But I say, surely they have never heard, have they? Indeed they have; "THEIR VOICE HAS GONE OUT INTO ALL THE EARTH, AND THEIR WORDS TO THE ENDS OF THE WORLD." I figure you capitalized the texts you desired answered thus, When do dead men (Eph 2:1) speak, when they receive new hearts, for out of the abundance of the heart the mouth speaketh…. Yes, the Gospel and the gospel messenger is beautiful news to all those that are enabled to hear it (he that hath ears let him hear…,but not everyone has spiritual ears or else all would be saved?—see my question below for further). Does everyone who hears the gospel message get saved…NO….Who hath believed our report, no one until God puts within them His desire (how can? they are dead and need life, without the ennoblement of being born again they will never hear—Salvation is of the Lord, He is the Author and Finisher of our faith)…. Though Christ was in the world and preached to all in His day, did ALL get saved…No..only those that were ordained to eternal life believed. (Acts 13:48). So thus your voice needs to go out into all the world (you do not who is called, predestined, elected, etc), but it does not mean (1) it will be heard by all (spiritually or effectually) (2) or even comprehended it since they do not have the mind of Christ (3) but all those that are ordained to eternal life will hear in God’s time according to His plan (Eph 1) Yes, Scripture affirms the need of PREDESTINATION otherwise why would God write about it? ---- Now, let me ask you a question: This is the third time this is posted and yet no answers??? 1. Did Christ die for all sins of all men? 2. Did Christ die for some sins of all men? 3. Did Christ die for all sins of some men? If Christ dies for (1) "all sins of all men" then why are any lost? After-all is not "unbelief" a sin? And if He died for the sin of "unbelief" how could any be lost--but some are aren't they! If Christ died for (2) "some sins of all men" then we do not have an atonement for "all sin" without exception and all are still in sin! Thus, Christ died for (3) "all sins of some men" --His elect that some according to His purpose and plan may be saved (Eph 1, Rom 8-11). |
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12 | What does your church believe? | John 1:1 | JRdoc | 61494 | ||
Our church is SBC, but hold to the 'original" SBC......doctrine: We hold to the Abstract of Principles and you may read about all that here: http://www.founders.org/library/founders.html |
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13 | A Greek study of houtos:Who is this One? | John 7:18 | JRdoc | 61179 | ||
"houtos", is translated out many ways in the KJV-- "this" (Mk 12:30), "these" (Mat 4:3), "the same" (Mat 18:4), "she" (Mat 26:12), "such as" (Mk 4:18), "this man" (Lk 7:49), "they" (Lk 8:14), etc. John 17:8 Interpreted: ¡°And they accepted them [Christ¡¯s words].¡± He expresses the mode of this knowledge: they received the doctrine which he taught them. But lest anyone should regard his doctrine as human or of earthly origin, he declares that God is its author: ¡°I gave them the words you gave me.¡± He speaks, as he usually does, as the Mediator or Servant of God, saying that he taught only what he had received from the Father. Since his own condition was still in humble flesh, his divine majesty hidden under the form of a servant, by ¡°the Father¡± he simply means God. Yet we must keep to John¡¯s witness at the beginning of his Gospel, that insofar as Christ was the eternal Word of God, he was always one God with the Father. Therefore, the meaning is that Christ was a faithful witness of God to the disciples, so that their faith was based on nothing but God¡¯s truth, since the Father himself spoke in the Son. The ¡°accepting¡± that he speaks about came from his effectively revealing to them the name of his Father through the Holy Spirit. ¡°They knew with certainty ¡¡± He now repeats in other words what he had mentioned before: that Christ ¡°came from¡± the Father and was ¡°sent¡± by him mean the same as what was said earlier, that all that Christ has is from the Father. The sum of it is that faith should look directly at Christ, yet so as to know nothing earthly or contemptible about him, but to be carried upwards to his divine power, so as to be convinced that he is God, and all that is of God, perfectly in himself. ¡°And they believed.¡± Note also that in the first clause he uses the verb ¡°know,¡± and now he uses the verb ¡°believe.¡± Thus he shows that nothing can be known about God correctly except by faith, but in faith there is such certainty that it is right to call it knowledge. Calvin, J. (1994). John. The Crossway classic commentaries (Jn 17:8). Wheaton, Ill.: Crossway Books. Word Study: prob. from a redupl. of 3588, used as a demonstrative pron.; this:¡ª afterward(3), especially(1), fact(2), follow(1), here(1), hereafter(1), man(1), now(1), one(2), one whom(1), partly(1), person(1), present(1), same(1), so(1), so then(1), so(1), some(2), such(2), therefore(16), these(179), these...things(1), these men(10), these people(1), these things(192), this(737), this man(56), this man¡¯s(2), this one(4), this reason(1), this thing(2), this way(1), this woman(4), this*(1), this...thing(1), those(2), those things(1), very(3), very thing(2), who(2), whom(1). Thomas, R. L. (1998, 1981). New American Standard Hebrew-Aramaic and Greek dictionaries Updated edition. Anaheim Foundation Publications, Inc. houtos prn. (demonstrative); ¡Ô Str 3778 5023 5025-6 5123-30¡ª1. LN 92.29 this, these; (as an object) him, her, it, them (Mt 3:17; Lk 10:11; 15:30; 18:11; Jn 1:2); 2. LN 89.106 Swanson, J. (1997). Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains : Greek (New Testament) (electronic ed.) (GGK4047). Oak Harbor: Logos Research Systems, Inc. |
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14 | Martha faith lazarus living | John 11:26 | JRdoc | 61198 | ||
In verse 26 of John 11 Christ is teaching to believe in Him for eternal life (ONLY Him). Belief in His death, burial, resurrection...1 Cor 15:1-4. Of course faith (belief) is a gift of God (Eph 2:8-10) that can not be initially manufactured (if it could be initially manufactured it would not be a gift). God saves one first (John 3, born again, 2 Cor 5:17 new creation) enabling one to have faith. Then (but it is instantaneous, which is why many get the steps of salvation out of sequence and thus it brings forth misunderstandings) faith is given-received-acted upon and then grows as one stays in the Word, prayer, fellowship, etc. Once one is truly saved he may never be lost. Christ promised her eternal life! Lazarus was raised as Christ said in John 11:4 ...This sickness is not unto death, but for the glory of God, that the Son of God might be glorified thereby. This also gives us an example of salvation. What did Lazarus contribute to his resurrection...NOTHING, he was dead. He could not see, hear...he was dead. Christ have a specific command to ONE person (election and calling) and called him from the grave. Look at the thread on Sovereignty and Free will for a fuller picture of this. |
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15 | Whats up with Judgement, calvinists plz? | Rom 9:1 | JRdoc | 61346 | ||
YOU SAID: I am wondering if a Calvinist could explain to me why God, if all things are ordained by him, would judge people? what I mean is, if God made us all, and God chose everything we would do, why did he give us the 'illusion' of freewill, and why would he judge us for things he made us do? 1. Because HE is God and does as He does as He desires in all the earth (1 Chron 16:14; Psa 105:7; Dan 4:35). 2. For it is the “good pleasure of His will” and for His own glory (Eph 1:4-5, 9-12) 3. Time does not permit me to answer in full, but, May “God” ask you from His Word, “who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus? Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour? What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory, Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?” (Rom 9) Your error is that you THINK that everyone is DESERVING of salvation when NONE are. No one is worthy, No one is deserving. No one deserves salvation. Everyone is worthy of eternal death and hell. Everyone has nothing worthy of God’s affection, “but God commendeth his love toward US, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for US.” It is a gift. Gifts are given to whom a person wills to give them. God chose to give the gift of salvation to those He elected. It is not our fault that God chose us, but praise God He did! Who are you to reply against God and His design for the universe that He created? ---- YOU SAID: “I can understand it if I except God delegates Authority to man so that we may choose to love him, then I can see why all the suffering and death and pain are worth it to God, because some will "choose" to love him, But if in the end we cannot choose, why did he not simply make us perfect in the first place?” When God created man—Adam—He was perfect? It is not His fault YOU fell. At least that is what my Bible says, does an Arminian Bible really say that God created man imperfect? ---- YOU SAID: “God is outside of time, so to me words like foreordained, and foreknew, are meaningless in the context of God himself, though they obviously have meaning to man.” Well this is an amazing statement and I guess you do have a different version of the Bible. John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. If words like “foreordained, and foreknew, are meaningless in the context of God himself” then why is HE so insistent in affirming IT IS HIS WORD? His WORD is TRUTH and THE TRUTH that defeats Arminianism and THE TRUTH that will set an Arminian free from his works righteousness religion and philosophy of God. -- Refer to a Scripture and lets debate that, but this philosophy and denying the Scripture to be able to make your point is pointless. |
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16 | is it a sin for soldiers | Rom 13:1 | JRdoc | 61408 | ||
No, generally not, if the right “motivation” “Heart” and so forth is present. But if you desire to go to war to just kill, kill, kill, that is kind of obvious. Paul writes of “governmental powers” : Rom 13:1 Let every soul be subject unto the higher powers. For there is no power but of God: the powers that be are ordained of God. 2 Whosoever therefore resisteth the power, resisteth the ordinance of God: and they that resist shall receive to themselves damnation. 3 For rulers are not a terror to good works, but to the evil. Wilt thou then not be afraid of the power? do that which is good, and thou shalt have praise of the same: 4 For he is the minister of God to thee for good. But if thou do that which is evil, be afraid; for he beareth not the sword in vain: for he is the minister of God, a revenger to execute wrath upon him that doeth evil. 5 Wherefore ye must needs be subject, not only for wrath, but also for conscience sake. 6 For for this cause pay ye tribute also: for they are God’s ministers, attending continually upon this very thing. The state’s authority is for society’s benefit; this is its normal function, and Paul assumes it may be realized in practical terms even when governments are professedly non-Christian. The power of life and death. Capital punishment is undoubtedly in view. Elsewhere Paul accepts the principle of such punishment where appropriate (Acts 25:11). What the individual must not do out of a motive of revenge (12:19), the state may legitimately do in the pursuit of justice. New Geneva study Bible. 1997, c1995 (electronic ed.) (Ro 13:4). Nashville: Thomas Nelson. |
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17 | How is the tongues speaker edified? | 1 Cor 14:4 | JRdoc | 61235 | ||
If you do a study of tongues (pl) in 1 Cor 14 you will see two types mentioned. While in the singular (unknown tongue) they refer to the counterfeit gift (exception of verse 27, I believe) when in the plural (tongues) the genuine gift. Do a study on Corinth's history and you will discover that the counterfeit gift is not of God--you may trace their history from the Tower of Babel forward. They are gibberish, meaningless for edification in the Church. The original gift has passed away but always (1) had a interpreter (2) others could already understand their own language being spoken (compare with initial outpouring in Acts). Notice one of the major purposes of the gift of TONGUES (pl) was for unbelieving Jews (1 Cor 14...in the law it is written), since Judaism passed away as a valid religion with the destruction of the Temple --70 AD, Judaism in essence can no longer exist in its true O.T. form. If you get into the Greek text of the end of 1 Cor 13 you will also see that tongues (pl-genuine) had a built in stopping place. Now to your question I know of no Scripture reference that tells us to speak to God in any unknown language (whether then, and of course now since they have passed away)? Experience does not dictate whether tongues still exist, only the Word of God may be our reference and the evidence of cessation is clearly seen throughout. A good book on this is Charismatic CHaos by John MacArthur |
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18 | Is the Prayer edified? | 1 Cor 14:4 | JRdoc | 61395 | ||
Are we in the same danger today with the emphasis on signs and wonders but no righteousness. Is God impressed with us doing mighty works? I like what you said there. I believe we are in much danger. You said it correctly “US doing mighty works” and not Him doing the works. I am fearful that not only in the Pentecostal and Holiness movements but in all out churches we are seeing a drawing away to the ways of man vs. the ways of God. I am from the Reformed camp and even within our ranks I see a separation from the truth into many “philosophies that are not biblical. Of course our Lord told us that these days would come. May God Bless as we seek to follow His will and do His bidding. |
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19 | Ephesians | Eph 1:1 | JRdoc | 61128 | ||
The letter probably had a broader audience than Ephesus alone. Some of the oldest Greek manuscripts do not include “in Ephesus” in the address of the letter (1:1), reading instead: “to the saints who are also faithful in Christ Jesus.” Several early Christian writers seem unaware of a specifically Ephesian address. The letter lacks the personal references and greetings Paul almost always includes in his correspondence. At the same time, no manuscripts name any other city as the address of the epistle. Many scholars believe Ephesians was written as a general letter to a number of churches in the region. This would be in keeping with the sweeping contents of the letter as a whole. It is likely that Paul originally sent the letter to Ephesus, but as the letter was sent from church to church the address was omitted because the contents had little to do with Ephesus in particular. Or it may be that the letter was originally in two forms, one for the Ephesians and one for general circulation. Characteristics and Themes Like the letter to the Romans, Ephesians provides a special view into Paul’s thought, since he had the luxury of addressing an important issue without the distraction of having to settle a local controversy. The focus of Ephesians is the mystery of the church. The church is God’s new humanity, a colony where the Lord of history has established a foretaste of the renewed unity and dignity of the human race (1:10–14; 2:11–22; 3:6, 9–11; 4:1–6:9). New Geneva study Bible. 1997, c1995 (electronic ed.) (Eph 1:1). Nashville: Thomas Nelson. |
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20 | christ has many wives | Eph 5:1 | JRdoc | 61531 | ||
YOU SAID: “If there is one spirit why is there so many interpretation on the Word of God; and why is there so many denominations. “ You are assuming they are all interpreting the Scripture from the viewpoint of the Word of God and His Spirit. Trace the history of the churches, denominations and such and you will be very surprised how many “false theologies” did not find their beginning in the text of Scripture, but in a cult…….i.e. the unknown tongue of 1 Cor 14 may be traced back to the Tower of Babel (see thread on this) dispensationalism may be traced back to the Tongues movement and automatic handwriting….and the list goes on…. There is a difference between exegesis (rightly dividing the Word of God) and “I”sogesis (assuming your mind and thoughts upon the text). YOU SAID “Wouln't that mean that christ is a polygamist if he embraced all of them churches. Eph 5:25 Husbands, love your wive............(read)not plural. I only have one wife. Christs has many wives(churches) is that possible.” There is only ONE true CHURCH and not many churches. Christ’s true CHURCH (sing) is in many churches (Pl). No one denomination has “all” the saved without exception in it (there are tares among the wheat in every church…..and here I speak of evangelical churches not the cults...). There is one bride and One Lord, Christ died for His Church and nothing more and it is The Church that will rise to be with Him in the end…… |
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