Results 1 - 10 of 10
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: Truthfinder Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Genesis chapter 1 | Gen 1:16 | Truthfinder | 96554 | ||
Hi all. Just curious. On which day was the sun created? Truthfinder |
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2 | IS MOSES GOD? | Acts 7:35 | Truthfinder | 90889 | ||
IS MOSES GOD? Who did the Children of Israel say brought them up out of the land of Egypt? Acts 7:40 Saying unto Aaron, Make us gods to go before us: for as for this Moses, which brought us out of the land of Egypt, we know not what is become of him. Who did Jehovah say brought them up? Exo 32:7 And the LORD said unto Moses, Go, get thee down; for thy people, which thou broughtest out of the land of Egypt, have corrupted themselves: Truthfinder |
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3 | IS MOSES GOD? | Acts 7:35 | Truthfinder | 90891 | ||
IS MOSES GOD? Who did the Children of Israel say brought them up out of the land of Egypt? Acts 7:40 Saying unto Aaron, Make us gods to go before us: for as for this Moses, which brought us out of the land of Egypt, we know not what is become of him. Who did Jehovah say brought them up? Exo 32:7 And the LORD said unto Moses, Go, get thee down; for thy people, which thou broughtest out of the land of Egypt, have corrupted themselves: Truthfinder |
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4 | What is a cult? | Matt 16:15 | Truthfinder | 90720 | ||
What is a cult? Some here on this forum have tried to answer this question. The term “cult” is used loosely by many who may not be fully aware of its connotations. To prevent confusion, some theologians actually avoid using the term. The World Book Encyclopedia explains that “traditionally, the term cult referred to any form of worship or ritual observance.” By that criterion, all religious organizations could be classified as cults. However, in general usage today, the word “cult” has a different meaning. The same encyclopedia notes that “since the mid-1900’s, publicity about cults has altered the meaning of the term. Today, the term is applied to groups that follow a living leader who promotes new and unorthodox doctrines and practices.” Endorsing the popular usage of the term, Newsweek magazine explains that cults “are normally small, fringe groups whose members derive their identity and purpose from a single, charismatic individual.” Similarly, Asiaweek magazine notes that “the term [cult] itself is vague, but it usually denotes a new religious creed built around a charismatic leader, who often proclaims himself to be the personification of God.” The language used in a joint resolution of the 100th Congress of the State of Maryland, U.S.A., also conveys the derogatory connotation of the term cult. The resolution states that “a cult is a group or movement exhibiting excessive devotion to a person or idea and employing unethically manipulative techniques of persuasion and control to advance the goals of its leaders.” Clearly, cults are generally understood to be religious groups with radical views and practices that clash with what is accepted today as normal social behavior. Usually they conduct their religious activities in secrecy. Many of these cultic groups actually isolate themselves in communes. Their devotion to a self-proclaimed human leader is likely to be unconditional and exclusive. Often these leaders boast of having been divinely chosen or even of being themselves divine in nature. Many here on this forum reference Jehovah’s Witnesses as a cult. A number of recent newspaper articles lump the Witnesses with religious groups known for their questionable practices. But would it be accurate to refer to Jehovah’s Witnesses as a small fringe religious group? Cult members often isolate themselves from friends, family, and even society in general. Is that the case with Jehovah’s Witnesses? Are the Witnesses using deceptive and unethical techniques to recruit members? Cult leaders are known to use manipulative methods to control the minds of their followers. Is there any evidence that Jehovah’s Witnesses do this? Is their worship cloaked in secrecy? Are they following and venerating a human leader? Truthfinder |
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5 | What is a cult? | Matt 18:6 | Truthfinder | 90717 | ||
What is a cult? Some here on this forum have tried to answer this question. The term “cult” is used loosely by many who may not be fully aware of its connotations. To prevent confusion, some theologians actually avoid using the term. The World Book Encyclopedia explains that “traditionally, the term cult referred to any form of worship or ritual observance.” By that criterion, all religious organizations could be classified as cults. However, in general usage today, the word “cult” has a different meaning. The same encyclopedia notes that “since the mid-1900’s, publicity about cults has altered the meaning of the term. Today, the term is applied to groups that follow a living leader who promotes new and unorthodox doctrines and practices.” Endorsing the popular usage of the term, Newsweek magazine explains that cults “are normally small, fringe groups whose members derive their identity and purpose from a single, charismatic individual.” Similarly, Asiaweek magazine notes that “the term [cult] itself is vague, but it usually denotes a new religious creed built around a charismatic leader, who often proclaims himself to be the personification of God.” The language used in a joint resolution of the 100th Congress of the State of Maryland, U.S.A., also conveys the derogatory connotation of the term cult. The resolution states that “a cult is a group or movement exhibiting excessive devotion to a person or idea and employing unethically manipulative techniques of persuasion and control to advance the goals of its leaders.” Clearly, cults are generally understood to be religious groups with radical views and practices that clash with what is accepted today as normal social behavior. Usually they conduct their religious activities in secrecy. Many of these cultic groups actually isolate themselves in communes. Their devotion to a self-proclaimed human leader is likely to be unconditional and exclusive. Often these leaders boast of having been divinely chosen or even of being themselves divine in nature. Many here on this forum reference Jehovah’s Witnesses as a cult. A number of recent newspaper articles lump the Witnesses with religious groups known for their questionable practices. But would it be accurate to refer to Jehovah’s Witnesses as a small fringe religious group? Cult members often isolate themselves from friends, family, and even society in general. Is that the case with Jehovah’s Witnesses? Are the Witnesses using deceptive and unethical techniques to recruit members? Cult leaders are known to use manipulative methods to control the minds of their followers. Is there any evidence that Jehovah’s Witnesses do this? Is their worship cloaked in secrecy? Are they following and venerating a human leader? Truthfinder |
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6 | April 16, 2003 | Bible general Archive 1 | Truthfinder | 80617 | ||
Hi all, Easter, Christmas, or Memorial of Jesus’ death? Most Christians I know and most here on this forum doubtless celebrate the Memorial of Jesus’ death (Lord’s Supper) but perhaps not Easter nor Christmas. The reason being, they feel the early first century Christians did not observe the latter two, yet realize Jesus plainly told his followers to observe a memorial of his death. Jesus’ command is found in two different places in the Bible. At 1 Cor. 11:24-26, “and, after giving thanks, he broke it and said: “This means my body which is in YOUR behalf. Keep doing this in remembrance of me.” 25 He did likewise respecting the cup also, after he had the evening meal, saying: “This cup means the new covenant by virtue of my blood. Keep doing this, as often as YOU drink it, in remembrance of me.” 26 For as often as YOU eat this loaf and drink this cup, YOU keep proclaiming the death of the Lord, until he arrives.” And secondly at Luke 22:1920, “Also, he took a loaf, gave thanks, broke it, and gave it to them, saying: “This means my body which is to be given in YOUR behalf. Keep doing this in remembrance of me.” 20 Also, the cup in the same way after they had the evening meal, he saying: “This cup means the new covenant by virtue of my blood, which is to be poured out in YOUR behalf. One of the finest ways we can show appreciation for the ransom is by attending the Memorial of Christ’s death and of course this year it falls on April 16 after sundown. Unquestionably, Jesus Christ’s death, over 1,900 years ago was the most important event in human history. Truthfinder |
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7 | Jesus, "a god"--John 1:18 | John 1:18 | Truthfinder | 76533 | ||
Jesus being "a god" in John 1:18, differs from translation to translation. Why? From what Greek manuscripts are the most popular Bible translations from? Truthfinder |
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8 | Exodus 3:14 connected to John 8:58? | Ex 3:14 | Truthfinder | 76077 | ||
Hi Tim You wrote: There isn't any doubt as to what Jesus was doing in this verse. He uses the exact phrase that Jehovah used of Himself in Ex. 3:14, as translated by the LXX. The LXX says in Ex 3:14: (transliterated) Kai apen ha theos prahs Monsan, legon, eigo emi ha On, (And spoke the God toward Moses, saying, I am the Being. Translation provided in the LXX: And God spoke to Moses, sayking, I am THE BEING. Kenneth L. McKay, who graduated with honors in Classics from the Universities of Sydney and Cambridge, taught Greek in universities and theological colleges in Nigeria, New Zealand, and England, who taught at the Australian National University for 26 years, has written numerous articles on ancient Greek syntax, as well as authored a book on Classical Attic, Greek Grammar for Students, and A New Syntax of the Verb in New Testament Greek: an aspectual approach, provides the following in relation to the alleged "true parallel between Exodus 3:14 (LXX) and John 8:58" . And further recommends an author of whom I make mention of by saying, “ I recommend Rolf Furuli's chapter concerning John 8:58 for a through explanation of this point.” ------------------------------------------------------ 'I am' in John's Gospel The Expository Times, 1996, page 302 BY K. L. MCKAY, MA, FORMERLY OF THE AUSTRALIAN UNIVERSITY ------------------------------------------------------- It has become fashionable among some preachers and writers to relate Jesus's use of the words 'I am' in the Gospel according to John, in all, or most, of their contexts, to God's declaration to Moses in Exodus 3:14, and to expound the passages concerned as if the words themselves have some kind of magic in them. Some who have no more than a smattering of Greek attribute the 'magic' to the Greek words egw eimi. [1] I wish briefly to draw attention to the normality of the Greek in all such passages, and the unlikelihood of the words egw eimi being intended to suggest any special significance of this kind. It is, of course, perfectly reasonable to draw attention to Jesus's claims about himself by noting the 'I am' element common to them: 'I am the bread of life' (6:35), 'I am the light of the world' (8:12), 'I am the gate/door' (10:7), 'I am the good shepherd' (10:11), 'I am the resurrection and the life' (11:25), 'I am the way, the truth and the life' (14:6), 'I am the true vine' (15:1). These statements give important insights into the identity and work of Jesus, and we can be challenged to decide whether the words 'I am' in them convey truth, delusion, deceit, or something else. In each case the Greek words used are egw eimi, the pronoun being emphatic (as is usually appropriate in beginning a startling fresh statement, answering a question of identity or personal activity, and in some other circumstances), and the verb, also slightly emphatic, [2] being the normal use of the verb 'to be' as a copula, the means of linking the subject with the significant words, 'bread', 'light', etc., which occur as noun complements. The same principle applies when the complement is an adjective or an adverb or adverbial phrase used adjectivally. With variations of context the degree of emphasis may vary, and either the pronoun or the verb may be omitted. In the parallelism of 8:23 pronoun and verb are separated: humeis ek ton kato este, egw ek ton ano eimi, but in the immediately following parallel statement the introduction of a negative brings the verb forward (thus also giving extra emphasis to toutou): egw ouk eimi ek tou kosmou toutou. In 14:10 the verb is omitted, because it is understood from the rest of the sentence: egw en tw patri kai ho pater en emoi estin. [3] In 14:20 a development from the same statement, also in a hoti clause, omits the copula entirely: egw en tw patri mou kai humeis en emoi kagw en humin. In 10:36 the personal pronoun is not needed for emphasis, and is omitted: huios tou theou eimi. In 7:34 and 7:36 the clause structure demands the postposition of the subject: hopou eimi egw humeis ou dunasthe elthein. (Continued) |
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9 | John 1:18 "only begotten God". | John 1:18 | Truthfinder | 73428 | ||
Hi all, I was reading some of the comments about John 1:18, but they were a couple of years back, and notice those that commented haven't commented for a year or two, except Tim Morgan. Anyway, any comments as to why different Bibles use Son instead of God in this verse. ho monogenes gios, instead of "theos". My NKJV Greek English Interlinear has an explanation but ultimately, why are different mss so different? The NIV's translation has to about the worse I have seen; "No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known." True it is not a "literal" translation but come on! Notice the New American Standard's: No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained (Him.)" Now I can understand that one. And my second question is what does (monogenous) "only-begotten" in this verse mean? Let's get into it in depth. Our having access to lexicons on the "Net" enables us to "reason" on the semantics of various orignal-language words. Any comments?, because this verse shows me how John 1:1 should accurately be translated not colored by theology nor bias, but allowing theology to play a legitimate role in our translations. I'm in no hurry, just sincere and enjoying "Bible study" (both learning and sharing what I have learned). Truthfinder |
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10 | Mark 13:32 and 1 Corinthians 15:24,28 | Phil 2:6 | Truthfinder | 72927 | ||
Would someone please explain these verses. I understand and believe in the diety of Christ Jesus, but perhaps in a somewhat different way. Jesus, being the “Son” of the “Father” is thus from the Father. So, Jesus is not the Father nor the Almighty God, but his only begotten GOD "a son of GOD". Thus too he is lesser than his Father or Creator. (Mark 13:32) “Concerning that day or the hour nobody knows, neither the angels in heaven nor the Son, but the Father. (1 Corinthians 15:24,28) Next, the end, when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power. 28 But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone. Truthfinder |
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