Results 1 - 7 of 7
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: dayoak Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Jesus written about by Moses | John 5:46 | dayoak | 138566 | ||
Can anyone recommend a good book or Bible study, or supply a list of passages showing the writings of Moses concerning Christ? | ||||||
2 | is there a change in audience? | John 8:47 | dayoak | 138037 | ||
I appreciate your insight into the language. Yet even you paraphrase; "The ones who are of God always hear and believe My words. That is why you do not hear or believe: because you are not of God." points out the problem I'm having in understanding, since vs 31 and prior, (especially vs 23 - 30) states Jesus is talking to the Jews who had believed (put their faith in him) after having heard him teach. I have to wonder, if the people being addressed in vs 32 are the believers, and in vs 33 he again is addressing the Pharisees wtih whom he had been reasoning earlier? That would make the rest of the passage make sense. |
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3 | believer or disciple | John 8:47 | dayoak | 137939 | ||
We agree that it is a work of God for someone to become a believer, so why then does Jesus say they do not hear the words of God because they are not of God? In vs 31, it says that Jesus is specificly addressing those who had believed him, yet his response to them in that verse is a conditional statement. "IF you hold to my teachings, you are really my disciples." Does this indicate Jesus makes a distinction between a believer and a disciple? |
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4 | Can believers not be of God? | John 8:47 | dayoak | 137932 | ||
John 8:31 states that Jesus is talking to those who have believed in him. The Bible states that no one can come to Christ except the Father draw them. Hence, they would have to in a sense, hear God. Yet in John 8:47, after several verses of dialogue, he states that they do not hear the words of God, "because you are not of God." Can someone give me their opinoin, or a perspective on this statement. I would think for a person to be a beliver, would make that person someone of God's. | ||||||
5 | passed over previously committed sins | Rom 3:25 | dayoak | 93212 | ||
In Leviticus chapter 4 we see the sin offering for sin through ignorance, or not intentional sin. In Hebrews 10:26 we read, For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins. Could not Romans 3:25 when it speaks of: The remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God, refer to people under both the Old and New Testaments who sin prior to coming to the knowledge of the truth? Hence there is no remission for intentional sins, but a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation which shall devour the adversaries. And we know him that hath said, Vengence belongeth unto me, I will recompense, saith the Lord. And again, The Lord shall judge his people. See Heb. 10:26 through 31. |
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6 | why did God have to create light? | Gen 1:3 | dayoak | 77676 | ||
The gospel of John tells us that Jesus Christ is the creator and he is the Light. Why in Gen. 1 does God have to create light? and why would the world have been created in darkness? It seems that God should have had to create darkness since 1 John 1:5 states: God is light, and in him is no darkness at all." (KJV) | ||||||
7 | offspring of satan? | Gen 3:15 | dayoak | 75320 | ||
Can anyone give further insight into what is the seed or offspring of Satan using scripture to support or document their opinion? | ||||||