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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: ohmi Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Ephraim never accepted Judaism ! | Matt 15:24 | ohmi | 207824 | ||
[The children of/ remnant of] the House of Israel are clearly Israelites and equally clearly were separate from the House of Judah and rejected Judaism, serving other gods to this day ,as the Torah states :- Deuteronomy 28:64 And the LORD shall scatter thee among all people, from the one end of the earth even unto the other; and there thou shalt serve other gods, which neither thou nor thy fathers have known, even wood and stone. So please explain your statement which disagrees with the Torah [Law] here. As for the new covenant, it was explained to Israel long before Jesus came [Jer 31:31-34] and, since the disciples were almost exclusively Jewish , there can be no doubt that some Jews accepted Jesus as the messiah ,although the Rabbis rejected him because he claimed authority above them which they interpreted as blasphemy [and so had their Roman overlords kill him] The House of Israel [led by Ephraim] is clearly the lost foolish [God-less] Israelite nation who , unlike the Jews, ceased to be a people but are prophesied to re-emerge from amongst the gentiles and make the Jews jealous with knowledge of the messiah :- Isaiah 7:8 ...within threescore and five years shall Ephraim be broken, that it be not a people. Deuteronomy 32:21 ...I will move them to jealousy with those which are not a people; I will provoke them to anger with a foolish nation. 1 Peter 2:9 But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light: 10 Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy. Again, this role, of re-united Israel as one nation with one king of both Jews and the House of Israel, is prophesied in the Torah [Ex 19:6] as the lot of the remnant "children of Israel", not just the Jews, but also the paganised House of Israel who never accepted Judaism, who never were and never became Jews , but serve other gods unlike Judasim, and were scattered amongst all nations long before the Jews were. Yet God forgives their paganism unconditionally in their new covenant [Jer 31:31-34, Heb 8:8-12] , not for their sake, but for His sake, because of His prophecy ... thus the Jews need to be taught their own Torah and Prophets because the re-emergence of the House of Israel is prophesied and it cannot be re-united with the Jews until they understand that they are not the only Israelites , that God also sifted the House of Israel through the gentile nations :- Amos 9:9 For, lo, I will command, and I will sift the house of Israel among all nations, like as corn is sifted in a sieve, yet shall not the least grain fall upon the earth. The differeneces then are that: -1.- the Jews never ceased to be a nation, but the House of Israel did. -2.- the Jews held to Judaism, but the House of Israel served other Gods even from long before Jesus came to the present. -3.- No modern Jews are descended from Ephraim ,yet we know that the descendants of the house of Israel are part of the eventually re-united Israel under the messiah. -4.- Jesus was sent only to the House of Israel and sent his disciples rather to the House of Israel [the so-called 'great commission'] amongst the gentiles [not to the gentiles ,nor to the House of Judah, the 'Jews' !] -5.- Jews did not 'serve other gods' when they were scattered , they stuck with Judaism and so retained their identity, but the House of Israel vanished as a nation , a holy people known only to God as the [larger] part of His holy nation Israel. So you did not support your statements [as requested to do so by the site], but it seems that you very much need to since they apparently disagree with both the OT and the NT ... |
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2 | Jesus sent only to the House of Israel? | Matt 15:24 | ohmi | 207819 | ||
Why did Jesus say that he was for now only sent to the [non-Jewish, but Israelite] House of Israel and why is the new covenant only with a remnant few of them and of the the Jews :- Matthew 15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Heb 8:8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah: 9 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord. |
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