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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: johnclin Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | confusion about 1Cor 14:22b and 24 | 1 Cor 14:25 | johnclin | 122998 | ||
Hi, I do clearly understand what he means about the tongues part. I just need to explain to a friend why he says: "prophecy, however, is for believers, not for unbelievers" vs. "24But if an unbeliever or someone who does not understand comes in while everybody is prophesying, he will be convinced..." I cannot adequately explain it to him because I personally don't understand why he said it's not for unbelievers (v. 22) when it will also convict them of their sin. I don't know if the answer involves any theology but more so just understanding the text a little better. Thanks for your help as I'm still stumped. (The tongues part I can explain now.) |
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2 | cont'd 1 Cor. 14:22, 24 question | 1 Cor 14:25 | johnclin | 122985 | ||
I think I am understanding part of what I was asking. First in v. 22, I understand now that tongues are not a sign for believers as they don't need the sign that speaking in tongues would give unbelievers. So that make sense. What doesn't make as much sense is the prophecy part in v. 22. Is this prophecy the same understanding as the one in v. 24? My question is then why would Paul say that an unbeliever in v. 24 comes in and hears prophecy would be convinced that he is a sinner, when in v. 22 he says it's not for unbelievers. The wording doesn't make sense to me, that's all. Thanks. |
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3 | Contradiction with 1 Cor 14:22 and 24 | 1 Cor 14:25 | johnclin | 122953 | ||
I guess what I'm not understanding is why Apostle Paul would say "22Tongues, then, are a sign, not for believers but for unbelievers; prophecy, however, is for believers, not for unbelievers." and then in the next part "contradict" what he just said. Am I not reading it right? | ||||||
4 | 1 Corinthians 14:22-25 misunderstanding | 1 Cor 14:25 | johnclin | 122937 | ||
I have a question on 1 Corinthians 14:22-25. Basically, tongues can be both for believers (when translated properly) and unbelievers (as a sign that God is with them). Also, prophecy is for believers and also for unbelievers (v. 24). But why does it say in v. 22 then that tongues are not a sign for believers and prophecy is not for unbelievers? It seems to be unnecessary for him to say that since it is useful for both in the right way. Am I missing something? |
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